NEET-UG 2007 Question Paper

QUESTION PAPER

2007 NEET EXAM

NEET-UG 2007 Question Paper

2007

NEET-UG

CBSE EXAMINATION PAPER-2007

NEET-ZOOLOGY

(Solved)

Time allowed : 3 hours

Maximum Marks : 800

General Instructions :

Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :

  1. This question paper contains 200 questions. All questions are compulsory.
  2. This question paper is divided into 1 sections.
  3. Section A – questions number 1 to 200 are multiple choice questions
  4. There is no overall choice given in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions.
  5. Use of calculator is NOT allowed.

Section A

Question 1.

Dimensions of resistance in an electrical circuit, in terms of dimension of mass [M], of length [L], of time [T] and of current [I], would be

[4 Marks]
  • (A) [ML²T⁻³I⁻¹]
  • (B) [ML²T⁻³I⁻²]
  • (C) [ML²T⁻²]
  • (D) [ML²T⁻¹I⁻¹]
Question 2.

A car moves from X to Y with a uniform speed v_u and returns to Y with a uniform speed v_d. The average speed for this round trip is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) √(v_u v_d)
  • (B) (v_d v_u) / (v_d + v_u)
  • (C) 2v_d v_u / (v_d + v_u)
  • (D) (v_u + v_d) / 2
Question 3.

The position x of a particle with respect to time t along x-axis is given by x = 9t² - t³ where x is in metres and t in second. What will be the position of this particle when it achieves maximum speed along the +ve x direction?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 81m
  • (B) 54m
  • (C) 32m
  • (D) 24m
Question 4.

A particle moving along x-axis has acceleration f, at time t, given by f = f_0 (1 - t/T), where f_0 and T are constants. The particle at t = 0 has zero velocity. In the time interval between t = 0 and the instant when f = 0, the particle's velocity (v_x) is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) f_0 T²
  • (B) (1/2) f_0 T²
  • (C) (1/2) f_0 T
  • (D) f_0 T
Question 5.

𝐀⃗ and 𝐁⃗ are two vectors and θ is the angle between them, if | 𝐀⃗ x 𝐁⃗| = √3( 𝐀⃗ . 𝐁⃗ ), the value of θ is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 60°
  • (B) 90°
  • (C) 30°
  • (D) 45°
Question 6.

A particle starting from the origin (0, 0) moves in the (x, y) plane. Its coordinates at a later time are (√3, 3). The path of the particle makes with the x-axis an angle of

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 60°
  • (B) 45°
  • (C) 0°
  • (D) 30°
Question 7.

A block B is pushed momentarily along a horizontal surface with an initial velocity V. If μ is the coefficient of sliding friction between B and the surface, block B will come to rest after a time

[4 Marks] Diagram 1 – NEET-UG 2007 Question Paper
  • (A) gμ/V
  • (B) g/V
  • (C) V/g
  • (D) V/(gμ)
Question 8.

A vertical spring with force constant k is fixed on a table. A ball of mass m at a height h above the free upper end of the spring falls vertically on the spring so that the spring is compressed by a distance d. The net work done in the process is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) mg(h + d) - (1/2)kd²
  • (B) mg(h - d) - (1/2)kd²
  • (C) mg(h - d) + (1/2)kd²
  • (D) mg(h + d) + (1/2)kd²
Question 9.

A wheel has angular acceleration of 3.0 rad/sec² and an initial angular speed of 2.00 rad/sec. In a time of 2 sec it has rotated through an angle (in radian) of

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 10
  • (B) 12
  • (C) 6
  • (D) 4
Question 10.

A uniform rod AB of length l, and mass m is free to rotate about point A. The rod is released from rest in the horizontal position. Given that the moment of inertia of the rod about A is ml²/3, the initial angular acceleration of the rod will be

[4 Marks] Diagram 2 – NEET-UG 2007 Question Paper
  • (A) mgl/2
  • (B) 2g/(3l)
  • (C) 3g/(2l)
  • (D) (3/2)gl
Question 11.

A particle of mass m moves in the XY plane with a velocity v along the straight line AB. If the angular momentum of the particle with respect to origin O is L_A when it is at A and L_B when it is at B, then

[4 Marks] Diagram 3 – NEET-UG 2007 Question Paper
  • (A) the relationship between L_A and L_B depends upon the slope of the line AB
  • (B) L_A > L_B
  • (C) L_A = L_B
  • (D) L_A < L_B
Question 12.

Two satellites of earth, S₁ and S₂ are moving in the same orbit. The mass of S₁ is four times the mass of S₂. Which one of the following statements is true?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) The potential energies of earth satellites in the two cases are equal.
  • (B) S₁ and S₂ are moving with the same speed.
  • (C) The kinetic energies of the two satellites are equal.
  • (D) The time period of S₁ is four times that of S₂.
Question 13.

If the cold junction of a thermo-couple is kept at 0°C and the hot junction is kept at T°C then the relation between neutral temperature (T_n) and temperature of inversion (T_i) is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) T_n = 2T_i
  • (B) T_n = T_i - T
  • (C) T_n = T_i + T
  • (D) T_n = T_i / 2
Question 14.

A black body is at 727°C. It emits energy at a rate which is proportional to

[4 Marks]
  • (A) (727)²
  • (B) (727)⁴
  • (C) (1000)²
  • (D) (1000)⁴
Question 15.

Assuming the sun to have a spherical outer surface of radius r, radiating like a black body at temperature t°C, the power received by a unit surface, (normal to the incident rays) at a distance R from the centre of the sun is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) r² σ (t + 273)⁴ / (4πR²)
  • (B) 16π² r² σ t⁴ / R²
  • (C) r² σ (t + 273)⁴ / R²
  • (D) 4πr² σ t⁴ / R²
Question 16.

An engine has an efficiency of 1/6. When the temperature of sink is reduced by 62°C, its efficiency is doubled. Temperature of the source is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 37°C
  • (B) 62°C
  • (C) 99°C
  • (D) 124°C
Question 17.

The phase difference between the instantaneous velocity and acceleration of a particle executing simple harmonic motion is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 0.707π
  • (B) π
  • (C) zero
  • (D) 0.5π
Question 18.

The particle executing simple harmonic motion has a kinetic energy K_0 cos² ωt. The maximum values of the potential energy and the total energy are respectively

[4 Marks]
  • (A) K_0 / 2 and K_0
  • (B) K_0 and 2K_0
  • (C) K_0 and K_0
  • (D) 0 and 2K_0
Question 19.

A mass of 2.0 kg is put on a flat pan attached to a vertical spring fixed on the ground as shown in the figure. The mass of the spring and the pan is negligible. When pressed slightly and released the mass executes a simple harmonic motion. The spring constant is 200 N/m. What should be the minimum amplitude of the motion so that the mass gets detached from the pan (take g = 10 m/s²)?

[4 Marks] Diagram 4 – NEET-UG 2007 Question Paper
  • (A) any value less than 12.0 cm
  • (B) 8.0 cm
  • (C) 4.0 cm
  • (D) 10.0 cm
Question 20.

A particle executes simple harmonic oscillation with an amplitude a. The period of oscillation is T. The minimum time taken by the particle to travel half of the amplitude from the equilibrium position is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) T/8
  • (B) T/12
  • (C) T/2
  • (D) T/4
Question 21.

Three point charges +q, -q and +q are placed at points (x = 0, y = a, z = 0), (x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) and (x = a, y = 0, z = 0) respectively. The magnitude and direction of the electric dipole moment vector of this charge assembly are

[4 Marks]
  • (A) √2 qa along +ve x direction
  • (B) √2 qa along +ve y direction
  • (C) qa along the line joining points (x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) and (x = a, y = a, z = 0)
  • (D) √2 qa along the line joining points (x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) and (x = a, y = a, z = 0)
Question 22.

A hollow cylinder has a charge q coulomb within it. If φ is the electric flux in units of voltmeter associated with the curved surface B, the flux linked with the plane surface A in units of voltmeter will be

[4 Marks] Diagram 5 – NEET-UG 2007 Question Paper
  • (A) q / (2ε_0)
  • (B) φ / 3
  • (C) q/ε_0 - φ
  • (D) (1/2) * (q/ε_0 - φ)
Question 23.

Charges +q and -q are placed at points A and B respectively which are a distance 2L apart, C is the midpoint between A and B. The work done in moving a charge +Q along the semicircle CRD is

[4 Marks] Diagram 6 – NEET-UG 2007 Question Paper
  • (A) - qQ / (6π ε_0 L)
  • (B) qQ / (6π ε_0 L)
  • (C) qQ / (2π ε_0 L)
  • (D) qQ / (4π ε_0 L)
Question 24.

Two condensers, one of capacity C and other of capacity C/2 are connected to a V-volt battery, as shown.

The work done in charging fully both the condensers is

[4 Marks] Diagram 7 – NEET-UG 2007 Question Paper
  • (A) (1/4) CV²
  • (B) (3/4) CV²
  • (C) (1/2) CV²
  • (D) 2CV²
Question 25.

A steady current of 1.5 amp flows through a copper voltameter for 10 minutes. If the electrochemical equivalent of copper is 30 × 10⁻⁵ g coulomb⁻¹, the mass of copper deposited on the electrode will be

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 0.67 g
  • (B) 0.50 g
  • (C) 0.40 g
  • (D) 0.27 g
Question 26.

The total power dissipated in watts in the circuit shown here is

[4 Marks] Diagram 8 – NEET-UG 2007 Question Paper
  • (A) 40
  • (B) 54
  • (C) 4
  • (D) 16
Question 27.

Three resistances P, Q, R each of 2Ω and an unknown resistance S form the four arms of a Wheatstone bridge circuit. When a resistance of 6Ω is connected in parallel to S the bridge gets balanced. What is the value of S?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 3Ω
  • (B) 6Ω
  • (C) 2Ω
  • (D) 1Ω
Question 28.

A beam of electron passes undeflected through mutually perpendicular electric and magnetic fields. If the electric field is switched off, and the same magnetic field is maintained, the electrons move

[4 Marks]
  • (A) along a parabolic path
  • (B) in a circular orbit
  • (C) in an elliptical orbit
  • (D) along a straight line
Question 29.

In a mass spectrometer used for measuring the masses of ions, the ions are initially accelerated by an electric potential V and then made to describe semicircular path of radius R using a magnetic field B. If V and B are kept constant, the ratio (charge on the ion / mass of the ion) will be proportional to

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 1/R
  • (B) R
  • (C) 1/R²
  • (D) R²
Question 30.

A charged particle (charge q) is moving in a circle of radius R with uniform speed v. The associated magnetic moment μ is given by

[4 Marks]
  • (A) qvR²
  • (B) qvR²/2
  • (C) qvR
  • (D) qvR/2
Question 31.

Under the influence of a uniform magnetic field a charged particle is moving in a circle of radius R with constant speed v. The time period of the motion

[4 Marks]
  • (A) depends on R and not on v
  • (B) depends on v and not on R
  • (C) depends on both R and v
  • (D) is independent of both R and v
Question 32.

The resistance of an ammeter is 13 Ω and its scale is graduated for a current upto 100 amps. After an additional shunt has been connected to this ammeter it becomes possible to measure currents upto 750 amperes by this meter. The value of shunt-resistance is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 20 Ω
  • (B) 0.2 Ω
  • (C) 2 kΩ
  • (D) 2 Ω
Question 33.

Nickel shows ferromagnetic property at room temperature. If the temperature is increased beyond Curie temperature, then it will show

[4 Marks]
  • (A) anti ferromagnetism
  • (B) no magnetic property
  • (C) diamagnetism
  • (D) paramagnetism
Question 34.

What is the value of inductance L for which the current is maximum in a series LCR circuit with C = 10 μF and ω = 1000 s⁻¹?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) cannot be calculated unless R is known
  • (B) 1 mH
  • (C) 10 mH
  • (D) 100 mH
Question 35.

The primary and secondary coil of a transformer have 50 and 1500 turns respectively. If the magnetic flux φ linked with the primary coil is given by φ = φ_0 + 4t, where φ is in webers, t is time in seconds and φ_0 is a constant, the output voltage across the secondary coil is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 30 volts
  • (B) 90 volts
  • (C) 120 volts
  • (D) 220 volts
Question 36.

A transformer is used to light a 100 W and 110 V lamp from a 220 V mains. If the main current is 0.5 amp, the efficiency of the transformer is approximately

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 90%
  • (B) 50%
  • (C) 10%
  • (D) 30%
Question 37.

The electric and magnetic field of an electro-magnetic wave are

[4 Marks]
  • (A) in opposite phase and perpendicular to each other
  • (B) in opposite phase and parallel to each other
  • (C) in phase and perpendicular to each other
  • (D) in phase and parallel to each other
Question 38.

The frequency of a light wave in a material is 2 × 10¹⁴ Hz and wavelength is 5000 Å. The refractive index of material will be

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 1.50
  • (B) 3.00
  • (C) 1.4
  • (D) 1.33
Question 39.

A small coin is resting on the bottom of a beaker filled with liquid. A ray of light from the coin travels upto the surface of the liquid and moves along its surface. How fast is the light travelling in the liquid?

[4 Marks] Diagram 9 – NEET-UG 2007 Question Paper
  • (A) 1.8 * 10⁸ m/s
  • (B) 2.4 * 10⁸ m/s
  • (C) 3.0 * 10⁸ m/s
  • (D) 1.2 * 10⁸ m/s
Question 40.

Monochromatic light of frequency 6.0 × 10¹⁴ Hz is produced by a laser. The power emitted is 2 × 10⁻³ W. The number of photons emitted, on the average, by the sources per second is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 5 × 10¹⁴
  • (B) 5 × 10¹⁵
  • (C) 5 × 10¹⁷
  • (D) 5 × 10¹⁶
Question 41.

Biological organisation starts with

[4 Marks]
  • (A) submicroscopic molecular level
  • (B) atomic level
  • (C) organismic level
  • (D) cellular level
Question 42.

The living organisms can be unexceptionally distinguished from the non-living things on the basis of their ability for

[4 Marks]
  • (A) growth and movement
  • (B) interaction with the environment and progressive evolution
  • (C) responsiveness to touch
  • (D) reproduction
Question 43.

ICBN stands for

[4 Marks]
  • (A) International Code of Botanical Nomenclature
  • (B) Indian Congress of Biological Names
  • (C) Indian Code of Botanical Nomenclature
  • (D) International congress of Biological Names
Question 44.

Which one of the following statements about mycoplasma is wrong?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) They are sensitive to penicillin
  • (B) They are also called PPLO
  • (C) They cause diseases in plants
  • (D) They are pleomorphic
Question 45.

Which one of the following is a slime mould?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Anabaena
  • (B) Rhizopus
  • (C) Thiobacillus
  • (D) Physarum
Question 46.

Which pair of the following belongs to Basidiomycetes?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) birds nest fungi and puffballs
  • (B) Morchella and mushrooms
  • (C) puffballs and Claviceps
  • (D) peziza and stink horn
Question 47.

Ergot of rye is caused by species of of

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Claviceps
  • (B) Ustilago
  • (C) Phytophthora.
  • (D) Uncimula
Question 48.

If you are asked to classify the algae into distinct groups, which of the following characters you should choose?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) chemical composition of the cell wall
  • (B) types of pigments present in the cell
  • (C) structural organisation of thallus
  • (D) nature of stored food materials in the cell
Question 49.

Spore dissemination in some liverworts is aided by

[4 Marks]
  • (A) calyptra
  • (B) peristome teeth
  • (C) elaters
  • (D) indisium
Question 50.

In the prothallus of a vascular cryptogam, the antherozoids and eggs mature at different times. As a result

[4 Marks]
  • (A) there is no change in success rate of fertilization
  • (B) one can conclude that the plant is apomictic
  • (C) there is high degree of sterility
  • (D) self-fertilization is prevented
Question 51.

Flagellated male gametes are present in all the three of which one of the following sets?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Riccia, Dryopteris and Cycas
  • (B) Zygema, Saprolegnia and Hydrilla
  • (C) Fucus, Marsilea and Calotropis
  • (D) Anthoceros, Funaria and Spirogyra
Question 52.

In gymnosperms, the pollen chamber represents

[4 Marks]
  • (A) a cell in the pollen grain in which the sperms are formed
  • (B) the microsporangium in which pollen grains develop
  • (C) an opening in the megagametophyte through which the pollen tube approaches the egg
  • (D) a cavity in the ovule in which pollen grains are stored after pollination
Question 53.

What is true about Nereis, scorpion, cockroach and silver fish?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) None of them is aquatic
  • (B) They all have jointed paired appendages
  • (C) They all possess dorsal heart
  • (D) They all belong to the same phylum
Question 54.

Which one of the following is a matching pair of a body feature and the animal possessing it?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Pharyngeal gill slits absent in embryo — Chameleon
  • (B) ventral central nervous system — Leech
  • (C) Post-end tail — Octopus
  • (D) Ventral heart — Scorpion
Question 55.

Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Animals – Morphological features
(i) Crocodile – 4-chambered heart
(ii) Sea urchin – Parapodia
(iii) Obelia – Thecodont
(iv) Lemur – Thecodont

[4 Marks]
  • (A) only (i) and (iv)
  • (B) (i), (iii) and (iv)
  • (C) only (i) and (ii)
  • (D) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Question 56.

Which of the following is a flowering plant with nodules containing filamentous nitrogen-fixing micro-organism

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Cicer arietinum
  • (B) Casuarina equisetifolia
  • (C) Cycas revoluta
  • (D) Crotalaria juncea
Question 57.

Passage cells are thin walled cells found in

[4 Marks]
  • (A) endodermis of roots facilitating rapid transport of water from cortex to pericycle
  • (B) central region of style through which the pollen tube grows towards the ovary
  • (C) testa of seeds to enable emergence of growing embryonic axis during seed germination
  • (D) phloem elements that are present as entry points for substance for transport to other plant parts
Question 58.

For a critical study of secondary growth in plants, which one of the following pairs is suitable?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) sugarcane and sunflower
  • (B) wheat and maize and herb sunflower
  • (C) deodar and fern
  • (D) teak and pine
Question 59.

In which one of the following preparations are you likely to come across cell junctions most frequently?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Tendon
  • (B) Ciliated epithelium
  • (C) Thironocytes
  • (D) Hyaline cartilage
Question 60.

Select the wrong statement from the following

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain an inner and an outer membrane
  • (B) Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain DNA
  • (C) The chloroplasts are generally much larger than mitochondria
  • (D) Both chloroplasts and mitochondria have an internal compartment, the thylakoid space bounded by the thylakoid membrane
Question 61.

Which one of the following is not a constituent of cell membrane?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) proline
  • (B) glycolipids
  • (C) cholesterol.
  • (D) phospholipids
Question 62.

A 5 watt source emits monochromatic light of wavelength 5000 Å. When placed 0.5 m away, it liberates photoelectrons from a photosensitive metallic surface. When the source is moved to a distance of 1.0 m, the number of photoelectrons liberated will be reduced by a factor of

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 16
  • (B) 8
  • (C) 2
  • (D) 4
Question 63.

About 98 percent of the mass of every living organism is composed of just six elements including carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen and

[4 Marks]
  • (A) magnesium and sodium
  • (B) sulphur and magnesium
  • (C) phosphorus and sulphur
  • (D) calcium and phosphorus
Question 64.

The total energy of electron in the ground state of hydrogen atom is -13.6 eV. The kinetic energy of an electron in the first excited state is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 6.8 eV
  • (B) 13.6 eV
  • (C) 1.7 eV
  • (D) 3.4 eV
Question 65.

If the nucleus ²⁷₁₃ Al has nuclear radius of about 3.6 fm, then ¹²⁵₃₂Te would have its radius approximately as

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 9.6 fm
  • (B) 4.8 fm
  • (C) 12.0 fm
  • (D) 6.0 fm
Question 66.

Two cells A and B are contiguous. Cell A has osmotic pressure 10 atm, turgor pressure 7 atm and diffusion pressure deficit 3 atm. Cell B has osmotic pressure 8 atm, turgor pressure 3 atm and diffusion pressure deficit 5 atm. The result will

[4 Marks]
  • (A) movement of water from Cell A to B.
  • (B) movement of water from cell B to A.
  • (C) no movement of water
  • (D) equilibrium between the two
Question 67.

A plant requires magnesium for

[4 Marks]
  • (A) chlorophyll synthesis
  • (B) protein synthesis
  • (C) cell wall development
  • (D) holding cells together.
Question 68.

A nucleus ᴬ_Z X has mass represented by M(A, Z). If M_p and M_n denote the mass of proton and neutron respectively and B.E. the binding energy in MeV, then

[4 Marks]
  • (A) B.E. = M(A, Z) - ZM_p - (A - Z)M_n
  • (B) B.E. = [M(A, Z) - ZM_p - (A - Z)M_n]c²
  • (C) B.E. = [ZM_p + ZM_n - M(A, Z)]c²
  • (D) B.E. = [ZM_p + (A - Z)M_n - M(A, Z)]c²
Question 69.

Which one of the following elements is not an essential micronutrient for plant growth?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Zn
  • (B) Cu
  • (C) Ca
  • (D) Mn
Question 70.

Two radioactive substances A and B have decay constants 5λ and λ respectively. At t = 0 they have the same number of nuclei. The ratio of number of nuclei of A to those of B will be (1/e)² after a time interval

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 2λ
  • (B) 1/(2λ)
  • (C) 1/(4λ)
  • (D) 4λ
Question 71.

In a radioactive decay process, the negatively charged emitted β-particles are

[4 Marks]
  • (A) the electrons produced as a result of the decay of neutrons inside the nucleus
  • (B) the electrons produced as a result of collisions between atoms
  • (C) the electrons orbiting around the nucleus
  • (D) the electrons present inside the nucleus
Question 72.

The first acceptor of electrons from an excited chlorophyll molecule of photosystem II is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) quinone
  • (B) cytochrome
  • (C) iron-sulphur protein
  • (D) ferredoxin
Question 73.

For a cubic crystal structure which one of the following relations indicating the cell characteristics is correct?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) a ≠ b ≠ c and α = β = γ = 90°
  • (B) a = b = c and α ≠ b ≠ γ = 90°
  • (C) a ≠ b ≠ c and α ≠ β and γ ≠ 90°
  • (D) a = b = c and α = β = γ = 90°
Question 74.

The wavelength of light absorbed by Pr form of phytochrome is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 680 nm
  • (B) 720 nm
  • (C) 620 nm
  • (D) 640 nm
Question 75.

In the energy band diagram of a material shown below, the open circles and filled circles denote holes and electrons respectively. The material is

[4 Marks] Diagram 10 – NEET-UG 2007 Question Paper
  • (A) an insulator
  • (B) a metal
  • (C) an n-type semiconductor
  • (D) a p-type semiconductor
Question 76.

A common emitter amplifier has a voltage gain of 50, an input impedance of 100 Ω and an output impedance of 200 Ω. The power gain of the amplifier is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 50
  • (B) 1250
  • (C) 500
  • (D) 1000
Question 77.

In the leaves of C₄ plants, malic acid formation during CO ₂ fixation occurs in the cells of

[4 Marks]
  • (A) mesophyll
  • (B) epidermis
  • (C) bundle sheath
  • (D) phloem
Question 78.

In the following circuit, the output Y for all possible inputs A and B is expressed by the truth table

[4 Marks] Diagram 11 – NEET-UG 2007 Question Paper
  • (A) Diagram 12 – NEET-UG 2007 Question Paper
  • (B) Diagram 13 – NEET-UG 2007 Question Paper
  • (C) Diagram 14 – NEET-UG 2007 Question Paper
  • (D) Diagram 15 – NEET-UG 2007 Question Paper
Question 79.

The C₄ plants have photosynthetic efficiency more than C₃ plants because

[4 Marks]
  • (A) they have more chloroplasts
  • (B) the CO ₂ efflux is not prevented
  • (C) the CO ₂ compensation point is more
  • (D) CO ₂ generated during photorespiration is trapped and recycled through PCP carboxylase
Question 80.

All enzymes of TCA cycle are located in the mitochondrial matrix except one which is located in inner mitochondrial membrane in eukaryotes and in cytosol in prokaryotes. This enzyme is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) isocitrate dehydrogenase
  • (B) malate dehydrogenase
  • (C) succinate dehydrogenase
  • (D) lactate dehydrogenase
Question 81.

The overall goal of glycolysis, krebs cycle and the electron transport system is the formation of

[4 Marks]
  • (A) ATP in one large oxidation reaction
  • (B) sugars
  • (C) nucleic acids
  • (D) ATP in small stepwise units.
Question 82.

Opening of floral buds into flowers, is a type of

[4 Marks]
  • (A) autonomic movement of variation
  • (B) paratonic movement of growth
  • (C) autonomic movement of growth
  • (D) autonomic movement of locomotion.
Question 83.

Which one of the following pairs, is not correctly matched?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Gibberellic acid - Leaf fall
  • (B) Cytokinin - Cell wall elongation
  • (C) Abscisic acid - Stomatal closure.
  • (D) IAA - Cell wall elongation
Question 84.

The number of moles of KMnO₄ that will be needed to react with one mole of sulphite ion in acidic solution is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 1
  • (B) 3/5
  • (C) 4/5
  • (D) 2/5
Question 85.

Identify the correct order of the size of the following:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Ca²⁺ < Ar < K⁺ < Cl⁻ < S²⁻
  • (B) Ca²⁺ < K⁺ < Ar < S²⁻ < Cl⁻
  • (C) Ar < Ca²⁺ < K⁺ < Cl⁻ < S²⁻
  • (D) Ca²⁺ < K⁺ < Ar < Cl⁻ < S²⁻
Question 86.

An element, X has the following isotopic composition:

²⁰⁰X : 90%

¹⁹⁹X : 8.0%

²⁰²X : 2.0%

The weighted average atomic mass of the naturally occuring element X is closest to

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 200 amu
  • (B) 202 amu
  • (C) 199 amu
  • (D) 201 amu
Question 87.

In which of the following pairs, the two species are isostructural?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) SO₃²⁻ and NO₃⁻
  • (B) BrO₃⁻ and XeO₃
  • (C) SF₄ and XeF₄
  • (D) BF₃ an NF₃
Question 88.

Concentrated aqueous sulphuric acid is 98% H₂SO₄ by mass and has a density of 1.80 g mL⁻¹. Volume of acid required to make one litre of 0.1M H₂SO₄ solution is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 11.10 mL
  • (B) 5.55 mL
  • (C) 22.20 mL
  • (D) 16.65 mL
Question 89.

The correct order of C-O bond length among CO, CO₃²⁻, CO₂ is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) CO₃²⁻ < CO₂ < CO
  • (B) CO < CO₂ < CO₃²⁻
  • (C) CO < CO₃²⁻ < CO₂
  • (D) CO₂ < CO₃²⁻ < CO
Question 90.

Consider the following sets of quantum numbers:

Which of the following sets of quantum number is not possible?

[4 Marks] Diagram 16 – NEET-UG 2007 Question Paper
  • (A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
  • (B) (ii), (iv) and (v)
  • (C) (i) and (iii)
  • (D) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Question 91.

Consider the following reactions:

Enthalpy of formation of H₂O (l) is

[4 Marks] Diagram 17 – NEET-UG 2007 Question Paper
  • (A) +X₁ kJ mol⁻¹
  • (B) +X₃ kJ mol⁻¹
  • (C) -X₂ kJ mol⁻¹
  • (D) -X₄ kJ mol⁻¹
Question 92.

Which one of the following ionic species has the greatest proton affinity to form stable compound?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) NH₂⁻
  • (B) F⁻
  • (C) I⁻
  • (D) HS⁻
Question 93.

Which of the following electronic configuration of an atom has the lowest ionisation enthalpy?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 1s² 2s² 2p³
  • (B) 1s² 2s² 2p⁶
  • (C) 1s² 2s² 2p⁵
  • (D) 1s² 2s² 2p⁵ 3s¹
Question 94.

Given that bond energies of H - H and Cl - Cl are 430 kJ mol⁻¹ and 240 kJ mol⁻¹ respectively and ΔH_f for HCl is -90 kJ mol⁻¹, bond enthalpy of HCl is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 380 kJ mol⁻¹
  • (B) 425 kJ mol⁻¹
  • (C) 290 kJ mol⁻¹
  • (D) 245 kJ mol⁻¹
Question 95.

The order of decreasing reactivity towards an electrophilic reagent, for the following would be

(i) benzene

(ii) toluene

(iii) chlorobenzene

(iv) phenol

[4 Marks]
  • (A) (ii) > (iv) > (i) > (iii)
  • (B) (iv) > (iii) > (ii) > (i)
  • (C) (iv) > (ii) > (i) > (iii)
  • (D) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)
Question 96.

The following equilibrium constants are given:

N₂ + 3H₂ ⇌ 2NH₃; K₁

N₂ + O₂ ⇌ 2NO; K₂

H₂ + (1/2)O₂ ⇌ H₂O; K ₃

The equilibrium constant for the oxidation of 2 moles NH₃ by oxygen to give NO is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) K₂ K ₃³ / K₁
  • (B) K₁ K₂ / K ₃
  • (C) K₂² K ₃ / K₁
  • (D) K₂ K ₃² / K₁
Question 97.

Calculate the pOH of a solution at 25°C that contains 1 * 10⁻¹⁰ M of hydronium ions, i.e. H₃O⁺.

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 9.0000
  • (B) 1.000
  • (C) 4.000
  • (D) 7.000
Question 98.

A weak acid, HA, has a Kₐ of 1.00 × 10⁻⁵. If 0.100 mol of this acid is dissolved in one litre of water, the percentage of acid dissociated at equilibrium is closest to

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 0.100%
  • (B) 99.0%
  • (C) 99.9%
  • (D) 1.00%
Question 99.

The fraction of total volume occupied by the atoms present in a simple cube is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) π / (3√2)
  • (B) π / (4√2)
  • (C) π / 4
  • (D) π / 6
Question 100.

The correct order of increasing thermal stability of K₂CO₃, MgCO₃, CaCO₃ and BeCO₃ is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) BeCO₃ < MgCO₃ < K₂CO₃ < CaCO₃
  • (B) K₂CO₃ < MgCO₃ < CaCO₃ < BeCO₃
  • (C) BeCO₃ < MgCO₃ < CaCO₃ < K₂CO₃
  • (D) MgCO₃ < BeCO₃ < CaCO₃ < K₂CO₃
Question 101.

If NaCl is doped with 10⁻⁴ mol % of SrCl₂, the concentration of cation vacancies will be (N_A = 6.02 × 10²³ mol⁻¹)

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 6.02 * 10¹⁵ mol⁻¹
  • (B) 6.02 * 10¹⁴ mol⁻¹
  • (C) 6.02 * 10¹⁷ mol⁻¹
  • (D) 6.02 * 10¹⁶ mol⁻¹
Question 102.

In which of the following the hydration energy is higher than the lattice energy?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) MgSO₄
  • (B) RaSO₄
  • (C) BaSO₄
  • (D) SrSO₄
Question 103.

0.5 molal aqueous solution of a weak acid (HX) is 20% ionised. If K_f for water is 1.86 K kg mol⁻¹, the lowering in freezing point of the solution is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 0.56 K
  • (B) 1.12 K
  • (C) -1.12 K
  • (D) -0.56 K
Question 104.

Which of the compounds with molecular formula C₅H₁₀ yields acetone on ozonolysis?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 2-methyl-2-butene
  • (B) cyclopentane
  • (C) 2-methyl-1-butene
  • (D) 3-methyl-1-butene
Question 105.

The equilibrium constant of the reaction:

Cu(s) + 2Ag⁺(aq) ⟶ Cu²⁺(aq) + 2Ag(s) ; E° = 0.46 V at 298 K is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 2.4 × 10¹⁰
  • (B) 4.0 × 10¹⁰
  • (C) 4.0 × 10¹⁵
  • (D) 2.0 × 10¹⁰
Question 106.

Predict the product C obtained in the following reaction of butyne-1.

[4 Marks] Diagram 18 – NEET-UG 2007 Question Paper
  • (A) Diagram 19 – NEET-UG 2007 Question Paper
  • (B) Diagram 20 – NEET-UG 2007 Question Paper
  • (C) Diagram 21 – NEET-UG 2007 Question Paper
  • (D) Diagram 22 – NEET-UG 2007 Question Paper
Question 107.

The efficiency of a fuel cell is given by

[4 Marks]
  • (A) ΔS / ΔG
  • (B) ΔH / ΔG
  • (C) ΔG / ΔH
  • (D) ΔG / ΔS
Question 108.

Sulphide ores of metals are usually concentrated by froth flotation process. Which one of the following sulphide ores offer an exception and concentrated by chemical leaching?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Argentite
  • (B) Copper pyrite
  • (C) Galena
  • (D) Sphalerite
Question 109.

The reaction of hydrogen and iodine monochloride is given as:

H₂(g) + 2ICl(g) ⟶ 2HCl(g) + I₂(g)

The reaction is of first order with respect to H₂(g) and ICl(g), following mechanisms were proposed.

Mechanism A:

H₂(g) + 2ICl(g)⟶ 2HCl(g) + I₂(g)

Mechanism B:

H₂(g) + ICl(g) ⟶ HI(g); slow

HI(g) + ICl(g) ⟶ HCl(g) + I₂(g); fast

Which of the above mechanism(s) can be consistent with the given information about the reaction?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) B only
  • (B) A and B both
  • (C) neither A nor B
  • (D) A only
Question 110.

Which one of the following orders correctly represents the increasing acid strengths of the given acids?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) HOCl < HOClO < HOClO₂ < HOClO₃
  • (B) HOClO < HOCl < HOClO₃ < HOClO₂
  • (C) HOClO₃ < HOClO₂ < HOClO < HOCl
  • (D) HOClO₂ < HOClO₃ < HOClO < HOCl
Question 111.

In a first-order reaction A ⟶ B, if k is rate constant and initial concentration of the reactant A is 0.5 M, then the half-life is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) log 2 / k √0.5)
  • (B) 0.693 / 0.5k
  • (C) ln 2 / k
  • (D) log 2 / k
Question 112.

Which one of the following ions is the most stable in aqueous solution?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Mn³⁺
  • (B) Cr³⁺
  • (C) V³⁺
  • (D) Ti³⁺
Question 113.

If 60% of a first order reaction was completed in 60 minutes, 50% of the same reaction would be completed in approximately (log 4 = 0.60, log 5 = 0.69)

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 45 minutes
  • (B) 50 minutes
  • (C) 60 minutes
  • (D) 40 minutes
Question 114.

Identify the incorrect statement among the following:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Lanthanoid contraction is the accumulation of successive shrinkages.
  • (B) Shielding power of 4f electrons is quite weak.
  • (C) As a result of lanthanoid contraction, the properties of 4d series of the transition elements have no similarities with the 5d series of elements.
  • (D) There is a decrease in the radii of the atoms or ions as one proceeds from La to Lu.
Question 115.

The Langmuir adsorption isotherm is deduced using the assumption:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) the adsorption sites are equivalent in their ability to adsorb the particles
  • (B) the heat of adsorption varies with coverage
  • (C) the adsorbed molecules interact with each other
  • (D) the adsorption takes place in multilayers.
Question 116.

Which of the following will give a pair of enantiomorphs?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) [Cr(NH₃)₆][Co(CN)₆]
  • (B) [Co(en)₂Cl₂]Cl
  • (C) [Pt(NH₃)₄][PtCl₆]
  • (D) [Co(NH₃)₄Cl₂]NO₂. (en = NH₂CH₂CH₂NH₂)
Question 117.

Which of the following statements, about the advantage of roasting of sulphide ore before reduction is not true?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) The ΔG°_f of the sulphide is greater than those for CS₂ and H₂S.
  • (B) The ΔG°_f is negative for roasting of sulphide ore to oxide.
  • (C) Carbon and hydrogen are suitable reducing agents for metal sulphides.
  • (D) Roasting of the sulphide to the oxide is thermodynamically feasible.
Question 118.

The d electron configurations of Cr²⁺, Mn²⁺, Fe²⁺ and Ni²⁺ are 3d⁴, 3d⁵, 3d⁶ and 3d⁸ respectively. Which one of the following aqua complexes will exhibit the minimum paramagnetic behaviour?

(At. No. Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Ni = 28)

[4 Marks]
  • (A) [Mn(H₂O)₆]²⁺
  • (B) [Cr(H₂O)₆]²⁺
  • (C) [Fe(H₂O)₆]²⁺
  • (D) [Ni(H₂O)₆]²⁺
Question 119.

If there is no rotation of plane polarised light by a compound in a specific solvent, though to be chiral, it may mean that

[4 Marks]
  • (A) the compound is certainly meso
  • (B) the compound is certainly achiral.
  • (C) there is no compound in the solvent
  • (D) the compound may be a racemic mixture
Question 120.

The product formed in Aldol condensation is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) A beta-hydroxy acid
  • (B) An alpha, beta unsaturated ester
  • (C) An alpha-hydroxy aldehyde or ketone
  • (D) A beta-hydroxy aldehyde or a beta-hydroxy ketone
Question 121.

CH₃ - CHCl - CH₂ - CH₃ has a chiral centre. Which one of the following represents its R-configuration?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Diagram 23 – NEET-UG 2007 Question Paper
  • (B) Diagram 24 – NEET-UG 2007 Question Paper
  • (C) Diagram 25 – NEET-UG 2007 Question Paper
  • (D) Diagram 26 – NEET-UG 2007 Question Paper
Question 122.

Consider the following compounds.

The correct decreasing order of their reactivity towards hydrolysis is

[4 Marks] Diagram 27 – NEET-UG 2007 Question Paper
  • (A) (ii) > (iv) > (iii) > (i)
  • (B) (ii) > (iv) > (i) > (iii)
  • (C) (iv) > (ii) > (i) > (iii)
  • (D) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)
Question 123.

For (i) I⁻, (ii) Cl⁻, (iii) Br⁻, the increasing order of nucleophilicity would be

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Cl⁻ < Br⁻ < I⁻
  • (B) I⁻ < Cl⁻ < Br⁻
  • (C) Br⁻ < Cl⁻ < I⁻
  • (D) I⁻ < Br⁻ < Cl⁻
Question 124.

Which of the following represents the correct order of the acidity in the given compounds?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) FCH₂COOH > CH₃COOH > BrCH₂COOH > ClCH₂COOH
  • (B) BrCH₂COOH > ClCH₂COOH > FCH₂COOH > CH₃COOH
  • (C) CH₃COOH > BrCH₂COOH > ClCH₂COOH > FCH₂COOH
  • (D) FCH₂COOH > ClCH₂COOH > BrCH₂COOH > CH₃COOH
Question 125.

In the reaction:

Which of the following compounds will be formed?

[4 Marks] Diagram 28 – NEET-UG 2007 Question Paper
  • (A) Diagram 29 – NEET-UG 2007 Question Paper
  • (B) Diagram 30 – NEET-UG 2007 Question Paper
  • (C) Diagram 31 – NEET-UG 2007 Question Paper
  • (D) Diagram 32 – NEET-UG 2007 Question Paper
Question 126.

Which one of the following on reduction with lithium aluminium hydride yields a secondary amine?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Nitroethane
  • (B) Methyl cyanide
  • (C) Acetamide
  • (D) Methyl isocyanide
Question 127.

Reduction of aldehydes and ketones into hydrocarbons using zinc amalgam and conc. HCl is called

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Clemmensen reduction
  • (B) Dow reduction
  • (C) Wolff-Kishner reduction
  • (D) Cope reduction
Question 128.

RNA and DNA are chiral molecules, their chirality is due to

[4 Marks]
  • (A) L-sugar component
  • (B) chiral phosphate ester units
  • (C) D-sugar component
  • (D) chiral bases
Question 129.

Which one of the following on treatment with 50% aqueous sodium hydroxide yields the corresponding alcohol and acid?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Diagram 33 – NEET-UG 2007 Question Paper
  • (B) Diagram 34 – NEET-UG 2007 Question Paper
  • (C) Diagram 35 – NEET-UG 2007 Question Paper
  • (D) Diagram 36 – NEET-UG 2007 Question Paper
Question 130.

Which of the following is water-soluble?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Vitamin E
  • (B) Vitamin K
  • (C) Vitamin B
  • (D) Vitamin A
Question 131.

Which one of the following polymers is prepared by condensation polymerisation?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Teflon
  • (B) Natural rubber
  • (C) Styrene
  • (D) Nylon-6,6
Question 132.

Which one of the following anions is present in the chain structure of silicates?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) SiO₄⁴⁻
  • (B) Si₂O₇⁶⁻
  • (C) (SiO₃²⁻)ₙ
  • (D) (Si₂O₅²⁻)ₙ
Question 133.

Which of the following oxidation states are the most characteristic for lead and tin respectively?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) +2, +4
  • (B) +4, +4
  • (C) +2, +2
  • (D) +4, +2
Question 134.

“Foolish seedling” disease of rice led to the discovery of

[4 Marks]
  • (A) ABA
  • (B) GA
  • (C) IAA
  • (D) 2,4-D
Question 135.

A person who is one day hunger strike and is surviving only on water, will have

[4 Marks]
  • (A) less amino acids in his urine
  • (B) more glucose in his blood
  • (C) more sodium in his urine.
  • (D) less urea in his urine
Question 136.

Lysozyme that is present in perspiration, saliva and tears, destroys

[4 Marks]
  • (A) certain types of bacteria
  • (B) all viruses
  • (C) most virus-infected cells
  • (D) certain fungi
Question 137.

Which one of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin and its related deficiency disease?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Retinol - Xerophthalmia
  • (B) Cobalamine - Beri-beri
  • (C) Calciferol - Pellagra
  • (D) Ascorbic acid - Scurvy.
Question 138.

A drop of each of the following, is placed separately on four slides. Which of them will not coagulate?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Blood serum
  • (B) Blood plasma
  • (C) Sample from the thoracic duct of lymphatic system
  • (D) Whole blood from pulmonary vein
Question 139.

Which one of the following mammalian cells is not capable of metabolising glucose to carbon-dioxide aerobically?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Unstriated muscle cells
  • (B) Liver cells
  • (C) White blood
  • (D) Red blood cells
Question 140.

In human body, which one of the following is anatomically correct?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Floating ribs - 2 pairs
  • (B) Cranial nerves - 10 pairs
  • (C) Salivary glands - 1 pairs
  • (D) Collar bones - 3 pairs
Question 141.

During the transmission of nerve impulse through a nerve fibre, the potential on the inner side of the plasma membrane has which type of electric charge?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) First positive, then negative and continue to be positive
  • (B) First negative, then positive and continue to be positive
  • (C) First positive, then negative and again back to positive
  • (D) First negative, then positive and again back to negative.
Question 142.

Which one of the following pairs of structures distinguishes a nerve axon from other types of cells?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Flagellum and medullary sheath
  • (B) Vacuoles and fibres
  • (C) Nucleus and mitochondria
  • (D) Perikaryon and dendrites.
Question 143.

Which of the following is an example of negative feedback loop in humans?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Secretion of tears after falling of sand particles into the eye.
  • (B) Salivation of mouth at the sight of delicious food
  • (C) Constriction of skin blood vessels and contraction of skeletal muscles when it is too cold
  • (D) Secretion of sweat glands and constriction of skin blood vessels when it is too hot
Question 144.

Which part of ovary in mammals acts as an endocrine gland after ovulation?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Stroma
  • (B) Germinal epithelium
  • (C) Vitelline membrane
  • (D) Graafian follicle.
Question 145.

A person is having problems with calcium and phosphorus metabolism in his body. Which one of following glands may not be functioning properly?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Parotid
  • (B) Pancreas
  • (C) Thyroid
  • (D) Parathyroid
Question 146.

Feeling the tremors of an earthquake, a scared resident of seventh floor of a multistored building starts climbing down the stairs rapidly. Which hormone initiated this action ?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) adrenaline
  • (B) glucagone
  • (C) gastrin
  • (D) thyroxine
Question 147.

Which one of the following is surrounded by a callose wall?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) male gamete
  • (B) egg
  • (C) microspore mother cell
  • (D) pollen grain
Question 148.

Male gametes in angiosperms are formed by the division of

[4 Marks]
  • (A) generative cell
  • (B) microspore mother cell
  • (C) microspore.
  • (D) vegetative cell
Question 149.

Which one of the following pairs of plant structures has haploid number of chromosomes?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Megaspore mother cell and antipodal cells
  • (B) Egg cell and antipodal cells
  • (C) Nucleus and antipodal cells
  • (D) Egg nucleus and secondary nucleus
Question 150.

In human female, menstruation can be deferred by the administration of

[4 Marks]
  • (A) combination of FSH and LH
  • (B) combination of estrogen and progesterone
  • (C) FSH only
  • (D) LH only
Question 151.

A common test to find the genotype of a hybrid is by

[4 Marks]
  • (A) crossing of one F₂ progeny with male parent
  • (B) crossing of one F₁ progeny with male parent.
  • (C) studying the sexual behaviour of F₁ progenies
  • (D) crossing of one F₂ progeny with female parent
Question 152.

Two genes R and Y are located very close on the chromosomal linkage map of maize plant. When RRYY and rryy genotypes are hybridized, the F ₂ segregation will show

[4 Marks]
  • (A) higher number of the recombinant types.
  • (B) higher number of the parental types
  • (C) segregation in the expected 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio
  • (D) segregation in 3 : 1 ratio
Question 153.

In pea plants, yellow seeds are dominant to green. If a heterozygous yellow seeded plant is crossed with a green seeded plant, what ratio of yellow and green seeded plants would you expect in F₁ generation?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 3 : 1
  • (B) 50 : 50
  • (C) 9 : 1
  • (D) 1 : 3
Question 154.

Inheritance of skin colour in humans is an example of

[4 Marks]
  • (A) point mutation
  • (B) polygenic inheritance
  • (C) codominance
  • (D) chromosomal aberration.
Question 155.

A human male produces sperms with the genotypes AB, Ab, aB, and ab pertaining to two diallelic characters in equal proportions. What is the corresponding genotype of this person?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) AaBB
  • (B) AABb
  • (C) AABB
  • (D) AaBb
Question 156.

The length of DNA molecule greatly exceeds the dimensions of the nucleus in eukaryotic cells. How is this DNA accommodated?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) DNase digestion
  • (B) super-coiling in nucleosomes
  • (C) through elimination of repetitive DNA
  • (D) deletion of non-essential genes.
Question 157.

A sequential expression of a set of human genes

[4 Marks]
  • (A) messenger RNA
  • (B) DNA sequence
  • (C) ribosome
  • (D) transfer RNA.
Question 158.

During transcription, RNA polymerase holoenzyme binds to a gene promoter and assumes a saddle-like structure, what is it’s DNA-binding sequence?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) CACC
  • (B) AATT
  • (C) TATA
  • (D) TTAA
Question 159.

The two polynucleotide chains in DNA are

[4 Marks]
  • (A) discontinuous
  • (B) semi-conservative
  • (C) antiparallel
  • (D) parallel.
Question 160.

Molecules basis of organ differentiation depends on the modulation in transcription by

[4 Marks]
  • (A) RNA polymerase.
  • (B) anticodon
  • (C) transcription factor
  • (D) ribosome
Question 161.

The okazaki fragments in DNA chain growth

[4 Marks]
  • (A) polymerize in the 3' - to - 5' direction and forms replication fork
  • (B) prove semi-conservative nature of DNA replication
  • (C) polymerize in the 5' - to - 3' direction and explain 3' - to - 5' DNA replication
  • (D) result in transcription.
Question 162.

one gene-one enzyme relationship was established for the first time in

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Neurospora crassa.
  • (B) Diplococcus pneumoniae
  • (C) Escherichia coli
  • (D) Salmonella typhimurium
Question 163.

When two species of different genealogy come to resemble each other as a result of adaptation, the phenomenon is termed

[4 Marks]
  • (A) microevolution
  • (B) co-evolution
  • (C) divergent evolution
  • (D) convergent evolution
Question 164.

Which one of the following statement is correct?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Stem cells are specialized cells.
  • (B) Ontogeny repeats phylogeny
  • (C) All plant and animal cells are totipotent
  • (D) There is no evidence of the existence of gills during embryogenesis of mammals
Question 165.

The concept of chemical evolution is based on

[4 Marks]
  • (A) effect of solar radiation on chemicals
  • (B) interaction of water, air and clay under intense heat
  • (C) crystallization of chemicals.
  • (D) possible origin of life by combination of chemicals under suitable environmental conditions
Question 166.

The finches of Galapagos islands provide an evidence in favour of

[4 Marks]
  • (A) biogeographical evolution
  • (B) special creation.
  • (C) retrogressive evolution
  • (D) evolution due to mutation
Question 167.

What is common between parrot, platypus and kangaroo?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Functional post-anal tail
  • (B) Toothless jaws
  • (C) Homeothermy
  • (D) Oviparity
Question 168.

What is common to whale, seal and shark?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Thick subcutaneous fat
  • (B) Convergent evolution
  • (C) Homeothermy
  • (D) Seasonal migration.
Question 169.

Industrial melanism as observed in peppered moth proves that

[4 Marks]
  • (A) the lighter-form moth has no selective advantage either in polluted industrial area or non-polluted area
  • (B) the melanic form of the moth has no selective advantage over lighter form in industrial area
  • (C) melanism is a pollution-generated feature
  • (D) the true black melanic forms arise by a recurring random mutation.
Question 170.

Adaptive radiation refers to

[4 Marks]
  • (A) evolution of different species from a common ancestor
  • (B) migration of members of a species to different geographical areas
  • (C) power of adaptation in an individual to a variety of environments
  • (D) adaptations due to geographical isolation.
Question 171.

One of the important consequences of geographical isolation is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) preventing speciation
  • (B) speciation through reproductive isolation
  • (C) random creation of new species
  • (D) no change in the isolated fauna.
Question 172.

Among the human ancestors the brain size was more that 1000 cc in

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Homo erectus
  • (B) Ramapithecus
  • (C) Homo habilis
  • (D) Homo neanderthalensis
Question 173.

Select the correct statements from the following?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt and get selected by nature
  • (B) All mammals except whales and camels have seven cervical vertebrae
  • (C) Mutations are random and directional
  • (D) Darwinian variations are small and directionless.
Question 174.

If you suspect major deficiency of antibodies in a person to which of the following would you look for confirmatory evidence?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) fibrinogen in the plasma
  • (B) serum globulins
  • (C) haemocytes
  • (D) serum albumins
Question 175.

Increased asthmatic attacks in certain seasons are related to

[4 Marks]
  • (A) eating fruits preserved in tin containers
  • (B) inhalation of seasonal pollen
  • (C) hot and humid environment.
  • (D) low temperature
Question 176.

Which one of the following pair is mismatched?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Pila globosa - pearl
  • (B) Apis indica - honey
  • (C) Bombyx mori - silk
  • (D) Kenia lacca - lac
Question 177.

Compared to a bull a bullock is docile because of

[4 Marks]
  • (A) higher levels of cortisone
  • (B) lower levels of blood testosterone
  • (C) lower levels of adrenaline/noradrenaline in its blood
  • (D) higher levels of thyroxine.
Question 178.

Which one of the following is a viral disease of poultry?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Coryza
  • (B) New castle disease
  • (C) Pasteurellosis
  • (D) Salmonellosis.
Question 179.

Which one of the following is being utilized as a source of biodiesel in the Indian countryside?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Sugarcane
  • (B) Pongamia
  • (C) Euphorbia
  • (D) Beetroot
Question 180.

In maize, hybrid vigour is exploited by

[4 Marks]
  • (A) crossing of two inbred parental lines
  • (B) bombarding the seeds with DNA.
  • (C) harvesting seeds from the most productive plants
  • (D) inducing mutations
Question 181.

Probiotics are

[4 Marks]
  • (A) new kind of food allergens
  • (B) cancer inducing microbes
  • (C) live microbial food supplement
  • (D) safe antibiotics
Question 182.

Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Streptomyces - antibiotic
  • (B) Yeast - ethanol
  • (C) Methanogens - gobar gas
  • (D) Coliforms - vinegar
Question 183.

Ultrasound of how much frequency is beamed into human body for sonography ?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 15 - 300 MHz
  • (B) 1 - 15 MHZ
  • (C) 45 - 70 MHZ
  • (D) 30 - 45 MHZ
Question 184.

Geometric representation of age structure is a characteristic of population.

[4 Marks]
  • (A) landscape
  • (B) biotic community.
  • (C) ecosystem
  • (D) population
Question 185.

The population of an insect species shown an explosive increase in numbers during rainy season followed by its disappearance at the end of the season. What does this show?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) S-shaped or sigmoid growth of this insect.
  • (B) The population of its predators increases enormously
  • (C) Its population growth curve is of J-type
  • (D) The food plants mature and die at the end of the rainy season
Question 186.

Two plants can be conclusively said to belong to the same species if they

[4 Marks]
  • (A) have more than 90 per cent similar genes
  • (B) look similar and possess identical secondary metabolites
  • (C) can reproduce freely with each other and form seeds.
  • (D) have same number of chromosomes
Question 187.

A high density of elephant population in an area can result in

[4 Marks]
  • (A) intra specific competition
  • (B) predation on one another
  • (C) inter specific competition
  • (D) mutualism.
Question 188.

Which one of the following ecosystem types has the highest annual net primary productivity?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) tropical deciduous forest
  • (B) temperate evergreen forest
  • (C) temperate deciduous forest
  • (D) tropical rain forest.
Question 189.

One of endangered species of Indian medicinal plants is that of

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Nepenthes
  • (B) Podophyllum
  • (C) Garlic
  • (D) Ocimum
Question 190.

Identify the odd combination of habitat and the particular animal concerned.

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Sunderbans - Bengal Tiger
  • (B) Periyar - Elephant
  • (C) Dachigam National park - Snow Leopard
  • (D) Rann of kutch - Wild Ass
Question 191.

Which one of the following pairs of organisms are exotic species introduced in India?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Lantana camara, water hyacinth
  • (B) Water hyacinth, Prosopis cineria
  • (C) Nile perch, Ficus religiosa
  • (D) Ficus religiosa, Lantana camara
Question 192.

In a coal fired power plant electrostatic precipitators are installed to control emission of

[4 Marks]
  • (A) NOₓ
  • (B) SPM
  • (C) CO
  • (D) SO₂
Question 193.

Which one of the following is not a bioindicator of water pollution?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Blood-worms
  • (B) Stone flies
  • (C) Sludge-worms.
  • (D) Sewage fungus
Question 194.

Which one of the following statements is correct?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Both Azotobacter and Rhizobium fix atmospheric nitrogen in root nodules of plants.
  • (B) Cyanobacteria such as Anabaena and Nostoc are important mobilisers of phosphates and for plant nutrition in soil
  • (C) Extensive use of chemical fertilizers may lead to eutrophication of nearby water bodies.
  • (D) At present it is not possible to grow maize without chemical fertilizers
Question 195.

If the mean and the median pertaining to a certain character of a population are of the same value, the following is most likely to occur:-

[4 Marks]
  • (A) A normal distribution
  • (B) A skewed curve
  • (C) a T-shaped curve
  • (D) A bi-modal distribution
Question 196.

In which one of the following the BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) of sewage (S), distillery effluent (DE), paper mill effluent (PE) and sugar mill effluent (SE) have been arranged in ascending order?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) S < DE < PE < SE
  • (B) SE < S < PE < DE
  • (C) SE < PE < S < DE
  • (D) PE < S < SE < DE
Question 197.

Which one of the following is not a part of a renal pyramid?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Peritubular capillaries
  • (B) Loops of Henle
  • (C) Convoluted tubules
  • (D) Collecting ducts
Question 198.

Arteries are best defined as the vessel which :

[4 Marks]
  • (A) supply oxygenated blood to the different organs
  • (B) carry blood from one visceral organ to another visceral organ
  • (C) carry blood away from the heart to different organs
  • (D) break up into capillaries which reunite to form a vein
Question 199.

Match the source gland with its respective hormone as well as the function

[4 Marks] Diagram 37 – NEET-UG 2007 Question Paper
  • (A) a
  • (B) c
  • (C) b
  • (D) d
Question 200.

What is common to whale, seal and shark?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Convergent evolution
  • (B) Homoiothermy
  • (C) Seasonal migration.
  • (D) Thick subcutaneous fat