NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper

QUESTION PAPER

2024 NEET EXAM

NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper

2024

NEET-UG

CBSE EXAMINATION PAPER-2024

NEET-ZOOLOGY

(Solved)

Time allowed : 3 hours

Maximum Marks : 800

General Instructions :

Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :

  1. This question paper contains 200 questions. All questions are compulsory.
  2. This question paper is divided into 1 sections.
  3. Section A – questions number 1 to 200 are multiple choice questions
  4. There is no overall choice given in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions.
  5. Use of calculator is NOT allowed.

Section A

Question 1.

Match List I with List II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below

[4 Marks] Diagram 1 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • (B) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (C) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • (D) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
Question 2.

The Henry’s law constant (K_H) values of three gases (A,B,C) in water are 145, 2×10⁻⁵ and 35 kbar, respectively. The solubility of these gases in water follows the order:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) A > B > C
  • (B) B > C > A
  • (C) A > C > B
  • (D) B > A > C
Question 3.

Statement I: The boiling points of hydrides of Group 16 elements follow the order H₂O > H₂Te > H₂Se > H₂S

Statement II: On the basis of molecular mass, H₂O is expected to have a lower boiling point than the other members of the group, but due to the presence of extensive H-bonding in H₂O, it has a higher boiling point.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (B) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (C) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (D) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Question 4.

Statement I : The boiling point of three isomeric pentanes follows the order n-pentane > isopentane > neopentane

Statement II : When branching increases, the molecule attains a shape of sphere. This results in smaller surface area for contact, due to which the intermolecular forces between the spherical molecules are weak, thereby lowering the boiling point.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (B) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (C) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (D) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Question 5. 1 gram of sodium hydroxide was treated with 25 mL of 0.75 M HCl solution. The mass of sodium hydroxide left unreacted is equal to:
[4 Marks]
  • (A) 750 mg
  • (B) 250 mg
  • (C) Zero mg
  • (D) 200 mg
Question 6. Arrange the following elements in increasing order of first ionization enthalpy: Li, Be, B, C, N Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[4 Marks]
  • (A) Li < Be < B < C < N
  • (B) Li < Be < C < B < N
  • (C) Li < Be < N < B < C
  • (D) Li < B < Be < C < N
Question 7. Activation energy of any chemical reaction can be calculated if one knows the value of
[4 Marks]
  • (A) probability of collision
  • (B) rate constant at standard temperature
  • (C) rate constant at two different temperatures
  • (D) orientation of reactant molecules during collision
Question 8.

Statement I: Aniline does not undergo Friedel-Crafts alkylation reaction.

Statement II: Aniline cannot be prepared through Gabriel synthesis.

In the light of the above statements,

choose the correct answer from the options given below:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
  • (B) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
  • (C) Both statement I and Statement II are false
  • (D) Both statement I and Statement II are true
Question 9. Arrange the following elements in increasing order of electronegativity: N, O, F, C, Si Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[4 Marks]
  • (A) Si < C < N < O < F
  • (B) O < F < N < C < Si
  • (C) F < O < N < C < Si
  • (D) Si < C < O < N < F
Question 10.

Match List I with List II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

[4 Marks] Diagram 2 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • (B) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (C) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • (D) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
Question 11. Match List I with List II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[4 Marks] Diagram 3 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • (B) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
  • (C) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
  • (D) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
Question 12.

Match List I with List II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

[4 Marks] Diagram 4 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
  • (B) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • (C) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
  • (D) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Question 13. The energy of an electron in the ground state (n=1) for He⁺ ion is −x J, then that for an electron in n=2 state for Be³⁺ ion in J is
[4 Marks]
  • (A) - x
  • (B) - x/9
  • (C) - 4/9 x
  • (D) - 4x
Question 14.

In which of the following processes entropy increases?

A. A liquid evaporates to vapour.

B. Temperature of a crystalline solid lowered from 130 K to 0 K.

C. 2 NaHCO₃(s) → Na₂CO₃(s) + CO₂(g) + H₂O(g)

D. Cl₂(g) → 2Cl(g)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) C and D
  • (B) A, C and D
  • (C) A and C
  • (D) A, B and D
Question 15.

Which reaction is NOT a redox reaction?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) BaCl₂ + Na₂SO₄ → BaSO₄ + 2NaCl
  • (B) H₂ + Cl₂ → 2HCl
  • (C) Zn + CuSO₄ → ZnSO₄ + Cu
  • (D) 2KClO₃ + I₂ → 2KIO₃ + Cl₂
Question 16.

Match List I with List II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

[4 Marks] Diagram 5 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • (B) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (C) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (D) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
Question 17.

‘Spin only’ magnetic moment is same for which of the following ions?

A. Ti³⁺

B. Cr²⁺

C. Mn²⁺

D. Fe²⁺

E. Sc³⁺

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) A and D only
  • (B) A and E only
  • (C) B and D only
  • (D) B and C only
Question 18.

The highest number of helium atoms is in

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 2.271098 L of helium at STP
  • (B) 4 g of helium
  • (C) 4 u of helium
  • (D) 4 mol of helium
Question 19. Among Group 16 elements, which one does NOT show −2 oxidation state?
[4 Marks]
  • (A) Te
  • (B) Se
  • (C) Po
  • (D) O
Question 20. The E° value for the Mn³⁺/Mn²⁺ couple is more positive than that of Cr³⁺/Cr²⁺ or Fe³⁺/Fe²⁺ due to change of
[4 Marks]
  • (A) d⁵ to d² configuration
  • (B) d³ to d⁵ configuration
  • (C) d⁴ to d⁵ configuration
  • (D) d⁵ to d⁴ configuration
Question 21.

The reagents with which glucose does NOT react to give the corresponding test/products are

A. Tollen’s reagent

B. Schiff’s reagent

C. HCN

D. NH₂OH

E. NaHSO₃

Choose the correct options from the given below:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) B and E
  • (B) E and D
  • (C) A and D
  • (D) B and C
Question 22.

Identify the correct reagents that would bring about the following transformation.

[4 Marks] Diagram 6 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) Diagram 7 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (B) Diagram 8 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (C) Diagram 9 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (D) Diagram 10 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
Question 23. In which of the following equilibria, Kₚ and K_C are NOT equal?
[4 Marks]
  • (A) PCl₅​(g) ⇌ PCl₃​(g) + Cl₂​(g)
  • (B) H₂​(g) + I₂​(g) ⇌ 2HI(g)
  • (C) CO(g) + H₂​O(g) ⇌ CO₂​(g) + H₂​(g)
  • (D) 2BrCl(g) ⇌ Br₂​(g) + Cl₂​(g)
Question 24.

A compound with a molecular formula of C₆H₁₄​ has two tertiary carbons. Its IUPAC name is:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 2,2-dimethylbutane
  • (B) 2-methylpentane
  • (C) 2,3-dimethylbutane
  • (D) n-hexane
Question 25. Fehling’s solution ‘A’ is
[4 Marks]
  • (A) aqueous copper sulphate
  • (B) alkaline copper sulphate
  • (C) aqueous sodium citrate
  • (D) alkaline solution of sodium potassium tartrate (Rochelle’s salt)
Question 26.

Match List I with List II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

[4 Marks] Diagram 11 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • (B) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • (C) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
  • (D) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
Question 27. Statement I: Both [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺ and [CoF₆]³⁻ complexes are octahedral but differ in their magnetic behaviour. Statement II: [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺ is diamagnetic whereas [CoF₆]³⁻ is paramagnetic. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[4 Marks]
  • (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Question 28. On heating, some solid substances change from solid to vapour state without passing through liquid state. The technique used for the purification of such solid substances based on the above principle is known as
[4 Marks]
  • (A) Crystallization
  • (B) Distillation
  • (C) Chromatography
  • (D) Sublimation
Question 29. Match List I with List II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[4 Marks] Diagram 12 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
  • (B) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • (C) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  • (D) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
Question 30. For the reaction 2A ⇌ B + C, K_c = 4×10⁻³. At a given time, the composition of reaction mixture is: [A] = [B] = [C] = 2 × 10⁻³ M Then, which of the following is correct?
[4 Marks]
  • (A) Reaction is at equilibrium.
  • (B) Reaction has a tendency to go in forward direction.
  • (C) Reaction has a tendency to go in backward direction.
  • (D) Reaction has gone to completion in forward direction.
Question 31.

The pair of lanthanoid ions which are diamagnetic is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Ce³⁺ and Eu²⁺
  • (B) Ce⁴⁺ and Yb²⁺
  • (C) Gd³⁺ and Eu³⁺
  • (D) Pm³⁺ and Sm³⁺
Question 32.

Statement I: [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺ is a homoleptic complex whereas [Co(NH₃)₄Cl₂]⁺ is a heteroleptic complex. Statement II: Complex [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺ has only one kind of ligands but [Co(NH₃)₄Cl₂]⁺ has more than one kind of ligands. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (B) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (C) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (D) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Question 33.

Mass in grams of copper deposited by passing 9.6487 A current through a voltameter containing copper sulphate solution for 100 seconds is (Given : Molar mass of Cu : 63 g mol⁻¹, 1 F = 96487 C)

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 31.5 g
  • (B) 3.15 g
  • (C) 0.0315 g
  • (D) 0.315 g
Question 34.

The products A and B obtained in the following reactions, respectively, are 3ROH + PCl₃ ​→RCl + A ROH + PCl₅ → RCl + HCl + B

[4 Marks]
  • (A) H₃PO₃ and POCl₃
  • (B) H₃PO₄ and POCl₃
  • (C) POCl₃ and H₃PO₄
  • (D) POCl₃ and H₃PO₃
Question 35.

The rate of a reaction quadruples when temperature changes from 27°C to 57°C. Calculate the energy of activation. Given: R=8.314 J K⁻¹ mol⁻¹, log4=0.6021

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 3804 kJ/mol
  • (B) 3.80 kJ/mol
  • (C) 380.4 kJ/mol
  • (D) 38.04 kJ/mol
Question 36.

During the preparation of Mohr's salt solution (Ferrous ammonium sulphate), which of the following acid is added to prevent hydrolysis of Fe²⁺ ion?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) dilute sulphuric acid
  • (B) dilute nitric acid
  • (C) concentrated sulphuric acid
  • (D) dilute hydrochloric acid
Question 37. The plot of osmotic pressure (π) vs concentration (mol L⁻¹) for a solution gives a straight line with slope 25.73 L bar mol⁻¹. The temperature at which the osmotic pressure measurement is done is: (Use R = 0.083 L bar mol⁻¹ K⁻¹)
[4 Marks]
  • (A) 37°C
  • (B) 25.73°C
  • (C) 12.05°C
  • (D) 310°C
Question 38.

Identify the correct answer.

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Three canonical forms can be drawn for CO₃²⁻ ion.
  • (B) Dipole moment of NF​₃ is greater than that of NH₃.
  • (C) Three resonance structures can be drawn for ozone.
  • (D) BF₃ has non-zero dipole moment.
Question 39.

Identify the major product C formed in the following reaction sequence:

[4 Marks] Diagram 13 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) propylamine
  • (B) butanamide
  • (C) butylamine
  • (D) α-bromobutanoic acid
Question 40.

Given below are certain cations. Using inorganic qualitative analysis, arrange them in increasing group number from 0 to VI.

A. Al³⁺

B. Cu²⁺

C. Ba²⁺

D. Co²⁺

E. Mg²⁺

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

[4 Marks]
  • (A) E, C, D, B, A
  • (B) E, A, B, C, D
  • (C) B, C, A, D, E
  • (D) B, A, D, C, E
Question 41. The work done during reversible isothermal expansion of one mole of hydrogen gas at 25°C from pressure of 20 atmosphere to 10 atmosphere is: (Given R = 2.0 cal K⁻¹ mol⁻¹)
[4 Marks]
  • (A) 0 calorie
  • (B) –413.14 calories
  • (C) 413.14 calories
  • (D) 100 calories
Question 42.

Consider the following reaction in a sealed vessel at equilibrium with concentrations of N₂ = 3.0 × 10⁻³ M, O₂ = 4.2 × 10⁻³ M and NO = 2.8 × 10⁻³ M. 2NO(g) ⇌ N₂​(g) + O₂​(g) If 0.1 mol L⁻¹ of NO(g) is taken in a closed vessel, what will be the degree of dissociation (α) of NO(g) at equilibrium?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 0.0889
  • (B) 0.00889
  • (C) 0.8889
  • (D) 0.717
Question 43.

A compound X contains 32% of A, 20% of B and remaining percentage of C. Then the empirical formula of X is: (Given atomic masses of A = 64; B = 40; C = 32 u)

[4 Marks]
  • (A) ABC₃
  • (B) AB₂C₂
  • (C) ABC₄
  • (D) A₂BC₂
Question 44.

In a vernier callipers, (N+1) divisions of vernier scale coincide with N divisions of main scale. If 1 MSD represents 0.1 mm, the vernier constant (cm) is:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 10 (N+1)
  • (B) 1/100(N+1)
  • (C) 100 N
  • (D) 1/10 N
Question 45. If the monochromatic source in Young’s double slit experiment is replaced by white light, then
[4 Marks]
  • (A) There will be a central dark fringe surrounded by a few coloured fringes.
  • (B) Interference pattern will disappear.
  • (C) There will be a central bright white fringe surrounded by a few coloured fringes.
  • (D) All bright fringes will be of equal width.
Question 46.

A logic circuit provides the output Y as per the following truth table:

The expression for the output Y is :

[4 Marks] Diagram 14 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) B
  • (B) B̅
  • (C) A.B+A̅
  • (D) A.B̅+A̅
Question 47. The terminal voltage of the battery, whose emf is 10 V and internal resistance 1 Ω, when connected through an external resistance of 4 Ω as shown in the figure, is:
[4 Marks] Diagram 15 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) 4V
  • (B) 6V
  • (C) 8V
  • (D) 10V
Question 48.

In a uniform magnetic field of 0.049 T, a magnetic needle performs 20 complete oscillations in 5 seconds as shown. The moment of inertia of the needle is 9.8 × 10⁻⁶ kg m². If the magnitude of magnetic moment of the needle is 1 × 10⁻⁵ A m², then the value of ' x' is:

[4 Marks] Diagram 16 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) 5 π²
  • (B) 1280 π²
  • (C) 128 π²
  • (D) 50 π²
Question 49.

A wire of length 'l' and resistance 100 Ω is divided into 10 equal parts. The first 5 parts are connected in series while the next 5 parts are connected in parallel. The two combinations are again connected in series. The resistance of this final combination is:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 52 Ω
  • (B) 60 Ω
  • (C) 26 Ω
  • (D) 55 Ω
Question 50.

A horizontal force 10 N is applied to a block A as shown in the figure. The mass of blocks A and B are 2 kg and 3 kg respectively. The blocks slide over a frictionless surface. The force exerted by block A on block B is:

[4 Marks] Diagram 17 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) 10N
  • (B) 6N
  • (C) Zero
  • (D) 4N
Question 51. A tightly wound 100 turns coil of radius 10 cm carries a current of 7 A. The magnitude of the magnetic field at the centre of the coil is (Take permeability of free space as 4π×10⁻⁷ SI units):
[4 Marks]
  • (A) 44 mT
  • (B) 4.4 T
  • (C) 4.4 mT
  • (D) 44 T
Question 52. In an ideal transformer, the turns ratio is N_P/N_S = 1/2 The ratio V_S : V_P​ is equal to (the symbols carry their usual meaning):
[4 Marks]
  • (A) 1:2
  • (B) 2:1
  • (C) 1:1
  • (D) 1:4
Question 53.

Statement I: Atoms are electrically neutral as they contain equal number of positive and negative charges.

Statement II: Atoms of each element are stable and emit their characteristic spectrum.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (B) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • (C) Both Statement I and Statement IT are incorrect
  • (D) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Question 54.

A bob is whirled in a horizontal plane by means of a string with an initial speed of ω rpm. If the tension in the string is T. If speed becomes 2ω while keeping the same radius, the tension in the string becomes:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) T
  • (B) T/4
  • (C) √ 2T
  • (D) 4T
Question 55.

Consider the following statements A and B and identify the correct answer: A. For a solar cell, the I–V characteristics lies in the IV quadrant of the given graph. B. In a reverse biased pn junction diode, the current measured in μA is due to majority charge carriers.

[4 Marks] Diagram 18 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) Both A and B are incorrect
  • (B) A is correct but B is incorrect
  • (C) Both A and B are correct
  • (D) A is incorrect but B is correct
Question 56.

A thermodynamic system is taken through the cycle abcda. The work done by the gas along the path be is:

[4 Marks] Diagram 19 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) - 60 J
  • (B) -90 J
  • (C) Zero
  • (D) 30 J
Question 57. A thin spherical shell is charged by some source. The potential difference between the two points C and P (in V) shown in the figure is: (Take 1/4πε₀ = 9 × 10⁹ SI units)
[4 Marks] Diagram 20 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) 3 × 10⁵
  • (B) 1 × 10⁵
  • (C) 0.5 × 10⁵
  • (D) zero
Question 58. The moment of inertia of a thin rod about an axis passing through its mid point and perpendicular to the rod is 2400 g cm². The length of the 400 g rod is nearly:
[4 Marks]
  • (A) 8.5 cm
  • (B) 20.7 cm
  • (C) 72.0 cm
  • (D) 17.5 cm
Question 59. A particle moving with uniform speed in a circular path maintains:
[4 Marks]
  • (A) Constant velocity
  • (B) Constant acceleration
  • (C) Constant velocity but varying acceleration
  • (D) Varying velocity and varying acceleration
Question 60.

If c is the velocity of light in free space, the correct statements about photon among the following are:

A. The energy of a photon is E=hν.

B. The velocity of a photon is c.

C. The momentum of a photon, p= hν​/c

D. In a photon-electron collision, both total energy and total momentum are conserved.

E. Photon possesses positive charge.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) A, C and D only
  • (B) A and B only
  • (C) A, B, C and D only
  • (D) A, B, D and E only
Question 61. At any instant of time t, the displacement of any particle is given by 2t − 1 (SI unit) under the influence of force of 5 N. The value of instantaneous power is (in SI unit):
[4 Marks]
  • (A) 10
  • (B) 5
  • (C) 6
  • (D) 7
Question 62.

A light ray enters through a right-angled prism at point P with the angle of incidence 30° as shown in the figure. It travels through the prism parallel to its base BC and emerges along the face AC. The refractive index of the prism is:

[4 Marks] Diagram 21 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) √5/4
  • (B) √3/2
  • (C) √5/2
  • (D) √3/4
Question 63.

In the following circuit, the equivalent capacitance between terminal A and terminal B is :

[4 Marks] Diagram 22 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) 4 μF
  • (B) 1 μF
  • (C) 0.5 μF
  • (D) 2 μF
Question 64.

The quantities which have the same dimensions as those of solid angle are:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Strain and arc
  • (B) angular speed and stress
  • (C) Stress and angle
  • (D) Strain and angle
Question 65.

The maximum elongation of a steel wire of 1 m length if the elastic limit of steel and its Young’s modulus, respectively, are 8 × 10⁸ N m⁻² and 2 × 10¹¹ N m⁻², is:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 8 mm
  • (B) 40 mm
  • (C) 0.4 mm
  • (D) 4 mm
Question 66.

In the above diagram, a strong bar magnet is moving towards solenoid-2 from solenoid-1. The direction of induced current in solenoid-1 and that in solenoid-2, respectively, are through the directions:

[4 Marks] Diagram 23 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) AB and CD
  • (B) BA and DC
  • (C) BA and CD
  • (D) AB and DC
Question 67.

The mass of a planet is 1/10that of the Earth and its diameter is half that of the Earth. The acceleration due to gravity on that planet is:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 9.8 m s⁻²
  • (B) 3.92 m s⁻²
  • (C) 4.9 m s⁻²
  • (D) 19.6 m s⁻²
Question 68.

Match List I with List II.Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

[4 Marks] Diagram 24 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • (B) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • (C) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (D) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Question 69.

An unpolarised light beam strikes a glass surface at Brewster’s angle. Then

[4 Marks]
  • (A) The reflected light will be completely polarised but the refracted light will be partially polarised.
  • (B) Both the reflected and refracted light will be completely polarised.
  • (C) The reflected light will be partially polarised.
  • (D) The refracted light will be completely polarised.
Question 70.

Match List I with List II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

[4 Marks] Diagram 25 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • (B) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  • (C) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  • (D) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
Question 71.

Two bodies A and B of same mass undergo completely inelastic one-dimensional collision. The body A moves with velocity v₁ while body B is at rest before collision. The velocity of the system after collision is v₂​. The ratio v₁:v₂​ is:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 4:1
  • (B) 1:4
  • (C) 2:1
  • (D) 1:2
Question 72.

In the nuclear emission stated above, the mass number and atomic number of the product Q respectively, are

[4 Marks] Diagram 26 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) 288, 82
  • (B) 280, 81
  • (C) 286, 80
  • (D) 286, 81
Question 73.

If x = 5sin (πt +π/3) m represents the motion of a particle executing simple harmonic motion, the amplitude and time period of motion, respectively, are

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 5 m, 1 s
  • (B) 5 m, 2 s
  • (C) 5 cm, 1 s
  • (D) 5 cm, 2 s
Question 74.

A thin flat circular disc of radius 4.5 cm is placed gently over the surface of water. If surface tension of water is 0.07 N m⁻¹, then the excess force required to take it away from the surface is:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 99 N
  • (B) 1.98 mN
  • (C) 198 N
  • (D) 19.8 mN
Question 75.

The output (Y) of the given logic gate is similar to the output of an/a

[4 Marks] Diagram 27 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) OR gate
  • (B) AND gate
  • (C) NOR gate
  • (D) NAND gate
Question 76.

Assertion A: The potential (V) at any axial point, at 2 m distance (r) from the centre of the dipole of dipole moment vector 𝐏⃗ of magnitude 4 × 10⁻⁶ Cm, is ±9 × 10³V.

(Take 1/4πε₀ = 9 × 10⁹ SI units)

Reason R: V = ± 2P/4πε₀r², where r is the distance of any axial point, situated at 2 m from the centre of the dipole. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) A is false but R is true.
  • (B) A is true but R is false.
  • (C) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
  • (D) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
Question 77.

A wheel of a bullock cart is rolling on a level road as shown in the figure below. If its linear speed is v in the direction shown, which one of the following options is correct (P and Q are any highest and lowest points on the wheel, respectively)?

[4 Marks] Diagram 28 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) Both the points P and Q move with equal speed
  • (B) Point P has zero speed
  • (C) Point P moves faster than point Q
  • (D) Point P moves slower than point Q
Question 78.

A parallel plate capacitor is charged by connecting it to a battery through a resistor. If I is the current in the circuit, then in the gap between the plates:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Displacement current of magnitude equal to I flows in the same direction as I
  • (B) Displacement current of magnitude equal to I flows in a direction opposite to that of I
  • (C) Displacement current of magnitude greater than I flows but can be in any direction
  • (D) There is no current
Question 79. The property which is not of an electromagnetic wave travelling in free space is that:
[4 Marks]
  • (A) They are transverse in nature
  • (B) The energy density in electric field is equal to energy density magnetic field
  • (C) They travel with a speed equal to 1/√μ₀ε₀
  • (D) They originate from charges moving with uniform speed
Question 80.

A small telescope has an objective of focal length 140 cm and an eye piece of focal length 5.0 cm. The magnifying power of telescope for viewing a distant object is:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 17
  • (B) 32
  • (C) 28
  • (D) 34
Question 81. Two heaters A and B have power rating of 1 kW and 2 kW, respectively. Those two are first connected in series and then in parallel to a fixed power source. The ratio of power outputs for these two cases is:
[4 Marks]
  • (A) 1:1
  • (B) 2:9
  • (C) 1:2
  • (D) 2:3
Question 82.

The following graph represents the T–V curves of an ideal gas (where T is the temperature and V the volume) at three pressures P₁, P₂ and P₃ compared with those of Charles’ law represented as dotted lines. Then the correct relation is:

[4 Marks] Diagram 29 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) P₂ > P₁ > P₃
  • (B) P₁ > P₂ > P₃
  • (C) P₁ > P₃ > P₂
  • (D) P₃ > P₂ > P₁
Question 83.

If the mass of the bob in a simple pendulum is increased to thrice its original mass and its length is made half its original length, then the new time period of oscillation is x/2​ times its original time period. Then the value of x is:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 2√3
  • (B) 4
  • (C) √3
  • (D) √2
Question 84. The minimum energy required to launch a satellite of ‘mass m from the surface of earth of mass M and radius R in-a circular orbit at an altitude of 2R from the surface of the earth is:
[4 Marks]
  • (A) 5GmM/6R
  • (B) 2GmM/3R
  • (C) GmM/2R
  • (D) GmM/3R
Question 85.

A sheet is placed on a horizontal surface in front of a strong magnetic pole.

A force is needed to: A. hold the sheet there if it is magnetic.

B. hold the sheet there if it is non-magnetic.

C. move the sheet away from the pole with uniform velocity if it is conducting.

D. move the sheet away from the pole with uniform velocity if it is both, non-conducting and non-polar. Choose the correct statement(s) from the options given below:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) A, C and D only
  • (B) C only
  • (C) A and C only
  • (D) B and D only
Question 86. A 10 μF capacitor is connected to a 210 V, 50 Hz source as shown in the figure. The peak current in the circuit is nearly (π = 3.14):
[4 Marks] Diagram 30 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) 0.58 A
  • (B) 0.93 A
  • (C) 1.20 A
  • (D) 0.35 A
Question 87.

A metallic bar of Young’s modulus 0.5 × 10¹¹ N m⁻² and coefficient of linear thermal expansion 10⁻⁵°C⁻¹, length 1 m and area of cross-section 10⁻³ m² is heated from 0°C to 100°C without expansion or bending. The compressive force developed in it is:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 2 × 10³ N
  • (B) 5 × 10³ N
  • (C) 100 × 10³ N
  • (D) 50 × 10³ N
Question 88.

An iron bar of length L has magnetic moment M. It is bent at the middle of its length such that the two arms make an angle 60° with each other. The magnetic moment of this new magnet is :

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 2M
  • (B) M/√3
  • (C) M
  • (D) M/2
Question 89.

If the plates of a parallel plate capacitor connected to a battery are moved close to each other, then

A. the charge stored in it, increases.

B. the energy stored in it, decreases.

C. its capacitance increases.

D. the ratio of charge to its potential remains the same.

E. the product of charge and voltage increases.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) A, B and E only
  • (B) A, C and E only
  • (C) A, B and C only
  • (D) B, D and E only
Question 90.

A force defined by F = αt² + βt acts on a particle at a given time t. The factor which is dimensionless, if α and β are constants, is:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) αβ/t
  • (B) αβt
  • (C) αt/β
  • (D) βt/α
Question 91. Lecithin, a small molecular weight organic compound found in living tissues, is an example of:
[4 Marks]
  • (A) Amino acids
  • (B) Phospholipids
  • (C) Glycerides
  • (D) Carbohydrates
Question 92. How many molecules of ATP and NADPH are required for every molecule of CO₂ fixed in the Calvin cycle?
[4 Marks]
  • (A) 2 molecules of ATP and 3 molecules of NADPH
  • (B) 2 molecules of ATP and 2 molecules of NADPH
  • (C) 3 molecules of ATP and 3 molecules of NADPH
  • (D) 3 molecules of ATP and 2 molecules of NADPH
Question 93.

Hindi II always cuts DNA molecules at a particular point called recognition sequence and it consists of:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 10 bp
  • (B) 4 bp
  • (C) 6 bp
  • (D) 8 bp
Question 94. In the given figure, which component has thin outer walls and highly thickened inner walls?
[4 Marks] Diagram 31 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) C
  • (B) D
  • (C) B
  • (D) A
Question 95. The cofactor of the enzyme carboxypeptidase is:
[4 Marks]
  • (A) Niacin
  • (B) Zinc
  • (C) Flavin
  • (D) Haem
Question 96. The capacity to generate a whole plant from any cell of the plant is called:
[4 Marks]
  • (A) Totipotency
  • (B) Micropropagation
  • (C) Differentiation
  • (D) Somatic hybridization
Question 97.

Match List I with List II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

[4 Marks] Diagram 32 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  • (B) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
  • (C) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
  • (D) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
Question 98.

Statement I : Bt toxins are insect group specific and coded by a gene cry IAc.

Statement II : Bt toxin exists as inactive protoxin in B. thuringiensis. However, after ingestion by the insect the inactive protoxin gets converted into active form due to acidic pH of the insect gut.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (B) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (C) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Question 99. Which of the following is an example of actinomorphic flower?
[4 Marks]
  • (A) Datura
  • (B) Cassia
  • (C) Pisum
  • (D) Sesbania
Question 100. The type of conservation in which the threatened species are taken out from their natural habitat and placed in special setting where they can be protected and given special care is called;
[4 Marks]
  • (A) in-situ conservation
  • (B) Biodiversity conservation
  • (C) Semi-conservative method
  • (D) Sustainable development
Question 101.

Identify the set of correct statement: A. The flowers of Vallisneria are colourful and produce nectar.

B. The flowers of waterlily are not pollinated by water.

C. In most of water-pollinated species, the pollen grains are protected from wetting.

D. Pollen grains of some hydrophytes are long and ribbon like.

E. In some hydrophytes, the pollen grains are carried passively inside water.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

[4 Marks]
  • (A) B, C, D and E only
  • (B) A, C, D and E only
  • (C) C, D and E only
  • (D) A, B, C and D only
Question 102. The lactose present in the growth medium of bacteria is transported to the cell by the action of
[4 Marks]
  • (A) Beta-galactosidase
  • (B) Acetylase
  • (C) Polymerase
  • (D) Permease
Question 103.

Match List I with List II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

[4 Marks] Diagram 33 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
  • (B) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • (C) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • (D) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
Question 104.

The equation of Verhulst-Pearl logistic growth is dN/dt = rN[K-N/K]. From this equation, K indicates:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Population density
  • (B) Carrying capacity
  • (C) Intrinsic rate of natural increase
  • (D) Biotic potential
Question 105. Auxin is used by gardeners to prepare weed-free lawns. But no damage is caused to grass as auxin
[4 Marks]
  • (A) promotes apical dominance.
  • (B) promotes abscission of mature leaves only.
  • (C) does not affect mature monocotyledonous plants.
  • (D) can help in cell division in grasses, to produce growth.
Question 106. Identify the part of the seed from the given figure which is destined to form root when the seed germinates.
[4 Marks] Diagram 34 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) B
  • (B) A
  • (C) C
  • (D) D
Question 107.

Statement I : Parenchyma is living but collenchyma is dead tissue.

Statement II : Gymnosperms lack xylem vessels but presence of xylem vessels is the characteristic of angiosperms.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (B) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (C) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (D) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Question 108.

These are regarded as major causes of biodiversity loss:

A. Over exploitation

B. Co-extinction

C. Mutation

D. Habitat loss and fragmentation

E. Migration

Choose the correct option:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A, B and E only
  • (C) A, B, C and D only
  • (D) A, C and D only
Question 109. Which one of the following is not a criterion for classification of fungi?
[4 Marks]
  • (A) Morphology of mycelium
  • (B) Mode of nutrition
  • (C) Mode of spore formation
  • (D) Fruiting body
Question 110. Identify the type of flowers based on the position of calyx, corolla and androecium with respect to the ovary from the given figures (a) and (b)
[4 Marks] Diagram 35 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) (a) Epigynous; (b) Hypogynous
  • (B) (a) Hypogynous; (b) Epigynous
  • (C) (a) Perigynous; (b) Epigynous
  • (D) (a) Perigynous; (b) Perigynous
Question 111. List of endangered species was released by-
[4 Marks]
  • (A) GEAC
  • (B) WWF
  • (C) FOAM
  • (D) IUCN
Question 112.

What is the fate of a piece of DNA carrying only gene of interest which is transferred into an alien organism?

A. The piece of DNA would be able to multiply itself independently in the progeny cells of the organism. B. It may get integrated into the genome of the recipient.

C. It may multiply and be inherited along with the host DNA.

D. The alien piece of DNA is not an integral part of chromosome.

E. It shows ability to replicate.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) A and E only
  • (B) D and E only
  • (C) A and B only
  • (D) B and C only
Question 113. Wich one of the following can be explained on the basis of Mendel’s Law of Dominance? A. Out of one pair of factors one is dominant and the other is recessive. B. Alleles do not show any expression and both the characters appear as such in F, generation. C. Factors occur in pairs in normal diploid plants. D. The discrete unit controlling a particular character is called factor. E. The expression of only one of the parental characters is found in a monohybrid cross. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[4 Marks]
  • (A) A, B and C only
  • (B) A, C, D and E only
  • (C) A, B, C, D and E
  • (D) B, C and D only
Question 114. Inhibition of Succinic dehydrogenase enzyme by malonate is a classical example of:
[4 Marks]
  • (A) Cofactor inhibition
  • (B) Competitive inhibition
  • (C) Feedback inhibition
  • (D) Enzyme activation
Question 115. Formation of interfascicular cambium from. fully developed parenchyma cells is an example for
[4 Marks]
  • (A) Differentiation
  • (B) Redifferentiation
  • (C) Dedifferentiation
  • (D) Maturation
Question 116. Spindle fibers attach to kinetochores of chromosomes during
[4 Marks]
  • (A) Prophase
  • (B) Metaphase
  • (C) Telophase
  • (D) Anaphase
Question 117.

Tropical regions show greatest level of species richness because

A. Tropical latitudes have remained relatively undisturbed for millions of years, hence more time was available for species diversification.

B. Tropical environments are more seasonal.

C. More solar energy is available in tropics.

D. Constant environments promote niche specialization.

E. Tropical environments are constant and predictable.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

[4 Marks]
  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A, B and E only
  • (C) A, C, D and E only
  • (D) A and B only
Question 118.

Statement I: Chromosomes become gradually visible under light microscope during leptotene stage. Statement II: The beginning of diplotene stage is recognized by dissolution of synaptonemal complex.

In the light of the above statements,

choose the correct answer from the options given below:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (B) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (C) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (D) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Question 119. Match List I with List II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[4 Marks] Diagram 36 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
  • (B) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  • (C) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • (D) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Question 120. Bulliform cells are responsible for
[4 Marks]
  • (A) Inward curling of leaves in monocots.
  • (B) Protecting the plant from salt stress.
  • (C) Increased photosynthesis in monocots.
  • (D) Providing large spaces for storage of sugars.
Question 121.

A pink flowered Snapdragon plant was crossed with a red flowered Snapdragon plant. What type of phenotype/s is/are expected in the progeny?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Red, Pink as well as white flowered plants
  • (B) Only pink flowered plants
  • (C) Red flowered as well as pink flowered plants
  • (D) Only red flowered plants
Question 122. A transcription unit in DNA is defined primarily by the three regions in DNA and these are with respect to upstream and down stream end;
[4 Marks]
  • (A) Repressor, Operator gene, Structural gene
  • (B) Structural gene, Transposons, Operator gene
  • (C) Inducer, Repressor, Structural gene
  • (D) Promotor, Structural gene, Terminator
Question 123. In a plant, black seed color (BB/Bb) is dominant over white seed color (bb). In order to find out the genotype of the black seed plant, with which of the following genotype will be cross it?
[4 Marks]
  • (A) BB
  • (B) bb
  • (C) Bb
  • (D) BB/Bb
Question 124.

Which of the following are required for the dark reaction of photosynthesis?

A. Light

B. Chlorophyll

C. CO₂ D. ATP

E. NADPH

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) D and E only
  • (B) C, D and E only
  • (C) B, C and D only
  • (D) A, B and C only
Question 125.

Match List I with List II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

[4 Marks] Diagram 37 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • (B) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  • (C) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (D) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Question 126. The DNA present in chloroplast is:
[4 Marks]
  • (A) Linear, double stranded
  • (B) Circular, double stranded
  • (C) Linear, single stranded
  • (D) Circular, single stranded
Question 127. Match List I with List II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[4 Marks] Diagram 38 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  • (B) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • (C) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • (D) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
Question 128.

Match List I with List II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

[4 Marks] Diagram 39 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • (B) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • (C) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • (D) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Question 129. Which of the following statement is correct regarding the process of replication in E. coli?
[4 Marks]
  • (A) The DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyses polymerization in one direction, that is 3′ → 5′
  • (B) The DNA dependent RNA polymerase catalyses polymerization in one direction, that is 5′ → 3′
  • (C) The DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyses polymerization in 5′ → 3′ as well as 3′ → 5′ direction
  • (D) The DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyses polymerization in 5′ → 3′ direction only.
Question 130.

Match List I with List II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

[4 Marks] Diagram 40 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • (B) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (C) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (D) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Question 131.

Read the following statements and choose the set of correct statements: In the members of Phaeophyceae,

A. Asexual reproduction occurs usually by biflagellate zoospores.

B. Sexual reproduction is by oogamous method only.

C. Stored food is in the form of carbohydrates which is either mannitol or laminarin.

D. The major pigments found are chlorophyll a, c and carotenoids and xanthophyll.

E. Vegetative cells have a cellulosic wall, usually covered on the outside by gelatinous coating of algin. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) A, B, C and E only
  • (B) A, C, D and E only
  • (C) B, C, D and E only
  • (D) A, B, C and D only
Question 132.

In an ecosystem if the Net Primary Productivity (NPP) of first trophic level is 100x (kcal m⁻² yr⁻¹), what would be the GPP (Gross Primary Productivity) of the third trophic level of the same ecosystem?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 10x (kcal m⁻² yr⁻¹)
  • (B) 100x/3X (kcal m⁻² yr⁻¹)
  • (C) x (kcal m⁻² yr⁻¹)
  • (D) x/10 (kcal m⁻² yr⁻¹)
Question 133.

Match List I with List II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

[4 Marks] Diagram 41 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • (B) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (C) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  • (D) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Question 134. Identify the step in tricarboxylic acid cycle, which does not involve oxidation of substrate.
[4 Marks]
  • (A) Succinic acid → Malic acid
  • (B) Malic acid → Oxaloacetic acid
  • (C) Succinyl-CoA → Succinic acid
  • (D) Isocitrate → α-ketoglutaric acid
Question 135.

Statement I: In C₃ plants, some O₂ binds to RuBisCO, hence CO₂ fixation is decreased

. Statement II: In C₄ plants, mesophyll cells show very little photorespiration while bundle sheath cells do not show photorespiration.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Statement 1is false but Statement II is true
  • (B) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (C) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (D) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Question 136. Match List I with List II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[4 Marks] Diagram 42 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) A-IV,B-II, C-I, D-III
  • (B) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  • (C) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
  • (D) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
Question 137. Match List I with List II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[4 Marks] Diagram 43 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (B) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • (C) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  • (D) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
Question 138.

Which of the following are fused in somatic hybridization involving two varieties of plants?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Callus
  • (B) Somatic embryos
  • (C) Pollens
  • (D) Protoplasts
Question 139. Spraying sugarcane crop with which of the following plant growth regulators, increases the length of stem, thus, increasing the yield?
[4 Marks]
  • (A) Auxin
  • (B) Gibberellin
  • (C) Cytokinin
  • (D) Abscisic acid
Question 140.

Following are the stages of pathway for conduction of an action potential through the heart

A. AV bundle

B. Purkinje fibres

C. AV node

D. Bundle branches

E. SA node

Choose the correct sequence of pathway from the options given below

[4 Marks]
  • (A) E-A-D-B-C
  • (B) B-D-E-C-A
  • (C) A-E-C-B-D
  • (D) E-C-A-D-B
Question 141. In both sexes of cockroach, a pair of jointed filamentous structures called anal cerci are present on
[4 Marks]
  • (A) 5ᵗʰ segment
  • (B) 10ᵗʰ segment
  • (C) 11ᵗʰ segment
  • (D) 8ᵗʰ and 9ᵗʰ segment
Question 142.

The flippers of the Penguins and Dolphins are the example of the

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Divergent evolution
  • (B) Convergent evolution
  • (C) Natural selection
  • (D) Adaptive radiation
Question 143. Which of the following is not a component of Fallopian tube?
[4 Marks]
  • (A) Isthmus
  • (B) Uterine fundus
  • (C) Ampulla
  • (D) Infundibulum
Question 144.

Given below are some stages of human evolution. Arrange them in correct sequence. (Past to Recent)

A. Homo habilis

B. Homo sapiens

C. Homo neanderthalensis

D. Homo erectus

Choose the correct sequence of human evolution from the options given below:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) A-D-C-B
  • (B) C-B-D-A
  • (C) B-A-D-C
  • (D) D-A-C-B
Question 145. Which of the following is not a steroid hormone?
[4 Marks]
  • (A) Cortisol
  • (B) Testosterone
  • (C) Progesterone
  • (D) Glucagon
Question 146. Match List I with List II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[4 Marks] Diagram 44 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) A-II B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (B) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • (C) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (D) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
Question 147.

Following are the stages of cell division :

A. Gap 2 phase

B. Cytokinesis

C. Synthesisphase

D. Karyokinesis

E. Gap I phase

Choose the correct sequence of stages from the options given below:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) E-C-A-D-B
  • (B) B-D-E-A-C
  • (C) E-B-D-A-C
  • (D) C-E-D-A-B
Question 148. Which one of the following factors will not affect the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
[4 Marks]
  • (A) Genetic recombination
  • (B) Genetic drift
  • (C) Gene migration
  • (D) Constant gene pool
Question 149.

Which of the following are Autoimmune disorders?

A. Myasthenia gravis

B. Rheumatoid arthritis

C. Gout

D. Muscular dystrophy

E. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) C, D & E only
  • (B) B, C & E only
  • (C) A, B & D only
  • (D) B & E only
Question 150. Match List I with List II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[4 Marks] Diagram 45 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • (B) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
  • (C) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • (D) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
Question 151. Match List I with List II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[4 Marks] Diagram 46 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • (B) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
  • (C) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (D) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
Question 152. Match List I with List II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[4 Marks] Diagram 47 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • (B) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • (C) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (D) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
Question 153.

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R : Assertion A : FSH acts upon ovarian follicles in female and Leydig cells in male.

Reason R : Growing ovarian follicles secrete estrogen in female while interstitial cells secrete androgen in male human being.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  • (B) A is false but R is true
  • (C) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (D) A is true but R is false
Question 154. Match List I with List II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[4 Marks] Diagram 48 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
  • (B) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (C) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • (D) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
Question 155. Match List I with List II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[4 Marks] Diagram 49 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
  • (B) A-I B-II, C-IV, D-III
  • (C) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • (D) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
Question 156. The “Ti plasmid” of Agrobacterium tumefaciens stands for
[4 Marks]
  • (A) Tumor independent plasmid
  • (B) Tumor inducing plasmid
  • (C) Tumour inhibiting plasmid
  • (D) Temperature independent plasmid
Question 157.

Match List I with List II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

[4 Marks] Diagram 50 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  • (B) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (C) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
  • (D) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
Question 158. Which one is the correct product of DNA dependent RNA polymerase to the given template: 3′ TACATGGCAAATATCCATTCA 5′
[4 Marks]
  • (A) 5′ AUGUACCGUUUAUAGGUAAGU 3′
  • (B) 5′ AUGUAAAGUUUAUAGGUAAGU 3′
  • (C) 5′ AUGUACCGUUUAUAGGGAAGU 3′
  • (D) 5′ ATGTACCGTTTATAGGTAAGT 3′
Question 159. Which of the following is not a natural/traditional contraceptive method?
[4 Marks]
  • (A) Coitus interruptus
  • (B) Lactational amenorrhea
  • (C) Periodic abstinence
  • (D) Vaults
Question 160. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
[4 Marks]
  • (A) A bio-reactor provides optimal growth conditions for achieving the desired product
  • (B) Bio-reactors are used to produce small scale bacterial cultures
  • (C) Most commonly used bio-reactors are of stirring type
  • (D) Bio-reactors have an agitator system, an oxygen delivery system foam control system
Question 161.

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: Assertion A : Breast-feeding during initial period of infant growth is recommended by doctors for bringing a healthy baby.

Reason R : Colostrum contains several antibodies absolutely essential to develop resistance for the new born baby.

In the light of the above statements,

choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) A is correct but R is not correct
  • (B) A is not correct but R is correct
  • (C) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  • (D) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
Question 162. Which of the following factors are favourable for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin in alveoli?
[4 Marks]
  • (A) High pO₂ and High pCO₂
  • (B) High pO₂ and Lesser H⁺ concentration
  • (C) Low pCO₂ and High H⁺ concentration
  • (D) Low pCO₂ and High temperature
Question 163. Match List I with List II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[4 Marks] Diagram 51 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • (B) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  • (C) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
  • (D) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
Question 164.

Match List I with List II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

[4 Marks] Diagram 52 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
  • (B) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  • (C) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
  • (D) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
Question 165.

Consider the following statements :

A. Annelids are true coelomates

B. Poriferans are pseudocoelomates

C. Aschelminthes are acoelomates

D. Platyhelminthes are pseudocoelomates

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) D only
  • (B) C only
  • (C) B only
  • (D) A only
Question 166. Match List I with List II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[4 Marks] Diagram 53 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • (B) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
  • (C) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • (D) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
Question 167. Match List I with List II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[4 Marks] Diagram 54 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
  • (B) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • (C) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
  • (D) A-I B-III, C-II, D-IV
Question 168.

Statement I: In the nephron, the descending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water and permeable to electrolytes.

Statement II: The proximal convoluted tubule is lined by simple columnar brush border epithelium and increases the surface area for reabsorption.

In the light of the above statements,

choose the correct answer from the options given below:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (B) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (C) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (D) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Question 169. Match List I with List II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[4 Marks] Diagram 55 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • (B) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
  • (C) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (D) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
Question 170.

Match List I with List II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

[4 Marks] Diagram 56 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  • (B) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • (C) A-II, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • (D) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
Question 171. Match List I with List II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[4 Marks] Diagram 57 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
  • (B) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
  • (C) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  • (D) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
Question 172.

Statement I: The presence or absence of hymen is not a reliable indicator of virginity.

Statement II: The hymen is torn during the first coitus only.

In the light of the above above statements,

choose the correct answer from the options given below :

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (B) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (C) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (D) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Question 173.

Statement I: Gause’s competitive exclusion principle states that two closely related species competing for different resources cannot exist indefinitely.

Statement II: According to Gause’s principle, during competition, the inferior will be eliminated. This may be true if resources are limiting.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
  • (B) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
  • (C) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
  • (D) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
Question 174. Match List I with List II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[4 Marks] Diagram 58 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • (B) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
  • (C) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
  • (D) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
Question 175.

The following are the statements about non-chordates:

A. Pharynx is perforated by gill slits.

B. Notochord is absent.

C. Central nervous system is dorsal.

D. Heart is dorsal if present.

E. Postanal tail is absent.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) B, C & D only
  • (B) A & C only
  • (C) B, D & E only
  • (D) A, B & D only
Question 176. Choose the correct statement given below regarding juxta medullary nephron.
[4 Marks]
  • (A) Juxtamedullary nephrons are located in the columns of Bertini.
  • (B) Renal corpuscle of juxta medullary nephron lies in the outer portion of the renal medulla.
  • (C) Loop of Henle of juxta medullary nephron runs deep into medulla.
  • (D) Juxta medullary nephrons outnumber the cortical nephrons.
Question 177.

Statement I: The cerebral hemispheres are connected by nerve tract known as corpus callosum. Statement II: The brain stem consists of the medulla oblongata, pons and cerebrum.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
  • (B) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
  • (C) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
  • (D) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
Question 178.

Statement I : Bone marrow is the main lymphoid organ where all blood cells including lymphocytes are produced. Statement II : Both bone marrow and thymus provide micro environments for the development and maturation of T-lymphocytes. In the light of above statements,

choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Statement I s incorrect but Statement II is correct.
  • (B) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
  • (C) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
  • (D) Both statement I and II are correct.
Question 179.

Rgarding catalytic cycle of an enzyme action, select the correct sequential steps :

A. Substrate enzyme complex formation.

B. Free enzyme ready to bind with another substrate.

C. Release of products.

D. Chemical bonds of the substrate broken.

E. Substrate binding to active site.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) B,A,C,D,E
  • (B) A,E,B,D,C
  • (C) E,A,D,C,B
  • (D) E,D,C,B,A
Question 180. Match List I with List II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[4 Marks] Diagram 59 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  • (B) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
  • (C) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • (D) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
Question 181.

Match List I with List II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

[4 Marks] Diagram 60 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • (B) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (C) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  • (D) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Question 182. Match List I with List II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[4 Marks] Diagram 61 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
  • (B) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • (C) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • (D) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Question 183. Match List I with List II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[4 Marks] Diagram 62 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) A-I B-III, C-II, D-IV
  • (B) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
  • (C) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • (D) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Question 184. As per ABO blood grouping system, the blood group of father is B⁺, mother is A⁺ and child is O⁺. Their respective genotype can be A. Iᴮi / Iᴬi / ii B. IᴮIᴮ / IᴬIᴬ / ii C. IᴬIᴮ / iIᴬ / Iᴮi D. Iᴬi / Iᴮi / Iᴬi E. iIᴮ / ii / IᴬIᴮ Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
[4 Marks]
  • (A) A only
  • (B) B only
  • (C) D & E only
  • (D) C & B only
Question 185.

Statement I: Mitochondria and chloroplasts both double membranes bound organelles.

Statement II: Inner membrane of mitochondria is relatively less permeable, as compared chloroplast.

In the light of the above statements, choose the m is appropriate answer from the options given below

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Statement I is incorrect but Statement Il is correct.
  • (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
  • (C) Statement I is correct but Statement Il is incorrect.
  • (D) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
Question 186.

The graph which shows the variation of (1/λ²) and its A kinetic energy, E is (where λ is de Broglie wavelength of a free particle):

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Diagram 63 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (B) Diagram 64 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (C) Diagram 65 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (D) Diagram 66 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
Question 187.

The velocity (v) — time (t) plot of the motion of a body is shown below:

The acceleration (a) — time (t) graph that best suits this motion is :

[4 Marks] Diagram 67 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) Diagram 68 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (B) Diagram 69 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (C) Diagram 70 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (D) Diagram 71 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
Question 188.

Choose the correct circuit which can achieve the bridge balance.

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Diagram 72 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (B) Diagram 73 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (C) Diagram 74 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (D) Diagram 75 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
Question 189.

Intramolecular hydrogen bonding is present in

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Diagram 76 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (B) Diagram 77 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (C) Diagram 78 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (D) HF
Question 190.

The compound that will undergo S_N1 reaction with the fastest rate is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Diagram 79 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (B) Diagram 80 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (C) Diagram 81 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (D) Diagram 82 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
Question 191.

Which one of the following alcoholreacts instantaneously with Lucas reagent?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₂ – CH₂OH
  • (B) Diagram 83 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (C) Diagram 84 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (D) Diagram 85 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
Question 192.

The most stable carbocation among the following is :

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Diagram 86 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (B) Diagram 87 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (C) Diagram 88 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (D) Diagram 89 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
Question 193.

Which plot of In k vs 1/T is consistent with Arrhenius equation?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Diagram 90 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (B) Diagram 91 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (C) Diagram 92 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (D) Diagram 93 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
Question 194.

For the given reaction:

'P' is

[4 Marks] Diagram 94 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) Diagram 95 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (B) Diagram 96 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (C) Diagram 97 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (D) Diagram 98 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
Question 195.

Major products A and B formed in the following reaction sequence, are

[4 Marks] Diagram 99 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) Diagram 100 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (B) Diagram 101 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (C) Diagram 102 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (D) Diagram 103 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
Question 196.

Identify the correct description about the given figure:

[4 Marks] Diagram 104 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) Wind pollinated plant inflorescence showing flowers with well exposed stamens.
  • (B) Water pollinated flowers showing stamens with mucilaginous covering.
  • (C) Compact inflorescence showing complete autogamy
  • (D) Cleistogamous flowers showing autogamy.
Question 197.

Three types of muscles are given as a, b and c. Identify the correct matching pair along with their location in the human body:

Name of muscle/location

[4 Marks] Diagram 105 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) (a) Smooth – Toes (b) Skeletal – Legs (c) Cardiac – Heart
  • (B) (a) Skeletal – Biceps (b) Involuntary – Intestine (c) Smooth – Heart
  • (C) (a) Skeletal – Triceps (b) Smooth – Stomach (c) Cardiac – Heart
  • (D) (a) Involuntary — Nose tip (b) Skeletal — Bone (c) Cardiac — Heart
Question 198.

The following diagram shows restriction sites in E. coli cloning vector pBR322. Find the role of 'X' and 'Y' genes:

[4 Marks] Diagram 106 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) The gene 'X' is responsible for resistance to antibiotics and 'Y' for protein involved in the replication of plasmid.
  • (B) The gene 'X' is responsible for controlling the copy number of the linked DNA and 'Y' for protein involved in the replication of plasmid.
  • (C) The gene 'X' is responsible for recognition sites and 'Y' is responsible for antibiotic resistance.
  • (D) The gene 'X' is for protein involved in the replication of plasmid and 'Y' for resistance to antibiotics.
Question 199.

Identify the correct option (A), (B), (C), (D) with respect to spermatogenesis.

[4 Marks] Diagram 107 – NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper
  • (A) FSH, Leydig cells, Sertoli cells, Spermiogenesis.
  • (B) ICSH, Interstitial cells, Leydig cells, Spermiogenesis.
  • (C) ICSH, Leydig cells, Sertoli cells, Spermatogenesis.
  • (D) FSH, Sertoli cells, Leydig cells, Spermatogenesis.
Question 200.

which one of the following factors will not affect the hardy - weinberg equilibrium?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) genetic drift
  • (B) genetic recombination
  • (C) gene migeation
  • (D) constant gene pool