NEET-UG 2022 Question Paper

Two hollow conducting spheres of radii R₁ and R₂ (R₁ >> R₂) have equal charges. The potential would be :

In the given circuits (1), (2) and (3), the potential drop across the two p-n junctions are equal in:

Two objects of mass 10 kg and 20 kg respectively are connected to the two ends of a rigid rod of length 10 m with negligible mass. The distance of the center of mass of the system from the 10 kg mass is:

A biconvex lens has radii of curvature, 20 cm each, if the refractive index of the material of the lens is 1.5, the power of the lens is:

A spherical ball is dropped in a long column of a highly viscous liquid. The curve in the graph shown, which represents the speed of the ball (v) as a function of time (t) is:

The ratio of the radius of gyration of a thin uniform disc about an axis passing through its centre and normal to its plane to the radius of gyration of the dis about its diameter is:

A shell of mass m is at rest initially. It explodes into three fragments having mass in the ratio 2:2: 1. If the fragments having equal mass fly off along mutually perpendicular directions with speed v, the speed of the third (lighter) fragment is

A long solenoid of radius 1 mm has 100 turns per mm. If 1A current flows in the solenoid, the magnetic field strength at the centre of the solenoid is

Let T₁ and T₂ be the energy of an electron in the first and second excited states of hydrogen atom, respectively. According to the Bohr’s model of an atom, the ratio T₁: T₂ is:

A light ray falls on a glass surface of refractive index √3 at an angle 60°. The angle between the refracted and reflected rays would be:

Plane angle and solid angle have:

When light propagates through a material medium of relative permittivity εᵣ and relative permeability μᵣ, the velocity of light, v is given by: (c-velocity of light in vacuum)

Two resistors of resistance, 100 Ω and 200 Ω are connected in parallel in an electrical circuit. The ratio of the thermal energy developed in 100 Ω to that in 200 Ω in a given time is:

The graph which shows the variation of the de Broglie wavelength (λ) of a particle and its associated momentum (p) is:

A square loop of side 1 m and resistance 1 Ω is placed in a magnetic field of 0.5 T. If the plane of loop is perpendicular to the direction of magnetic field, the magnetic flux through the loop is:

When two monochromatic lights of frequency, υ and υ/2 are incident on a photoelectric metal, their stopping potential becomes Vₛ/2 and Vₛ respectively. The threshold frequency for this metal is:

In half wave rectification, if the input frequency is 60 Hz, then the output frequency is would be:

An ideal gas undergoes four different processes from the same initial state as shown in the figure below. Those processes are adiabatic, isothermal, isobaric and isochoric. The curve which represents the adiabatic process among 1, 2, 3 and 4 is:

Match List-I with List-II Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

The displacement-time graphs of two moving particles make angles of 30° and 45° with the x-axis as shown in the figure. The ratio of their respective velocity is:

InaYoung’s doubleslitexperiment, astudentobserves 8 fringes in a certain segment of screen when amonochromatic light of 600 nm wavelength is used. If the wavelength of light is changed to 400 nm, then the number of fringes he would observe in the same region of the screen is:

The peak voltage of the ac source is equal to:

If the initial tension on a stretched string is doubled, then the ratio of the initial and final speeds of a transverse wave along the string is:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Biot-Savart’s law gives us the expression for the magnetic field strength of an infinitesimal current element(Idl) of a current carrying conductor only.

statement II: Biot-Savart’s law is analogous to Coulomb’s inverse square law of charge g, with the former being related to the field produced by a scalar source, Idl while the latter being produced by a vector source q.

In light of above statement choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

As the temperature increase, the electrical resistance:

The energy that will be ideally rediated by a 100 kW transmitter in 1 hour is:

A body of mass 60 g experiences a gravitational force of 3.0 N, when placed at a particular point. The magnitude of the gravitational field intensity at that point is:

In the given nuclear reaction, the element X is : ²²₁₁Na → X + e⁺ + ν

The angle between the electric lines of force and the quintessential surface is:

A copper wire of length 10 m and radius (10⁻²/√π) m has electrical resistance of 10 Ω. The current density in the wire for an electric field strength of 10 (V/m) is :

The ratio of the distances travelled by a freely falling body in the 1ˢᵗ, 2ⁿᵈ, 3ʳᵈ and 4ᵗʰ second:

An electric lift with a maximum load of 2000 kg (lift + passengers) is moving up with a constant speed of 1.5 ms⁻¹. The frictional force opposing the motion is 3000 N. The minimum power delivered by the motor to the lift in watts is :(g = 10ms⁻²)

The volume occupied by the molecules contained in 4.5 kg water of STP, if the intermolecular forces vanish away is:

The area of a rectangular field (in m²) of length 55.3 m and breadth 25 m after rounding off the value of correct significant digits is:

A capacitor of capacitance C = 900 pF is charged fully by 100 V battery B as shown in figure (a). Then it is disconnected from the battery and connected to another uncharged capacitor of capacitance C = 900 pF as shown in figure (b). The electrostatic energy stored by the system (b) is

Match List-I with List-II Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Two pendulums of length 121 cm and 100 cm start vibrating in phase. At some instant, the two are at their mean position in the same phase. The minimum number of vibrations of the shorter pendulum after which the two are again in phase at the mean position is:

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): The stretching of a spring is determined by the shear modulus of the material of the spring. Reason (R): A coil spring of copper has more tensile strength than a steel spring of same dimensions.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

A ball is projected with a velocity, 10 ms⁻¹, at an angle of 60° with the vertical direction. Its speed at the highest point of its trajectory will be:

The truth table for the given logic circuit is:

A series LCR circuit with inductance 10 H, capacitance 10 μF, resistance 50 Ω is connected to an ac source of voltage, V = 200 sin (100 t) volt. If the resonant frequency of the LCR circuit is ν₀ and the frequency of the ac source is ν, then

A wheatstone bridge is used to determine the value of unknown resistance X by adjusting the variable resistance Y as shown in the figure. For the most precise measurement of X, the resistances P and Q:

From Ampere’s circuital law for a long straight wire of circular cross-section carrying a steady current, the variation of magnetic field in the inside and outside region of the wire is:

Two point charges —q and +q are placed at a distance of L, as shown in the figure. The magnitude of electric field intensity at a distance R(R>>L) varies as:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In the coagulation of a negative sol, the flocculating power of the three given ions is in the order: Al³⁺ > Ba²⁺ > Na⁺

Statement II: In the coagulation of a positive sol, the flocculating power of the three given salts is in the order: NaCl > Na₂SO₄ > Na₃PO₄

In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

The incorrect statement regarding chirality is:

What is Y in the above reaction:

Match List-I with List-II Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Given below are two statements : -

Statement I : The boiling points of aldehydes and ketones are higher than hydrocarbons of comparable molecular masses because of weak molecular association in aldehydes and ketones due to dipole - dipole interactions.

Statements II : The boiling points aldehydes and ketones are lower than the alcohols of similar molecular masses due to the absence of H-bonding. In the light of the statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

Match List-I with List-II Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Which one is not correct mathematical equation for Dalton's Law of partial pressure? Here p = total pressure of gaseous mixture

Match List-I with List-II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The boiling points of the following hydrides of group 16 elements increases in the order —H₂O < H₂S < H₂Se < H₂Te

Statement II: The boiling points of these hydrides increase with increase in molar mass.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

The IUPAC name of the complex [Ag(H₂O)][Ag(CN)₂] is :

Which of the following is suitable to synthesize chlorobenzene ?

Given below are two statements; one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : ICl is more reactive than I₂.

Reason (R) : I-Cl bond is weaker than I-I bond.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

The IUPAC name of an element with atomic number 119 is

Which compound amongst the following is not an aromatic compound?

Choose the correct statement:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Primary aliphatic amines react with HNO₂ to give unstable diazonium salts. Statement II: Primary aromatic amines react with HNO₂ to form diazonium salts which are stable even above 300 K.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): In a particular point defect, an ionic solid is electrically neutral, even if few of its cations are missing from its unit cells.

Reason (R): In an ionic solid, Frenkel defect arises due to dislocation of cation from its lattice site to interstitial site, maintaining overall electrical neutrality.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

The Kjeldahl’s method for the estimation of nitrogen can be used to estimate the amount of nitrogen in which one of the following compounds?

Which of the following p-V curve represents maximum work done?

Which of the following statement is not correct about diborane ?

The pH of the solution containing 50 mL each of 0.10 M sodium acetate and 0.01 M acetic acid is [Given pKₐ of CH₃COOH = 4.57]

Amongst the following which one will have maximum ‘lone pair-lone pair” electron repulsions?

What mass of 95% pure CaCO₃ will be required to neutralise 50 mL of 0.5 M HCl solution according to the following reaction? CaCO₃(s) + 2HCl(aq) → CaCl₂(aq) + CO₂(g) + H₂O(l) [Calculate upto second place of decimal point]

Gadolinium has a low value of third ionisation enthalpy because of

The given graph is a representation of kinetics of a reaction.

The y and x axes for zero and first order reactions, respectively are

Given below are half cell reactions:

MnO₄⁻ + 8H⁺ + 5e⁻ → Mn²⁺ + 4H₂O, E°_Mn²⁺ / mno₄⁻ = -1.510V (1/2)O₂ + 2H⁺ + 2e⁻ → H₂O

E°_o₂ / H₂O = +1.223V

Will the permanganate ion, MnO₄⁻ liberate O₂ from water in the presence of an acid ?

Match List-I with List-II.

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The acidic strength of monosubstituted nitrophenol is higher than phenol because of electron withdrawing nitro group.

Statement II: o-nitrophenol, m-nitrophenol and p-nitophenol will have same acidic strength as they have one nitro group attached to the phenolic ring.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

The pollution due to oxides of sulphur gets enhanced due to the presence of:

(A) particulate matter

(B) ozone

(C) hydrocarbons

(D) hydrogen peroxide Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is:

3O₂(g) ⇌ 2O₃(g) for the above reaction at 298 K, K_C is found to be 3.0  × 10⁻⁵⁹. If the concentration of O₂ at equilibrium is 0.040 M then concentration of O₃ in M is

Match List-I with List-II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In Lucas test, primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols are distinguished on the basis of their reactivity with cone. HCI + ZnCl₂, known as Lucas Reagent.

Statement II: Primary alcohols are most reactive and immediately produce turbidity at room temperature on reaction with Lucas Reagent.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

In the neutral or faintly alkaline medium, KMnO₄ oxidises iodide into iodate. The change in oxidation state of manganese in this reaction is from

For a first order reaction A → Products, initial concentration of A is 0.1 M, which becomes 0.001 M after 5 minutes. Rate constant for the reaction in min⁻¹ is

Compound X on reaction with O₃ followed by Zn/H₂O gives formaldehyde and 2-methyl propanal as products. The compound X is:

A 10.0 L flask contains 64 g of oxygen at 27°C. (Assume O₃ gas is behaving ideally). The pressure inside the flask in bar is (Given R =0.0831 L bar K⁻¹ mol⁻¹)

The order of energy absorbed which is responsible for the colour of complexes

(A) [Ni(H₂O)₂(en)₂]²⁺

(B) [Ni(H₂O)₄(en)]²⁺

(C) [Ni(en)₃]²⁺

Which one of the following is not formed when acetone reacts with 2-pentanone in the presence of dilute NaOH followed by heating?

Find the emf of the cell in which the following reaction takes place at 298 K. Ni(s) + 2Ag⁺(0.001M) → Ni²⁺(0.001 M) + 2Ag(s)

(Given that E°_cell = 10.5V, 2.303RT / F = 0.059 at 298 K)

If radius of second Bohr orbit of the He⁺ ion is 105.8 pm, what is the radius of third Bohr orbit of Li²⁺ ion?

Copper crystallises in fec unit cell with cell edge length of 3.608 × 10⁻⁸ cm. The density of copperis 8.92 g cm⁻³ Calculate the atomic mass of copper.

The product formed from the following reaction sequence is

Read the following statements about the vascular bundles:

(i) In roots, xylem and phloem in a vascular bundle are arranged in an altenate manner along the different radii.

(ii) Conjoint closed vascular bundles do not possess cambium

(iii) In open vascular bundles, cambium is present in between xylem and phloem

(iv) The vascular bundles of dicotyledonous stem possess endarch protoxylem

(v) In monocotyledonous root, usually there are more than six xylem bundles present Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Identify the correct set of statements:

(i) The leaflets are modified into pointed hard thorns in Citrus and Bougainvillea

(ii) Axillary buds form slender and spirally coiled tendrils in cucumber and pumpkin

(iii) Stem is flattened and fleshy in Opuntia and modified to perform the function of leaves

(iv) Rhizophora shows vertically upward growing roots that help to get oxygen for respiration

(v) . Subaerially growing stems in grasses and strawberry help in vegetative propagation Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Read the following statements and choose the set of correct statements:

(i) Euchromatin is loosely packed chromatin

(ii) Heterochromatin is transcriptionally active

(iii) Histone octomer is wrapped by negatively charged DNA in nucleosome

(iv) Histones are rich in lysine and arginine

(v) Atypical nucleosome contains 400 by of DNA helix

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Given below are two statements :

Statement I: The primary CO₂ acceptor in C₄ plants is phosphoenolpyruvate and is found in the mesophy!l cells.

Statement II: Mesophyll cells of C₄ plants lack RuBisCo enzyme.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Identify the incorrect statement related to Pollination:

Which one of the following statement is not true regarding get electrophoresis technique?

Habitat loss and fragmentation, over exploitation, alien species invasion and co-extinction are causes for:

Production of Cucumber has increased manifold in recent years. Application of which of the following phytohormones has resulted in this increased yield as the hormone is known to produce female flowers in the plants:

What is the net gain of ATP when each molecule of glucose is converted to two molecules of pyruvic acid ?

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Cleistogamous flowers are invariably autogamous

Statement II: Cleistogamy is disadvantageous as there is no chance for cross pollination.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Hydrocolloid carrageen is obtained from

"Girdling Experiment" was performed by Plant Physiologists to identify the plant tissue through which:

Which of the following is incorrectly matched?

DNA polymorphism forms the basis of:

Match List-I with List-II.

The process of translation of mRNA to proteins begins as soon as :

The device which can remove particulate matter present in the exhaust from a thermal power plant is:

The flowers are Zygomorphic in:
(i) Mustard (ii) Gulmohar
(iii) Cassia (iv) Datura
(v) Chilly
Choose correct answer from the options given below

Given below are two statements; one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Polymerase chain reaction is used in DNA amplification.
Reason (R): The ampicillin resistant gene is used as a selectable marker to check transformation.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Which one of the following statements cannot be connected to Predation?

Which one of the following never occurs during mitotic cell division?

Which of the following is not a method of ex situ conservation?

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Mendel studied seven pairs of contrasting traits in pea plants and proposed the Laws of Inheritance

Statement II: Seven characters examined by Mendel in his experiment on pea plants were seed shape and colour, flower colour, pod shape and colour, flower position and stem height

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Which one of the following plants does not show plasticity?

What amount of energy is released from glucose during lactic acid fermentation?

The gaseous plant growth regulator is used in plants to :

Which of the following is not observed during apoplastic pathway?

Which one of the following is not true regarding the release of energy during ATP synthesis through chemiosmosis? It involves :

Which one of the following plants shows vexillary aestivation and diadelphous stamens?

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Decomposition is a process in which the detritus is degraded into simpler substances by microbes.

Statement II: Decomposition is faster if the detritus is rich in lignin and chitin

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Which one of the following produces nitrogen fixing nodules on the root of Alnus?

Exoskeleton of arthropods is composed of:

XO type of sex determination can be found in:

In old trees the greater part of secondary xylem is dark brown and resistant to insect attack due to:
(i) secretion of secondary metabolites and their deposition in the lumen of vessels.
(ii) deposition of organic compounds like tannins and resins in the central layers of stem.
(iii) deposition of suberin and aromatic substances in the outer layer of stem.
(iv) deposition of tannins, gum, resin and aromatic substances in the peripheral layers of stem.
(v) presence of parenchyma cells, functionally active xylem elements and essential oils
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Match List-I with List-II

The entire fleet of buses in Delhi were converted to CNG from diesel. In reference to this, which one of the following statements is false?

Read the following statements on lipids and find out correct set of statements:
(i) Lecithin found in the plasma membrane is a glycolipid
(ii) Saturated fatty acids possess one or more C = C bonds
(iii) Gingely oil has lower melting point, hence remains as oil in winter
(iv) Lipids are generally insoluble in water but soluble in some organic solvents
(v) When fatty acid is esterified with glycerol, monoglycerides are formed

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

The anatomy of springwood shows some peculiar features.
Identify the correct set of statements about springwood.
(i) It is also called as the earlywood
(ii) In spring season cambium produces xylem elements with narrow vessels
(iii) It is lighter in colour
(iv) The springwood along with autumnwood shows alternate concentric rings forming annual rings
(v) It has lower density
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Transposons can be used during which one of the following?

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Mendel's law of independent assortment does not hold good for the genes that are located closely on the same chromosome.
Reason (R): Closely located genes assort independently.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

The following palindromic base sequences of DNA, which one can be cut easily by particular restriction enzyme?

Which one of the following will accelerate phosphorus cycle?

Match the plant with the kind of life cycle it exhibits:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

While explaining interspecific interaction of population, (+) sign is assigned for beneficial interaction, (−) sign is assigned for detrimental interaction and (0) for neutral interaction. Which of the following interactions can be assigned (+) for one species and (−) for another species involved in the interaction?

Addition of more solutes in a given solution will:

Which part of the fruit, labelled in the given figure makes it a false fruit?

Which of the following occurs due to the presence of autosome linked dominant trait?

If a geneticist uses the blind approach for sequencing the whole genome of an organism, followed by assignment of function to different segments, the methodology adopted by him is called as:

What is the role of large bundle shealth cells found around the vascular bundles in C₄ plants?

Nitrogenous waste is excreted in the form of pellet or paste by:

Select the incorrect statement with reference to mitosis:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Osteoporosis is characterised by decreased bone mass and increased chances of fractures.
Reason (R): Common cause of osteoporosis is increased levels of estrogen.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

Under normal physiological conditions in human being every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver ______ ml of O₂ to the tissues.

A dehydration reaction links two glucose molecules to produce maltose. If the formula for glucose is C₆H₁₂O₆, then what is the formula for maltose?

In which of the following animals digestive tract has additional chambers like crop and gizzard?

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The release of sperms into the seminiferous tubules is called spermiation.
Statement II: Spermiogenesis is the process of formation of sperms from spermatogonia.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

Natural selection where more individuals acquire specific character value other than the mean character value, leads to:

Which of the following statements with respect to Endoplasmic Reticulum is incorrect?

Which of the following is present between the adjacent bones of the vertebral column?

Which of the following functions is not performed by secretions from salivary glands?

In an E.coli strain i gene gets mutated and its product can not bind the inducer molecule. If growth medium is provided with lactose, what will be the outcome?

Identify the asexual reproductive structure associated with Penicillium:

If the length of a DNA molecule is 1.1 metres, what will be the approximate number of base pairs?

Which of the following is not a connective tissue?

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Restriction endonucleases recognise specific sequence to cut DNA known as palindromic nucleotide sequence.
Statement II: Restriction endonucleases cut the DNA strand a little away from the centre of the palindromic site.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

Detritivores breakdown detritus into smaller particles. This process is called:

Which of the following statements are true spermatogenesis but do not hold true Oogenesis?

(i) It results in the formation of haploid gametes

(ii) Differentiation of gamete occurs after the completion of meiosis

(iii) Meiosis occurs continuously in a mitotically dividing stem cell population

(iv) It is controlled by the Luteinising hormone (LH) and Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) secreted by the anterior pituitary

(v) It is initiated at puberty

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Fatty acids and glycerols cannot be absorbed into the blood.
Statement II: Specialized lymphatic capillaries called lacteals carry chylomicrons into lymphatic vessels and ultimately into the blood.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

If ‘8’ Drosophila in a laboratory population of ‘80’ died during a week, the death rate in the population is individuals per Drosophila per week.

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The coagulum is formed of network of threads called thrombins.
Statement II: Spleen is the graveyard of erythrocytes.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

Tegmina in cockroach, arises from:

In the taxonomic categories which hierarchial arrangement in ascending order is correct in case of animals?

Identify the microorganism which is responsible. for the production of an immunosuppressive molecule cyclosporin A:

Which of the following is not the function of conducting part of respiratory system?

Lippe’s loop is a type of contraceptive used as:

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates.Reason (R): Notochord is replaced by vertebral column
in the adult vertebrates.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

Given below are two statements :
Statement I: Mycoplasma can pass through less than 1 micron filter size.
Statement II: Mycoplasma are bacteria with cell wall.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

Regarding Meiosis, which of the statements is incorrect?

In-situ conservation refers to:

At which stage of life the oogenesis process is initiated?

Which of the following is a correct match for disease and its symptoms?

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Autoimmune disorder is a condition where body defense mechanism recognizes its own cells as foreign bodies.
Statement II: Rheumatoid arthritis is a condition where body does not attack self cells.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

In gene therapy of Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) deficiency, the patient requires periodic infusion of genetically engineered lymphocytes because:

Breeding crops with higher levels of vitamins and minerals or higher proteins and healthier fats is called:

Which one of the following statements is correct?

Select the incorrect statement regarding synapses:

Select the incorrect statement with respect to acquired immunity.

Match List-I with List-II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Match List-I with List-II with respect to methods of Contraception and their respective actions.

Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:

Ten E.coli cells with ‘5N - dsDNA are incubated in medium containing “N nucleotide. After 60 minutes, how many E.coli cells will have DNA totally free from ‘5N?

The recombination frequency between the genes a & c is 5%, b & c is 15%, b & d is 9%, a & b is 20%, c & d is 24% and a & d is 29%. What will be the sequence of these genes on a linear chromosome?

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: In a scrubber the exhaust from the thermal plant is passed through the electric wires to charge the dust particles.
Statement II: Particulate matter (PM 2.5) can not be removed by scrubber but can be removed by an electrostatic precipitator.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

Statements related to human Insulin are given below.

Which statement(s) is/are correct about genetically engineered Insulin?

(i) Pro-hormone insulin contain extra stretch of C-peptide

(ii) A-peptide and B-peptide chains of insulin were produced separately in E.coli, extracted and combined by creating disulphide bond between them.

(iii) Insulin used for treating Diabetes was extracted from Cattles and Pigs.

(iv) Pro-hormone Insulin needs to be processed for converting into a mature and functional hormone.

(v) Some patients develop allergic reactions to the foreign insulin.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

Which of the following statements is not true?

Which of the following is not a desirable feature of a cloning vector?

Which of the following is a correct statement?

Match List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Which of the following are not the effects of Parathyroid

hormone?

(i) Stimulates the process of bone resorption

(ii) Decreases Ca²⁺ level in blood

(iii) Reabsorption of Ca²⁺ by renal tubules

(iv) Decreases the absorption of Ca²⁺ from digested food

(v) Increases metabolism of carbohydrates

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options

given below:

If a colour blind female marries a man whose mother was

also colour blind, what are the chances of her progeny

having colour blindness?

A nucleus of mass number 189 splits into two nuclei having mass number 125 and 64. The ratio of radius of two daughter nuclei respectively is: