CBSE EXAMINATION PAPER-2023
NEET-ZOOLOGY
(Solved)
General Instructions :
Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :
- This question paper contains 200 questions. All questions are compulsory.
- This question paper is divided into 1 sections.
- Section A – questions number 1 to 200 are multiple choice questions
- There is no overall choice given in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions.
- Use of calculator is NOT allowed.
Section A
The minimum wavelength of X-rays produced by an electron accelerated through a potential difference of V volts is proportional to
Since, eV = hc / λ_min => λ_min = hc / eV ∴ λ_min ∝ 1 / V NOTES: X ray photo of maximum energy is emitted when an electron loses its whole energy during a single collision with the atom
A Carnot engine has an efficiency of 50% when its source is at a temperature 327°C. The temperature of the sink is
Given, efficiency η = 50 / 100 = 1 / 2 Source temperature, T₁ = 327 + 273 = 600 K Efficiency of Carnot engine η = 1 - T₂ / T₁ => η = 1 - T₂ / 600 => 1 / 2 = 1 - T₂ / 600 T₂ / 600 = 1 / 2 => T₂ = 300 K ∴ Sink temperature, T₂ = 300 - 273 = 27°C
A bullet is fired from a gun at the speed of 280 m s⁻¹ in the direction 30° above the horizontal. The maximum height attained by the bullet is (g = 9.8 m s⁻², sin30° = 0.5)
Maximum height, H = u² sin² θ / 2g H = (280)² × (sin² 30) / (2 × 9.8) = 280 × 280 × 0.5 × 0.5 / (2 × 9.8) ∴ H = 1000 m
In a series LCR circuit, the inductance L is 10 mH, capacitance C is 1 µF and resistance R is 100 Ω. The frequency at which resonance occurs is
For resonance frequency f = 1 / (2π √(LC)) => f = 1 / (2 × π × √(10 × 10⁻³ × 1 × 10⁻⁶)) = 10⁴ / 2π = 10⁴ / (2 × 22/7) = 1.591 × 10³ ∴ f = 1.591 kHz
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Photovoltaic devices can convert optical radiation into electricity.
Statement II: Zener diode is designed to operate under reverse bias in breakdown region.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
Statement I : Photovoltaic devices convert optical radiation into electricity. II : Zener diode is designed to operate under reverse bias in breakdown region. NOTES: Zener diodes are not damaged by high reverse current.
Light travels a distance x in time t₁ in air and 10x in time t₂ in another denser medium. What is the critical angle for this medium?
µ₂ sin i_c = µ₁ => sin i_c = µ₁ / µ₂ µ = c / V ∴ sin i_c = µ₁ / µ₂ = V₂ / V₁ sin i_c = (10x / t₂) / (x / t₁) ∴ i_c = sin⁻¹(10t₁ / t₂)
In hydrogen spectrum, the shortest wavelength in the Balmer series is λ. The shortest wavelength in the Bracket series is
Using 1 / λ = R [ 1 / n₂² - 1 / n₁² ] For Balmer series, [n₂ = 2, n₁ = ∞] 1 / λ = R [ 1 / 4 - 1 / ∞ ] => λ = 4 / R ... (i) And for bracket series, (n₂ = 4, n₁ = ∞) 1 / λ' = R [ 1 / 16 - 1 / ∞ ] => λ' = 16 / R ... (ii) Dividing eq (i) by (ii)
λ / λ' = (4 / R) / (16 / R) ∴ λ' = 4λ
If the galvanometer G does not show any deflection in the circuit shown, the value of R is given by
Since galvanometer does not show any deflection ∴ i_g = 0 From the circuit diagram, (10 - 2) / 400 = 2 / R ∴ R = (2 × 400) / 8 = 100 Ω
The amount of energy required to form a soap bubble of radius 2 cm from a soap solution is nearly (surface tension of soap solution = 0.03 N m⁻¹)
Amount of energy required to form a soap bubble = [S × ΔA] × 2 = [0.03 × 4 × π × 4 × 10⁻⁴] × 2 = 3.015 × 10⁻⁴ J
The magnetic energy stored in an inductor of inductance 4 µH carrying a current of 2 A is
Magnetic energy stored in an inductor U = 1/2 L i² = 1/2 × 4 × 10⁻⁶ × (2)² = 8 × 10⁻⁶ J = 8 µJ
A 12 V, 60 W lamp is connected to the secondary of a step-down transformer, whose primary is connected to ac mains of 220 V. Assuming the transformer to be ideal, what is the current in the primary winding?
As transfer to be ideal and for ideal transformer P_input = P_output ∴ (V I)_in = 60 => 220 × I = 60 ∴ I = 0.27 A
An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30° with an electric field of intensity 2 × 10⁵ N C⁻¹. It experiences a torque equal to 4 N m. Calculate the magnitude of charge on the dipole, if the dipole length is 2 cm.
Given E = 2 × 10⁵ N/C, l = 2 cm and τ = 4 Nm̅ τ̅ = p̅ × E̅ = p E sin θ
4 = p × 2 × 10⁵ × sin 30° => p = 4 × 10⁻⁵ c m ∴ Charge on the dipole, q = p / l = (4 × 10⁻⁵) / 0.02 = 2 mC
A vehicle travels half the distance with speed v and the remaining distance with speed 2v. Its average speed is
Average speed, v_avg = 2 v₁ v₂ / (v₁ + v₂) = (2 × v × 2v) / (v + 2v) = 4v / 3
Let a wire be suspended from the ceiling (rigid support) and stretched by a weight W attached at its free end. The longitudinal stress at any point of cross-sectional area A of the wire is
Longitudinal stress = Internal restoring force / Area = F_ext / Area ∴ Stress = W / A
If ∮_s E . dS = 0 over a surface, then
Since, ϕ_net = ∮_s E . dS = 0 i.e., Net flux through surface is zero, so number of flux lines entering the surface must be equal to the number of flux lines leaving it. NOTES: In the expression ∮_s E . dS = 0 the electric field is the sum of electric field due to charge within the surface and due to charge outside the surface.
The work functions of Caesium (Cs), Potassium (K) and Sodium (Na) are 2.14 eV, 2.30 eV and 2.75 eV respectively. If incident electromagnetic radiation has an incident energy of 2.20 eV, which of these photosensitive surfaces may emit photoelectrons?
Energy of incident radiation = 2.20 eV Work function of Cs, ϕ_Cs = 2.14 eV and ϕ_K = 2.30 eV ϕ_Na = 2.75 eV Since the work function of caesium, ϕ_Cs < ϕ_incident. Hence photons may be emitted from caesium.
The temperature of a gas is -50°C. To what temperature the gas should be heated so that the rms speed is increased by 3 times?
RMS speed, v_rms = √(3RT / m) => v_rms ∝ √T v_rms is increased by 3 times, So, final rms speed = v + 3v = 4v T₁ = 273 - 50 = 223 K and T₂ = ? v₁ / v₂ = √(T₁ / T₂) => v / 4v = √(223 / T₂) => 1 / 16 = 223 / T₂ ∴ T₂ = 3568 K or, T₂ = 3568 - 273 = 3295°C
The ratio of frequencies of fundamental harmonic produced by an open pipe to that of closed pipe having the same length is
Fundamental harmonic produced by open pipe, f_open pipe = v / 2l And by closed pipe, f_closed pipe = v / 4l ∴ f_o / f_c = (v / 2l) × (4l / v) = 2 / 1 ∴ f_o : f_c = 2 : 1
For Young's double slit experiment, two statements are given below:
Statement I : If screen is moved away from the plane of slits, angular separation of the fringes remains constant.
Statement II : If the monochromatic source is replaced by another monochromatic source of larger wavelength, the angular separation of fringes decreases.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
For Young's double slit experiment, angular fringe width α = λ / d It does not depend on the distance of screen from the slit, so statement I is correct. Angular fringe width ∝ λ So if λ increases, angular separation of fringes increases. Therefore, statement I is true and statement II is false.
The equivalent capacitance of the system shown in the following circuit is
For parallel grouping, C_eq = C₁ + C₂ + ..... C_n C₁ = 3 + 3 = 6 µF For series grouping, 1 / C_eq = 1 / C₁ + 1 / C₂ + ..... 1 / C_n C_eq = C₁C₂ / (C₁ + C₂) = 3 × 6 / (3 + 6) = 18 / 9 = 2 µF
Two bodies of mass m and 9m are placed at a distance R. The gravitational potential on the line joining the bodies where the gravitational field equals zero, will be (G = gravitational constant)
Let gravitational field at point Q be zero ∴ Gm / x² = G(9m) / (R - x)² (R - x)² / x² = 9 => x = R / 4 V_Q = -Gm / x - G(9m) / (R - x) V_Q = -Gm / (R / 4) - G(9m) / (3R / 4) = -4Gm / R - 12Gm / R = -16Gm / R
The venturi-meter works on
Venturi-meter works on the Bernoulli's principle.
The half life of a radioactive substance is 20 minutes. In how much time, the activity of substance drops to (1/16)ᵗʰ of its initial value?
N = N₀ / 2ⁿ => N / N₀= 1 / 2ⁿ => 1 / 16 = 1 / 2ⁿ => 1 / 2⁴ = 1 / 2ⁿ ∴ n = 4 n = t / T₁∴ t = 4 × T₁/₂ = 4 × 20 = 80 minutes
A football player is moving southward and suddenly turns eastward with the same speed to avoid an opponent. The force that acts on the player while turning is
Change in momentum, ΔP vector = vector P_f - vector P_î
vector P_f = m uî
vector P_î = m u (-ĵ) ΔP = m uî - m u (-ĵ) ΔP = m u (î + ĵ)
vector F = ΔP vector / Δt
Direction of change of momentum and direction of force acting on the player will be same i.e., along north-east.
The errors in the measurement which arise due to unpredictable fluctuations in temperature and voltage supply are
NOTES: Random errors is also called chance error. It occurs due to parameter which are beyond the control of experimenter.
The angular acceleration of a body, moving along the circumference of a circle, is
Using the Right hand screw rule, angular acceleration of a body, moving along the circumference of a circle is along the axis of rotation.
A full wave rectifier circuit consists of two p-n junction diodes, a centre-tapped transformer, capacitor and a load resistance. Which of these components remove the ac ripple from the rectified output?
Capacitor is used to remove the ac ripple from the rectified output.
The magnitude and direction of the current in the following circuit is
Net resistance of the circuit, R_eq = 2 Ω + 1 Ω + 7 Ω = 10 Ω Net Voltage, V_net = 10 - 5 = 5 V i = V_net / R_eq = 5 / 10 = 0.5 A
An ac source is connected to a capacitor C. Due to decrease in its operating frequency
Capacitive reactance X_C = 1 / ωC = 1 / 2πνC Since ν decreasing, X_C will increase ∴ Current, I = E₀ / X_C will decrease As conduction current = displacement current Therefore displacement current will decrease.
The net magnetic flux through any closed surface is
For closed loops Magnetic flux = ∮ vector B . ds vector = zero Magnetic monopole doesn't exist. Hence net magnetic flux through any closed surface is zero.
In a plane electromagnetic wave travelling in free space, the electric field component oscillates sinusoidally at a frequency of 2.0 x 10¹⁰ Hz and amplitude 48 Vm⁻¹. Then the amplitude of oscillating magnetic field is (Speed of light in free space = 3 x 10⁸ m s⁻¹)
Given, Amplitude of oscillating electric field component, E₀ = 48 Vm⁻¹ Using, c = E₀ / B₀ Here, B₀ = Amplitude of oscillating magnetic field ∴ B₀ = 48 / (3 × 10⁸) = 16 × 10⁻⁸ = 1.6 × 10⁻⁷ T
The potential energy of a long spring when stretched by 2 cm is U. If the spring is stretched by 8 cm, potential energy stored in it will be
Potential energy stored in spring (U) is given by U = 1/2 Kx² Initially U_i = 1/2 K(2)² where x = 2 cm => U_i = 1/2 (K) . (4) = 2 K ... (i) Finally, U_f = 1/2 K(8)² = 1/2 K × 64 = 32 K ... (ii) On dividing (i) by (ii) U_i / U_f = 2K / 32K = 1 / 16 => U_f = 16 U_i
A bullet from a gun is fired on a rectangular wooden block with velocity u. When bullet travels 24 cm through the block along its length horizontally, velocity of bullet becomes u / 3. Then it further penetrates into the block in the same direction before coming to rest exactly at the other end of the block. The total length of the block is
Using third equation of motion between I and II v² - u² = 2as => (u / 3)² = u² - 2a × 24 => 2a(24) = 8u² / 9 ... (i) Using third equation of motion again between II and III
0 = (u / 3)² - 2as => u² / 9 = 2as ... (ii) From equation (i) and (ii) 2a × 24 = 8(2as) => s = 3 cm
Length of wooden block = 24 + 3 = 27 cm
The radius of inner most orbit of hydrogen atom is 5.3 × 10⁻¹¹ m. What is the radius of third allowed orbit of hydrogen atom?
Given, Radius of inner most orbit of hydrogen atom, r₁ = 5.3 × 10⁻¹¹ m Radius of nᵗʰ orbit r_n = n² / Z => r_n ∝ n² ∴ r₁ / r₂ = (n₁ / n₂)² => r₁ / r₂ = (1 / 3)² => r₂ = 9r₁ = 5.3 × 10⁻¹¹ × 9 = 47.7 × 10⁻¹¹ = 4.77 Å
The net impedance of circuit (as shown in figure) will be
Inductance, L = 50 / π mH Resistance, R = 10 Ω Capacitance, C = 10³ / π × 10⁻⁶ Inductive reactance, X_L = ωL = 2πfL = 2π × 50 × (50 / π) × 10⁻³ = 5 Ω Capacitive reactance, X_C = 1 / ωC = 1 / 2πfC = (1 × π) / (2π × 50 × 10³ × 10⁻⁶) = 10³ / 100 = 10 Ω Impedance Z = √((X_C - X_L)² + R²) = √((10 - 5)² + 10²) => Z = √125 = 5√5 Ω
The x-t graph of a particle performing simple harmonic motion is shown in the figure. The acceleration of the particle at t = 2 s is
Position of particle as function of time x = A sin ωt
From figure, at t = 2 s x = 1 Time period, T = 8 s ω = 2π / T = 2π / 8 = π / 4 a = -ω²x = -(π / 4)² × 1 => a = -π² / 16 m/s⁻²
NOTES: In SHM, we cannot apply equation of translatory motion as acceleration is not (a = ω²x) constant.
In the figure shown here, what is the equivalent focal length of the combination of lenses (Assume that all layers are thin)?
From the lens maker's formula 1 / f = (µ - 1)(1 / R₁ - 1 / R₂) ∴ 1 / f₁ = (1.6 - 1)(1 / ∞ - 1 / 20) = -0.6 / 20 = -3 / 100 ∴ 1 / f₂ = (1.5 - 1)(1 / 20 - 1 / -20) = 0.5 / 10 = 1 / 20 ∴ 1 / f₃ = (1.6 - 1)(1 / -20 - 1 / ∞) = -0.6 / 10 = -3 / 100 Effective focal length (f_eff) is 1 / f_eff = 1 / f₁ + 1 / f₂ + 1 / f₃ => 1 / f_eff = -3 / 100 + 1 / 20 - 3 / 100 => 1 / f_eff = -1 / 100 => f_eff = -100 cm
An electric dipole is placed as shown in the figure. The electric potential (in 10² V) at point P due to the dipole is (ε₀ = permittivity of free space and 1 / (4π ε₀) = K)
Electrostatic potential due to a point charge is given by V = Kq / r ∴ V_net = Kq / (2 × 10⁻²) - Kq / (8 × 10⁻²) => V_net = (Kq × 10²) / 2 (1 - 1 / 4) = (3/8 Kq) × 10² V = 3/8 qK
Calculate the maximum acceleration of a moving car so that a body lying on the floor of the car remains stationary. The coefficient of static friction between the body and the floor is 0.15 (g = 10 m s⁻²).
As the body remains stationary, ∴ ma_max = µ_s mg ⇒ a_max = µ_s g = 0.15 × 10 = 1.5 m/s²
10 resistors, each of resistance R are connected in series to a battery of emf E and negligible internal resistance. Then those are connected in parallel to the same battery, the current is increased n times. The value of n is
For series combination, Equivalent resistance, R_eq = 10R Current i₁ = E / 10R For parallel combination, Equivalent resistance, R_eq = R / 10 ∴ i₂ = E / (R / 10) = 10E / R ∴ i₂ / i₁ = (10E / R) × (R / E) = 100 => i₂ = 100i₁ According to question, i₂ = ni₁ ∴ n = 100
For the following logic circuit, the truth table is
A very long conducting wire is bent in a semi-circular shape from A to B as shown in figure. The magnetic field at point P for steady current configuration is given by
Magnetic field due to wire I = µ₀i / 4πR
Magnetic field due to wire III = µ₀i / 4πR
Magnetic field due to semiconductor arc II = µ₀i / 4R
Magnetic field due to wire I and III = -µ₀i / 4πR (into page) + µ₀i / 4πR (into page) = µ₀i / 2πR (into page)
B_total = B_arc - B_wires = µ₀i / 4R - µ₀i / 2πR = µ₀i / 4R [ 1 - 2/π ] Pointed away from page.
The resistance of platinum wire at 0°C is 2 Ω and 6.8 Ω at 80°C. The temperature coefficient of resistance of the wire is
Given, Resistance at 0°C, R₀ = 2 Ω Resistance at 80°C, R = 6.8 Ω Using R = R₀(1 + αΔT) where α is the temperature coefficient of resistance ∴ 6.8 = 2{1 + α(80 - 0)} => 6.8 / 2 - 1 = α × 80 => α = (3.4 - 1) / 80 = 2.4 / 80 = 0.03 ∴ α = 3 × 10⁻² °C⁻¹
A wire carrying a current I along the positive x-axis has length L. It is kept in a magnetic field B = (2î+3ĵ-4k̂ ) T. The magnitude of the magnetic force acting on the wire is
Given, Magnetic Field, B = (2î+3ĵ-4k̂) T Magnetic force acting on a current carrying wire is F = Il vector × B vector = I L Î × (2î+3ĵ-4k̂) = 3IL k̂+ 4IL ĵ Magnitude of force, |F| = √((3IL)² + (4IL)²) = 5IL
Two thin lenses are of same focal lengths (f), but one is convex and the other one is concave. When they are placed in contact with each other, the equivalent focal length of the combination will be
We know that For convex lens f₁ > 0, concave lens f₂ < 0 1 / f_net = 1 / f₁ + 1 / f₂ = 1 / f - 1 / f = 0 => f_net = Infinite NOTES: If two thin lenses of same focal length but having opposite nature are placed in contact then combination will behave like a plane glass plate.
Select the correct statements from the following
A. Atoms of all elements are composed of two fundamental particles.
B. The mass of the electron is 9.10939 × 10⁻³¹ kg.
C. All the isotopes of a given element show same chemical properties.
D. Protons and electrons are collectively known as nucleons.
E. Dalton's atomic theory, regarded the atom as an ultimate particle of matter. Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(A) Atoms consist of three fundamental particles : Electrons, protons and neutrons
(D) Protons and neutrons present in the nucleus are collectively called as nucleons. So, the correct statements are B, C, E only.
Given below are two statements :
: Assertion A : A reaction can have zero activation energy.
Reason R : The minimum extra amount of energy absorbed by reactant molecules so that their energy becomes equal to threshold value, is called activation energy. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Activation energy is defined as the minimum amount of extra energy absorbed by reactant molecules to achieve threshold energy. Zero activation energy means the reactant molecules have the sufficient energy to form product.
NOTES: According to Arrhenius equation k = A e^(-Eₐ / RT) Zero activation energy means Eₐ = 0 => k = A e⁰ => k = A, where A is the frequency factor. It simply implies that all collisions lead to successful collisions and should results in the formation of product which is practically not possible.
A compound is formed by two elements A and B. The element B forms cubic close packed structure and atoms of A occupy 1/3 of tetrahedral voids. If the formula of the compound is A_x B_y, then the value of x + y is in option
Let the number of atoms of element B = N So, the number of atoms of element A = 1/3 × 2 N ∴ The formula of the compound is A₂/₃ _N B_N = A₂B₃ So, x = 2, y = 3, x + y = 5
Given below are two statements :
Assertion A : Metallic sodium dissolves in liquid ammonia giving a deep blue solution, which is paramagnetic.
Reason R : The deep blue solution is due to the formation of amide. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
On dissolving alkali metal (sodium) in liquid ammonia, a deep blue solution is developed due to ammoniated electron which absorbs energy in visible region of light and imparts blue colour. Due to the presence of unpaired electrons, solution is paramagnetic.
M + (x + y)NH₃ ——> [M(NH₃)ₓ]⁺ + [e(NH₃)_y]⁻
Amongst the following the total number of species NOT having eight electrons around central atom in its outermost shell, is NH₃, AlCl₃, BeCl₂, CCl₄, PCl₅ :
Which amongst the following molecules on polymerization produces neoprene?
Neoprene is formed by free radical polymerisation of chloroprene.
In Lassaigne's extract of an organic compound, both nitrogen and sulphur are present, which gives blood red colour with Fe³⁺ due to the formation of
In case, nitrogen and sulphur both are present in organic compound, sodium thiocyanate is formed. It gives blood red colour and no Prussian blue since there are no free cyanide ions. Na + C + N + S ———> NaSCN Fe³⁺ + SCN⁻ ———> [Fe(SCN)]²⁺ (Blood red)
NOTES:
If sodium fusion is carried out with excess of sodium, the thiocyanate decomposes to yield cyanide and sulphide. These ions now give their usual tests. NaSCN + 2Na ———> NaCN + Na₂S
Weight (g) of two moles of the organic compound, which is obtained by heating sodium ethanoate with sodium hydroxide in presence of calcium oxide is :
This reaction is called soda lime decarboxylation
Molar mass of CH₄ = 16 g/mol
Weight of 2 moles of CH₄ = 16 × 2 = 32 g
NOTES: Decarboxylation with soda lime produces alkane containing one carbon less than the carboxylic acid.
The conductivity of centimolar solution of KCl at 25°C is 0.0210 ohm⁻¹ cm⁻¹ and the resistance of the cell containing the solution at 25°C is 60 ohm. The value of cell constant is
Conductivity = conductance × cell constant k = 1/R × l/A l/A = k × R = 0.0210 × 60 = 1.26 cm⁻¹
Complete the following reaction
Homoleptic complex from the following complexes is
complexes in which a metal is bound to only one kind of donor groups are called as homoleptic complexes. Potassium trioxalatoaluminate (III). It is a homoleptic complex.
The relation between n_m, (n_m = the number of permissible values of magnetic quantum number (m)) for a given value of azimuthal quantum number (l), is
n_m = 2l + 1 => l = (n_m - 1) / 2
The stability of Cu²⁺ is more than Cu⁺ salts in aqueous solution due to
The stability of Cu²⁺ (aq) is more than Cu⁺ (aq) is due to the much more negative Δ_hydH° of Cu²⁺ (aq) than Cu⁺ (aq), which more than compensates for second ionisation enthalpy of Cu. Δ_hyd H° of Cu²⁺ (aq) = -2121 kJ mol⁻¹, Δᵢ H°₁ of Cu = +745 kJ mol⁻¹, Δᵢ H°₂ of Cu = +1960 kJ mol⁻¹
Taking stability as the factor, which one of the following represents correct relationship?
As we move down the group, due to poor shielding effect of intervening d and f orbitals, the increased effective nuclear charge holds ns electrons tightly and therefore restricting their participation in bonding. This effect is known as inert pair effect. So, the relative stability of +1 O.S increases for heavier elements. Hence, TlI is more stable than TlI₃. NOTES: Boron and Aluminium do not show the inert pair effect. The inert pair effect is only shown by the elements which have d and f orbitals influencing their outermost s-orbital electrons by having poor shielding.
Which one is an example of heterogenous catalysis?
Combination of N₂ and H₂ to form NH₃ in presence of finely divided Fe is an example of heterogeneous catalysis.
The number of σ bonds, π bonds and lone pair of electrons in pyridine, respectively are:
No. of σ bonds = 11, No. of π bonds = 3, No. of lone pair of e⁻ = 1
The correct order of energies of molecular orbitals of N₂ molecule, is
For molecules like B₂, C₂, N₂ etc. the increasing order of energies of various molecular orbitals is σ1s < σ*1s < σ2s < σ*2s < (π2p_x = π2p_y) < σ2p_z < (π*2p_x = π*2p_y) < σ*2p_z
Given below are two statements :
Assertion A : Helium is used to dilute oxygen in diving apparatus.
Reason R : Helium has high solubility in O₂. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Helium is used as diluent for oxygen in modern diving apparatus because of its very low solubility in blood.
NOTES: The solubility of he is less than that of nitrogen and it diffuses more rapidly, the elimination of inert gas from blood and tissues would be more rapid if Helium was substituted for nitrogen.
For a certain reaction, the rate = k[A]²[B], when the initial concentration of A is tripled keeping concentration of B constant, the initial rate would
Rate = k[A]²[B] When concentration of A is tripled, [A'] = [3A] New rate, r' = k[A']²[B] = k[3A]²[B] = 9k[A]²[B] => r' = 9r, increases by factor of nine.
Identify product (A) in the following reaction:
This reaction is Clemmensen reduction
Amongst the given options which of the following molecules/ ion acts as a Lewis acid?
Lewis acids are the one which accepts lone pair of electron due to presence of vacant orbital in outermost shell.
The element expected to form largest ion to achieve the nearest noble gas configuration is
For isoelectronic species, as the charge on anion increases, ionic size increases O ——> O²⁻, F ——> F⁻, N ——> N³⁻, Na ——> Na⁺ Ionic size order : N³⁻ > O²⁻ > F⁻ > Na⁺ So, N forms N³⁻ anion with largest ionic size.
The given compound is an example of ________.
Allylic halides are the compound where halogen atom attached to sp³ hybridised carbon atom next to double bond.
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : A unit formed by the attachment of a base to 1' position of sugar is known as nucleoside. Statement II : When nucleoside is linked to phosphorous acid at 5'–position of sugar moiety, we get nucleotide.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A unit formed by the attachment of a base to 1' position of sugar is known as nucleoside. In nucleosides, the sugar carbons are numbered as 1', 2', 3', etc. in order to distinguish these from the bases (Fig. (a)). When nucleoside is linked to phosphoric acid at 5' -position of sugar moiety, we get a nucleotide (Fig. (b)).
Intermolecular forces are forces of attraction and repulsion between interacting particles that will include :
A. dipole – dipole forces
B. dipole - induced dipole forces
C. hydrogen bonding
D. covalent bonding
E. dispersion forces
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Intermolecular forces are the forces of attraction and repulsion between interacting molecules. This term does not include covalent s covalent bond holds atoms of a molecule together. Hence, dipole - dipole forces, dipole - induced dipole forces, hydrogen bonding and dispersion forces are intermolecular forces.
Which of the following statements are NOT correct?
A. Hydrogen is used to reduce heavy metal oxides to metals.
B. Heavy water is used to study reaction mechanism.
C. Hydrogen is used to make saturated fats from oils
D. The H–H bond dissociation enthalpy is lowest as compared to a single bond between two atoms of any elements.
E. Hydrogen reduces oxides of metals that are more active than iron.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Statement A, B, C are incorrect.
(D) H - H bond dissociation energy is maximum as compared to single bond between two atom of any element.
(E) Hydrogen reduces oxides of metal that are less active than iron.
Match List-I with List-II.
A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II
The right option for the mass of CO₂ produced by heating 20 g of 20% pure limestone is (Atomic mass of Ca = 40)
CaCO₃ ———1200 K———> CaO + CO₂
1 mol ——> 1 mol
100 g ——> 44 g
As CaCO₃ is 20% pure, So, mass of pure CaCO₃ = 20 × 20 / 100 = 4 g
So, 100 g CaCO₃ produces 44 g CO₂
∴ 4 g CaCO₃ produces 44 / 100 × 4 g CO₂ = 1.76 g CO₂
Identify the product in the following reaction:
Given below are two statements:
Assertion A : In equation Δ_rG = -nFE_cell, value of ΔᵣG depends on n
Reasons R : E_cell is an intensive property and ΔᵣG is an extensive property. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
The value of ΔᵣG depends on n value as per the equation ΔᵣG = -nFE_cell So, assertion statement is correct E_cell is an intensive property while ΔᵣG is an extensive thermodynamic property So, reason is correct but not explaining the assertion.
Consider the following reaction and identify the product (P).
Consider the following compounds/species: The number of compounds/species which obey Huckel’s rule is ____.
Criteria for Huckel's rule: Planarity Complete delocalisation of electrons Presence of (4n + 2)n electrons in ring where π is an integer (=0, 1,2, ..) The compounds which follow Huckel's rule are option (i), (ii), (iv), (vii).
Identify the major product obtained in the following reaction:
Ammoniacal silver nitrate solution is Tollens’ reagent. Aldehyde upon warming with Tollens’ reagent produces a silver mirror due to formation of silver metal in alkaline medium. Aldehyde is oxidised to corresponding carboxylate anion.
Which of the following statements are INCORRECT?
A. All the transition metals except scandium form MO oxides which are ionic.
B. The highest oxidation number corresponding to the group number in transition metal oxides is attained in Sc₂O₃ to Mn₂O₇.
C. Basic character increases from V₂O₃ to V₂O₄ to V₂O₅.
D. V₂O₄ dissolves in acids to give VO²⁺ salts.
E. CrO is basic but Cr₂O₃ is amphoteric.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(C) Basic character decreases from V₂O₃ to V₂O₄ to V₂O₅. (D) V₂O₄ dissolves in acids to give VO²⁺.
Which amongst the following will be most readily dehydrated under acidic conditions?
In other options carbocation formed destabilised by -I effect of -NO₂ group.
Consider the following reaction : Identify products A and B.
The bond between O - CH₂ - is weaker than the bond between O - C₆H₅ because the carbon of phenyl group is sp² hybridised and there is a partial double bond character. Therefore I⁻ ion breaks O - CH₂ - bond.
The reaction that does NOT take place in a blast furnace between 900 K to 1500 K temperature range during extraction of iron is :
At 900-1500 K (higher temperature range in the blast furnace) Reaction which take place are:
C + CO₂ ——> 2CO
FeO + CO ——> Fe + CO₂
CaO + SiO₂ ——> CaSiO₃ (Slag formation)
Fe₂O₃ + CO ——> 2FeO + CO₂ at 500-800 K.
Which amongst the following options is the correct relation between change in enthalpy and change in internal energy?
Correct relation between change in enthalpy and change in internal energy is ΔH = ΔU + Δn_g RT
On balancing the given redox reaction,
aCr₂O₇²⁻ + bSO₃²⁻(aq) + cH⁺(aq) ——> 2aCr³⁺(aq) + bSO₄²⁻(aq) + c/2 H₂O(l)
the coefficients a, b and c are found to be, respectively–
Using Ion electron method: Reduction Half reaction: Cr₂O₇²⁻ + 6e⁻ ——> 2Cr³⁺ Oxidation
Half reaction:
SO₃²⁻ ——> SO₄²⁻ + 2e⁻ × 3
Overall reaction: Cr₂O₇²⁻ + 3SO₃²⁻ ——> 2Cr³⁺ + 3SO₄²⁻
To balance 'H' atoms, adding H₂O on LHS Cr₂O₇²⁻ + 3SO₃²⁻ ——> 2Cr³⁺ + 3SO₄²⁻ + 4H₂O
To balance 'H' atoms, adding H⁺ on RHS
Cr₂O₇²⁻ + 3SO₃²⁻ + 8H⁺ ——> 2Cr³⁺ + 3SO₄²⁻ + 4H₂O
∴ a = 1, b = 3, c = 8
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : The nutrient deficient water bodies lead to eutrophication
Statement II : Eutrophication leads to decrease in the level of oxygen in the water bodies. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Nutrient enriched water bodies support a dense plant population, which kills animal life by depriving it of oxygen and results in subsequent loss of biodiversity. This process is called as eutrophication. ∴ Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
The equilibrium concentrations of the species in the reaction A + B ⇌ C + D are 2, 3, 10 and 6 mol L⁻¹, respectively at 300 K. ΔG° for the reaction is (R = 2 cal/mol K)
A + B ⇌ C + D k_eq = [C] [D] / [A] [B] k_eq = (10 × 6) / (2 × 3) = 10 ΔG° = -RT ln k_eq = -2.303 RT log k_eq = -2.303 × 2 × 300 × log 10 = -1381.8 cal
Which complex compound is most stable?
Chelating ligands in general form more stable complexes ∴ The most stable complex is [CoCl₂(en)₂]NO₃
Match List-I with List-II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Identify the final product [D] obtained in the following sequence of reactions.
Given below are two statements :
Statement I: The forces generated transpiration can lift a xylem-sized column of water over 130 meters height.
Statement II : Transpiration cools leaf surfaces sometimes 10 to 15 degrees evaporative cooling. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Both the statements are correct because transpiration cools leaf surfaces, sometimes 10 to 15 degrees, by evaporative cooling and forces generated by transpiration can create pressures sufficient to lift a xylem sized column of water up to 130 meters high.
In gene gun method used to introduce alien DNA into host cells, microparticles of _____ metal are used.
In this method of making competent cells, suitable for plants, cells are bombarded with high velocity micro-particles of gold or tungsten coated with DNA in a method known as biolistics or gene gun.
Given below are two statements :
Assertion A : The first stage of gametophyte in the life cycle of moss is protonema stage.
Reason R : Protonema develops directly from spores produced in capsule. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from options given below:
Both the assertion and reason is correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion. The predominant stage of life cycle of moss is gametophyte which consist of 2 stages. The first stage is protonema that directly develops from spore.
Unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic material was first proposed by
The unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic material came from the experiments of Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase (1952). They worked with viruses that infect bacteria called bacteriophages. The bacteriophages attaches to the bacteria and its genetic material then enter the bacterial cell.
In tissue culture experiments, leaf mesophyll cells are put in a culture medium to form callus. This phenomenon may be called as
Dedifferentiation is a phenomenon by which the living differentiated plant cells, that by now have lost the capacity to divide canregain the capacity of division under certain conditions. In tissue culture experiments, leaf mesophyll cells are put in a culture medium to form callus. This phenomenon may be called as dedifferentiation.
Large, colourful, fragrant flowers with nectar are seen in
Majority of insect pollinated flowers are large-sized. These flowers are colorful and possess fragrance to attract the insects.
Frequency of recombination between gene pairs on same chromosome as a measure of the distance between genes to map their position on chromosome, was used for the first time by
The frequency of recombination is the number of crossovers formed between any two genes. Alfred Sturtevant explained that the recombination frequency between gene pairs is the measure of distance between the genes.
What is the role of RNA polymerase III in the process of transcription in Eukaryotes?
In eukaryotes there are three major types of RNA polymerases are found that are RNA polymerase I, RNA polymerase II and RNA polymerase III. RNA polymerase III transcribes : tRNAs, ScRNA, 5S rRNA and snRNA.
Among ‘The Evil Quartet’, which one is considered the most important cause driving extinction of specie
Habitat loss and fragmentation is the most important cause driving animals and plants to extinction.
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Endarch and exarch are the terms often used for describing the position of secondary xylem in the plant body.
Statement II : Exarch condition is the most common feature of the root system. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Statement I is incorrect because endarch and exarch are the terms often used for describing the position of primary xylem in the plant body. Exarch condition is the most common feature of the root system. Hence, statement I is incorrect and II is correct.
Axile placentation is observed in
Axile placentation occurs in syncarpous pistils. The ovary is partitioned into two or more chambers. Axile placentation is observed in China rose, Petunia and Lemon.
Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTS) refers to
Expressed Sequence Tags or ESTs are genes that are expressed as RNA in the body. ESTs represent portions of expressed genes. They may be represented as either cDNA/mRNA sequence or as the reverse complement of the mRNA, the template strand.
What is the function of tassels in the corn cob?
Tassels in the com cob represents stigma and style which wave in the wind to trap pollen grains.
Spraying of which of the following phytohormone on juvenile conifers helps hastening the maturity period, that leads early seed production?
Spraying juvenile conifers with gibberellins hastens their maturity period, thus leading to early seed production.
In the equation [GPP - R = NPP| GPP is Gross Primary Productivity NPP is Net Primary Productivity R here is
The given equation represent Net primary productivity which is gross primary productivity minus respiration loss. In the given equation, R represent “Respiratory loss”.
Family Fabaceae differs from Solanaceae and Liliaceae. With respect to the stamens, pick out the characteristics specific to family Fabaceae but not found in Solanaceae or Liliaceae.
The characteristics specific to family Fabaceae but not found in Solanaceae or Liliaceae is Diadelphous and dithecous anther.
In angiosperm, the haploid, diploid and triploid structures of a fertilized embryo sac sequentially are :
Primary endosperm nucleus is formed by the fusion of diploid secondary nucleus with a male gamete. Therefore, it is triploid. Zygote is formed by fusion of two gametes and thus it is diploid. Synergids are the cells of gametophyte and hence these are haploid.
Which hormone promotes internode/petiole elongation in deep water rice?
Ethylene promotes rapid internode/petiole elongation on deep water rice plants.
Given below are two statements :
Assertion A : Late wood has fewer xylary elements with narrow vessels.
Reason R : Cambium is less active in winters. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
Late wood is also known as autumn wood. It is a wood in a tree's growth ring which is produced later in the growing season when the growth is not rapid.
Given below are two statements :
Assertion A : ATP is used at two steps in glycolysis.
Reason R : First ATP is used in converting glucose into glucose—6-phosphate and second ATP is used in conversion of fructose—6—phosphate into fructose—1, 6— diphosphate. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion because ATP in glycolysis is used at two steps of conversion that are Glucose→ Glucose-6-phosphate Fructose-6-phosphate → Fructose-1, 6-bisphosphate
Identify the correct statements:
A. Detrivores perform fragmentation.
B. The humus is further degraded by some microbes during mineralization.
C Water soluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil and get precipitated by a process called leaching.
D. The detritus food chain begins with living organisms.
E. Earthworms break down detritus into smaller particles by a process called catabolism.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
The detritus food chain begins with detritus that is dead organic matter. The saprotrophic bacteria and fungi breakdown detritus into simpler inorganic substances by a process called catabolism.
How many ATP and NADPH2 are required for the synthesis of one molecule of Glucose during Calvin cycle?
For every CO₂ molecule entering the Calvin cycle, 3 molecules of ATP and 2 of NADPH₂, are required. To make one molecule of glucose, 6 turns of the cycle are required. Thus, ATP and NADPH₂ molecules required for synthesis of one molecule of glucose during Calvin cycle will be: 6*3 = 18 ATP 6*2 = 12 NADPH₂
The phenomenon of pleiotropism refers to
The phenomenon of pleiotropism refers to phenomenon where a single gene affecting multiple phenotypic expression.
The reaction centre in PS II has an absorption maxima at
The reaction centre in PS II has an absorption maxima at 680 nm.
Which micronutrient is required for splitting of water molecule during photosynthesis?
Manganese (Mn) is an essential micronutrient that while needed in small amounts, plays a key role in photosynthesis. Mn sparks the photosynthesis process by splitting water after Photosytem II (PSII) fixes light to initiate the conversion of CO₂ and water into carbohydrates.
The historic Convention on Biological Diversity, ‘The Earth Summit’ was held in Rio de Janeiro in the year
The historic convention on Biological Diversity, “The Earth Summit” was held in Rio de Janeiro in the year 1992. It called upon all nations to take appropriate measures for conservation of biodiversity and sustainable utilisation of its benefits.
Identify the pair of heterosporous pteridophytes among the following :
Pteridophytes that produce two types of spores are known as heterosporous. Selaginella and Salvinia are heterosporous pteridophytes.
Match List I with List II : Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
The correct matching is: M phase or Mitosis is also called equational division. During G₂ phase DNA synthesis stops but cell synthesis RNA, proteins, etc. for next phase.
Quiescent stage is inactive phase in which non-dividing cells enters.
G1 phase is the interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication.
Match List I with List II : Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
The correct matching is: Iron activates catalase enzyme. Zinc is needed in the synthesis of auxin. Boron is required for cell elongation and cell differentiation. Molybdenum is component of nitrogenase and nitrate reductase enzyme.
Match List I with List II : Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
The correct matching is: Cohesion represents mutual attraction between water molecules. Adhesion represents attraction of water molecules to polar surfaces Surface tension represents water molecules are attracted to each other in the liquid phase more than to water in the gas phase., Guttation represent loss of water in liquid phase.
Match List I with List II : Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
The correct matching is: (+,+) Mutualism : In this interaction, both the interacting species are benefitted. (+, 0) Commensalism : Only one species is benefitted and the other species remains unharmed (-, 0) Amensalism : Neither species is benefitted. One remains unharmed and the other is harmed. (+, -) Parasitism : One species is benefitted and other is negatively effected.
Match List I with List II : Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
The correct matching is:
Pyruvate, which is formed by the glycolytic catabolism of carbohydrates in the cytosol, after it enters mitochondrial matrix undergoes oxidative decarboxylation by a complex set of reactions catalyzed by pyruvate dehydrogenase.
The scheme of glycolysis was given by Gustay Embden, Otto Meyrhof and J. Parnas, and is often referred to as the EMP pathway.
In electron transport system, the energy of oxidation-reduction is utilized for the production of proton gradient required for phosphorylation, thus, this process is also called oxidative phosphorylation.
The TCA (tricarboxylic acid cycle) starts with the condensation of acetyl group with oxaloacetic acid (OAA) and water to yield citric acid. The reaction is catalysed by the enzyme citrate synthase.
How many different proteins does the ribosome consist of?
The ribosome consists of 80 different proteins.
Main steps in the formation of Recombinant DNA are given below. Arrange these steps in a correct sequence.
A. Insertion of recombinant DNA into the host cell
B. Cutting of DNA at specific location by restriction enzyme
C. Isolation of desired DNA fragment
D. Amplification of gene of interest using PCR
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
The correct sequence of formation of recombinant DNA is:
i. Cutting of DNA at specific location by restriction enzyme
ii. Isolation of desired DNA fragment
iii. Amplification of gene of interest using PCR
iv. Insertion of recombinant DNA into the host cell
NOTES: Recombinant DNA Technology is the joining together of DNA molecules from two different species. The recombinant DNA molecule is inserted into a host organism to produce new genetic combinations that are of value to science, medicine, agriculture, and industry.
Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Gause’s ‘Competitive Exclusion Principle’ states that two closely related species competing for the same resources cannot co-exist indefinitely and competitively inferior one will be eliminated eventually.
Statement II : In general, carnivores are more adversely affected by competition than herbivores. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Statement II is incorrect as in general, herbivores and plants appear to be more adversely affected by competition than carnivores. Statement I is correct.
Given below are two statements :
Assertion A : A flower is defined as modified shoot wherein the shoot apical meristem changes to floral meristem.
Reason R : Internode of the shoot gets condensed to produce different floral appendages laterally at successive node instead of leaves. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A flower is defined as the modification of shoot apical meristem into floral meristem. Internodes do not elongate and the axis gets condensed. The apex produces different kinds of floral appendages laterally at the successive nodes instead of leaves.
Which of the following statements are correct about Klinefelter's Syndrome?
A. This disorder was first described by Langdon Down (1866).
B. Such an individual has overall masculine development. However, the feminine development is also expressed.
C. The affected individual is short statured.
D. Physical, psychomotor and mental development is retarded.
E. Such individuals are sterile.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Statement A, C and D are incorrect w.r.t. Klinefelter’s syndrome s they are associated with Down’s syndrome.
Which of the following combinations is required for chemiosmosis?
The required components for chemiosmosis are proton gradient, proton pump, plasma membrane and ATP synthase.
Identify the correct statements:
A. Lenticels are the lens-shaped openings permitting the exchange of gases.
B. Bark formed early in the season is called hard bark.
C. Bark is a technical term that refers to all tissues exterior to vascular cambium.
D. Bark refers to periderm and secondary phloem.
E. Phellogen is single-layered in thickness.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Statement B,C and E are incorrect because: Bark that is formed early in the season is called early or soft bark. Towards the end of the season late or hard bark is formed. Bark is non-technical term that refer to all tissues exterior to vascular cambium. Phellogen is couple of layers thick.
Given below are two statements
: Assertion A : In gymnosperms the pollen grains are released from the microsporangium and carried by air currents.
Reason R : Air currents carry the pollen grains to the mouth of the archegonia where the male gametes are discharged and pollen tube is not formed. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Assertion is correct but reason is false as in gymnosperms the pollen grains are released from the microsporangium they are carried in air currents. They come in constant with the opening of the ovules borne on megasporophylls. The pollen tube carrying the male gametes grows towards archegonia in the ovules and discharge their contents near the mouth of the archegonia.
Which of the following are NOT considered as the part of endomembrane system?
A. Mitochondria
B. Endoplasmic reticulum
C. Chloroplasts
D. Golgi complex
E. Peroxisomes
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
The endomembrane system includes the nuclear envelope, lysosomes, vesicles, the ER, and Golgi apparatus, as well as the plasma membrane
Given below are two statements:
Assertion A : Amniocentesis for sex determination is one of the strategies of Reproductive and Child Health Care Programme.
Reason R : Ban on amniocentesis checks increasing menace of female foeticide. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Amniocentesis can lead to female foeticide as it detects the sex of the foetus which decreases the gender ratio. So, it has a Statutory ban to avoid female.
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Ligaments are dense irregular tissue.
Statement II: Cartilage is dense regular tissue. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Both the statement are false because ligaments is an example of dense regular connective tissue. Cartilage is an example of specialized connective tissue.
Match List I with List II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
The correct matching is: P-wave represents the electrical excitation (or depolarisation) of the atria which leads to the contraction of both the atria, QRS complex represents the depolarisation of ventricles which initiates the ventricular contraction. T-wave represents the return of the ventricles from excited to normal state.
Match List I with List II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
the correct matching is: Vasectomy is a surgical method of contraception Coitus interruptus is a natural method of contraception Cervical cap is a barrier method of contraception Saheli is an oral method of contraception which is a non-steroidal pill
Given below are two statements: Statement I: Vas deferens receives a duct from seminal vesicle and opens into urethra as the ejaculatory duct. Statement II: The cavity of the cervix is called cervical canal which along with vagina forms birth canal, In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Both the statements are correct. Vas deferens receives a duct from seminal vesicle and opens into urethra as the ejaculatory duct, The cavity of the cervix is called cervical canal which along with vagina forms birth canal.
Given below are two statements:
Assertion A: Nephrons are of two types: Cortical & Juxta medullary, based on their relative position in cortex and medulla.
Reason R: Juxta medullary nephrons have short loop of Henle whereas, cortical nephrons have longer loop of Henle. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Assertion is true as there are two types of nephrons, i.e., cortical nephrons and juxtamedullary nephrons based on their relative position in the cortex and medulla. Reason is not correct as loop of Henle in juxtamedullary nephrons is very long and runs deep into the medulla.
Match List I with List II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
The correct matching is following:
Gene a codes for enzyme transacetylase.
Gene y codes for enzyme permease.
Gene i codes for repressor protein
Gene z codes for enzyme -galactosidase.
Match List I with List II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
The correct matching will be:
Ringworm is caused by Trichophyton.
Filariasis is caused by Wuchereria bancrofti.
Malaria is caused by Plasmodium species.
Pneumonia is caused by Haemophilus influenzae.
Which of the following functions is carried out by cytoskeleton in a cell?
Cytoskeleton in a cell involved in many functions such as mechanical support, motility, maintenance of the shape of the cell
Which of the following statements is correct?
Large amount of nutrients in water promotes growth of algal bloom. Algal bloom increases fish mortality. Eutrophication result due to natural ageing of lakes
Match List I with List II.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
The correct matching will be: Heroin belongs to the category of opioids, and it is a depressant
that slows down body functions. Marijuana is known for its effect on the cardiovascular system of the body.
Cocaine interferes with the transport of the neurotransmitter dopamine.
Morphine is used is a sedative and painkiller.
Radial symmetry is NOT found in adults of phylum ____.
Radial symmetry is found in adults of phylum of ctenophore,
coelenterate and Echinodermata.
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: In prokaryotes, the positively charged DNA is held with some negatively charged proteins in a region called nucleoid.
Statement II: In eukaryotes, the negatively charged DNA is wrapped around the positively charged histone octamer to form nucleosome.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
In prokaryotes, the negatively charged DNA is held with some positively charged proteins in a region termed as nucleoid. In eukaryotes, the negatively charged DNA is wrapped around
the positively charged histone octamer to form a structure called nucleosome.
Which of the following statements are correct regarding female reproductive cycle?
A. In non-primate mammal's cyclical changes during reproduction are called oestrus cycle.
B. First menstrual cycle begins at puberty and is called menopause.
C. Lack of menstruation may be indicative of pregnancy.
D. Cyclic menstruation extends between menarche and menopause.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
The incorrect answer is option (d) as incorrect statement is:
First menstrual cycle that begins at puberty is called menarche. Rest other statements are incorrect.
Select the correct group/set of Australian Marsupials exhibiting adaptive radiation.
Mole and flying squirrel are placental mammals. Lemur and wolf are placental mammals.
Bobcat is a placental mammal
Therefore only option Numbat, Spotted cuscus, Flying phalanger is correct.
Which one of the following techniques does not serve the purpose of early diagnosis of a disease for its early treatment?
The correct answer is Serum and Urine analysis
because using conventional
methods of diagnosis like serum and urine analysis, etc, do not help in early diagnosis. Recombinant DNA technology, Polymerase Chain Reaction and Enzyme Linked Immuno-Sorbent
Assay (ELISA) are some of the techniques that serve the purpose of early diagnosis.
Match List I with List II.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
The correct matching will be:
Cartilaginous joint is present between the adjacent vertebrae in the vertebral column.
Ball and socket joint is present between between Humerus and Pectoral girdle
Fibrous Joint is present between between flat skull bones Saddle Joint is present between between carpal and metacarpal
of thumb
Match List I with List II.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
The correct matching is: A leopard and a lion in a forest/grassland exemplify competition where both the species are competing for the same resources. Fungi and root of a higher plant in mycorrhizae exemplify mutualism where both the species are benefitted. The fungi help the plant in the absorption of essential nutrients from the soil while the plant in turn provides the fungi with energy yielding carbohydrates
A cattle egret and a cattle in a field exemplify commensalism where one species benefits and the other remains unaffected. The egrets always forage close to where cattle are grazing because the cattle, as they move, stir up and flush out insects from the vegetation that otherwise might be difficult for the egrets to find and catch.
Vital capacity of lung is ____.
Vital capacity is the maximum volume of air a person can breathe in after forced expiration. Vital capacity includes ERV, TV and IRV.
Match List I with List II.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
The correct matching is:
(i) Fovea is the point of greatest visual acuity or resolution.
(ii) Iris is the visible coloured portion of the eye that regulates diameter of pupil.
(iii) Blind spot is the point where optic nerve leaves the eye-ball and photoreceptor cells are absent.
(iv) Sclerais the extenal layer of eye formed of dense connective tissue.
Once the undigested and unabsorbed substances enter the caecum, their backflow is prevented by
Once the undigested and unabsorbed substances enter the caecum, their backflow is prevented by Ileo-caecal valve
Which one of the following common sexually transmitted diseases is completely curable when detected early and treated properly?
Gonorrhoea is a bacterial disease which can be treated with the help of antibiotics and cured completely. Rest other diseases are not completely cured as other mentioned options are viral diseases.
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: A protein is imagined as a line, the left end represented by first amino acid (C-terminal) and the right end represented by last amino acid (N=terminal).
Statement II: Adult human haemoglobin, consists of 4 subunits (two subunits of a type and two sub-units of b type.)
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Statement I is incorrect because left-hand represented by first amino acid is N terminal and right-hand by C terminal
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Electrostatic precipitator is most widely used in thermal power plant.
Statement II : Electrostatic precipitator in thermal power plant removes ionising radiations.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Statement II is incorrect because it can particulate matter present in the exhaust from a thermal power plant.
In which blood corpuscles, the HIV undergoes replication and produces progeny viruses?
HIV enters into helper T-lymphocytes (TH), replicates and produces progeny viruses. The progeny viruses released into blood attack other helper lymphocyte.
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: RNA mutates at a faster rate.
Statement II: Viruses having RNA genome and shorter life span mutate and evolve faster.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Both the statements are correct. RNA mutate at much higher rate as compare to DNA because RNA has higher mutation rate that DNA because DNA has deoxyribose pentose sugar in it’s configuration whereas RNA has extra oxygen in its ribose sugar which makes it more reactive. As oxygen has got lone pair it will have tendency to react.
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: Endometrium is necessary for implantation of blastocyst.
Reason R: In the absence of fertilization, the corpus luteum degenerates that causes disintegration of endometrium.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion. Corpus luteum secretes large amount of progesterone which is essential for maintenance of endometrium of uterus. In absence of fertilisation, the corpus luteum degenerates hence the decrease in the level of progesterone hormone will cause disintegration of endometrium leading to menstruation.
Match List I with List II.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
The correct matching is:
Cholecystokinin (CCK) acts on both gall bladder and pancreas and stimulates the secretion of bile juice and pancreatic enzymes respectively.
GIP inhibits gastric secretion and motility.
Atrial Natriuretic Factor (ANF) is released from the atrial wall of our heart.
Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) acts mainly on the kidney and stimulates resorption of water and electrolytes by the distal tubules.
Which one of the following symbols represents mating between relatives in human pedigree analysis?
Consanguineous marriage is matrimony between individuals who are closely related. In a clinical sense, marriage between £wo family members who are second cousins or closer qualify as having a consanguineous marriage.
So the correct option is mating between relatives.
The unique mammalian characteristics are:
The unique mammalian characteristics are presence of hairs, pinna and mammary gland. Presence of tympanic membrane is present in amphibians too and monocondylic skull is present in reptiles and aves.
Which of the following statements are correct?
A. Basophils are most abundant cells of the total WBCs
B. Basophils secrete histamine, serotonin and heparin
C. Basophils are involved in inflammatory response
D. Basophils have kidney shaped nucleus
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Basophils are one of three granulocytes, along with neutrophils and eosinophils. Basophils are the smallest in number of granulocytes but the largest in cell size. Neutrophils are most abundant. Monocytes have kidney shape nucleus.
Select the correct statements with reference to chordates.
A. Presence of a mid-dorsal, solid and double nerve cord.
B. Presence of closed circulatory system.
C. Presence of paired pharyngeal gill slits.
D. Presence of dorsal heart
E. Triploblastic pseudocoelomate animals.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
The correct statement regarding chordates are b and c. The chordate characters are presence of closed circulatory system and presence of pharyngeal gill slits. Nerve cord is dorsal, hollow and single. Heart is ventral. They are triploblastic and coelomate.
Which of the following are NOT under the control of thyroid hormone?
A. Maintenance of water and electrolyte balance
B. Regulation of basal metabolic rate
C. Normal rhythm of sleep-wake cycle
D. Development of immune system
E. Support the process of RBCs formation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Thyroid hormone is involved in maintaining water and electrolytes balance, help in process of RBC production and maintaining basal metabolic rate.
In cockroach, excretion is brought about by —
A. Phallic gland
B. Urecose gland
C. Nephrocytes
D. Fatbody
E. Collaterial glands
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
The chordate characters are presence of closed circulatory system and presence of pharyngeal gill slits. Nerve cord s dorsal, hollow and single. Heart is ventral. They are triploblastic and coelomate.
The parts of human brain that helps in regulation of sexual behaviour, expression of excitement, pleasure, rage, fear etc. are:
The parts of human brain that helps in regulation of sexual behaviour, expression of excitement, pleasure, rage, fear etc. are Limbic system and hypothalamus,
Match List I with List II.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
The correct matching will be: Areolar connective tissue contains fibroblasts (cells that produce and secrete fibres), macrophages and mast cells, Inner surface of bronchioles is lined by ciliated epithelium. Blood is a specialised connective tissue. Tubular parts of nephron are lined by cuboidal epithelium.
Match List I with List II.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
The correct matching will be: Exponential growth occurs when there is unlimited resource availability condition. Expanding age pyramid reflects growing population where the percent individuals of pre-reproductive age is largest followed by reproductive and post-reproductive age groups. Stable age pyramid shows stable population where the percent individuals of pre-reproductive and reproductive age group are same.
Which of the following statements are correct?
A. An excessive loss of body fluid from the body switches off osmoreceptors.
B. ADH facilitates water reabsorption to prevent diuresis.
C. ANF causes vasodilation.
D. ADH causes increase in blood pressure.
E. ADH is responsible for decrease in GFR.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Statement A and E are incorrect because excessive loss of body fluid from the body switches on osmoreceptors and ADH is responsible for increasing in GER.
Given below are two statements:
Statement I : During GO phase of cell cycle, the cell is metabolically inactive.
Statement II : The centrosome undergoes duplication during S phase of interphase
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Statement I is not correct because During GO phase of cell cycle, the cell is metabolically active but do not divide.
Select the correct statements.
A. Tetrad formation is seen during Leptotene.
B. During Anaphase, the centromeres split and chromatids separate.
C. Terminalization takes place during Pachytene.
D. Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER are reformed during Telophase.
E. Crossing over takes place between sister chromatids of homologous chromosome.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Tetrad formation is seen during zygotene stage. Terminalisation of chiasmata takes place during diakinesis, Crossing over takes place between non-sister chromatids of homologus chromosomes.
Which one of the following is NOT an advantage of inbreeding?
Inbreeding decreases the productivity of inbred population, after continuous inbreeding is not an advantage of inbreeding
Which of the following is characteristic feature of cockroach regarding sexual dimorphism?
Anal style is present only in male cockroach, so it show sexual dimorphism.
Which one of the following is the sequence on corresponding coding strand, if the sequence on mRNA formed is as follows
5’ AUCGAUCGAUCGAUCGAUCGAUCGAUCG 3'?
The template strand serves in mRNA synthesis while the other strand is called coding strand as its base sequence is same as that of newly synthesized mRNA. So, the sequence of mRNA will be identical to the given sequence of coding strand except for the presence of uracil in place of thymine in mRNA
Which of the following statements are correct regarding skeletal muscle?
A. Muscle bundles are held together by collagenous connective tissue layer called fascicle.
B. Sarcoplasmic reticulum of muscle fibre is a store house of calcium ions.
C. Striated appearance of skeletal muscle fibre is due to distribution pattern of actin and myosin proteins.
D. Mline is considered as functional unit of contraction called sarcomere.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Muscle bundles are held together by collagenous connective tissue layer called fascia. Muscle bundles are called fascicles. The portion of the myofibril between two functional unit of contraction called sarcomere.
‘Which of the following reactions will NOT give primary amine as the product?
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