NEET-UG 2025 Question Paper

Match List-I with List-II

Choose the option with all correct matches:

All living members of the class Cyclostomata are:

Assertion (A): The primary function of the Golgi apparatus is to package the materials made by the endoplasmic reticulum and deliver it to intracellular targets and outside the cell.

Reason (R): Vesicles containing materials made by the endoplasmic reticulum fuse with the cis face of the Golgi apparatus, and they are modified and released from the trans face of the Golgi apparatus.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Match List-I with List-II. List-I List-II

choose the option with all correct matches.

Assertion (A): All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrate.

Reason (R): The members of subphylum vertebrata possess notochord during the embryonic period, the notochord is replaced by a cartilaginous or bony vertebral column in adults.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Silencing of specific mRNA is possible via RNAi because of -

Genes R and Y follow Independent assortment. If RRYY produce round yellow seeds and rryy produce wrinkled green seeds, what will be the phenotypic ratio of the F₂ generation?

Histones are enriched with

The first menstruation is called:

Match List I with List - II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

The protein portion of an enzyme is called:

Which of the following is the unit of productivity of an ecosystem?

Sweet potato and potato represent a certain type of evolution. Select the correct combination of terms to explain the evolution.

Assertion (A): Cells of the tapetum possess dense cytoplasm and generally have more than one nucleus. Reason (R): Presence of more than one nucleus in the tapetum increase the efficiency of nourishing the developing microspore mother cells.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

How many meiotic and mitotic divisions need to occur for the development of a mature female gametophyte from the megaspore mother cell in an angiosperm plant?

Which of the following is an example of a zygomorphic flower?

After maturation, in primary lymphoid organs, the lymphocytes migrate for interaction with antigens to secondary lymphoid organ(s)/ tissue(s) like:

A. thymus

B. bone marrow

C. spleen

D. lymph nodes

E. Peyer’s patches

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Statement-I: Fig fruit is a non-vegetarian fruit as it has enclosed fig wasps in it.

Statement-II: Fig wasp and fig tree exhibit mutual relationship as fig wasp completes its life cycle in fig fruit and fig fruit gets pollinated by fig wasp.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

What is the main function of the spindle fibers during mitosis?

Which one of the following is the characteristic feature of gymnosperms?

Consider the following statements regarding function of adrenal medullary hormones:

A. It causes pupillary constriction

B. It is a hyperglycemic hormone

C. It causes piloerection

D. It increases strength of heart contraction

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Why can’t insulin be given orally to diabetic patients?

Match List-I with List-II

Choose the option with all correct matches:

Who proposed that the genetic code for amino acids should be made up of three nucleotides?

Match List-I with List-II:

Choose the option with all correct matches:

Which of the following hormones released from the pituitary is actually synthesized in the hypothalamus?

Role of the water vascular system in Echinoderms is:

A. Respiration and Locomotion

B. Excretion and Locomotion

C. Capture and transport of food

D. Digestion and Respiration

E. Digestion and Excretion

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Which of the following type of immunity is present at the time of birth and is a non-specific type of defence in the human body?

In bryophytes, the gemmae help in which one of the following?

In frog, the renal portal system is a special venous connection that acts to link:

Statement-I: In ecosystem, there is unidirectional flow of energy of sun from producers to consumers.

Statement-II: Ecosystems are exempted from 2ⁿᵈnd law of thermodynamics.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

Which of the following statements about RuBisCO is true?

Which of the following enzyme(s) are NOT essential for gene cloning?

A. Restriction enzymes

B. DNA ligase

C. DNA mutase

D. DNA recombinase

E. DNA polymerase

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Which factor is important for termination of transcription?

Frogs respire in water by skin and buccal cavity and on land by skin, buccal cavity and lungs. Choose the correct answer from the following:

Twins are born to a family that lives next door to you. The twins are a boy and a girl. Which of the following must be true?

Which of the following microbes is NOT involved in the preparation of household products?

A. Aspergillus niger

B. Lactobacillus

C. Trichoderma polysporum

D. Saccharomyces cerevisiae

E, Propionibacterium sharmanii

Match List-I with List-II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

The blue and white selectable markers have been developed which differentiate recombinant colonies from non-recombinant colonies on the basis of their ability to produce colour in the presence of a chromogenic substrate.

Given below are two statements about this method:

Statement-I: The blue coloured colonies have DNA insert in the plasmid and they are identified as recombinant colonies.

Statement-II: The colonies without blue colour have DNA insert in the plasmid and are identified as recombinant colonies.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

The complex II of mitochondrial electron transport chain is also known as

Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) amplifies DNA following the equation

What are the potential drawbacks in adoption of the IVF method?

A. High fatality risk to mother

B. Expensive instruments and reagents

C. Husband / wife necessary for being donors

D. Less adoption of orphans

E. Not available in India

F. Possibility that the early embryo does not survive

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

What is the name of the blood vessel that carries deoxygenated blood from the body to the heart in a frog?

Which one of the following statements refers to Reductionist Biology?

Statement-I: In the RNA world, RNA is considered the first genetic material evolved to carry out essential life processes. RNA acts as a genetic material and also as a catalyst for some important biochemical reactions in living systems. Being reactive, RNA is unstable.

Statement-II: DNA evolved from RNA and is a more stable genetic material. Its double helical strands being complementary, resist changes by evolving repairing mechanism.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

Match List-I with List-II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

Which of the following is an example of non-distilled alcoholic beverage produced by yeast?

Given below are two statements:

Statement-I: In a floral formula ⊕ stands for zygomorphic nature of the flower, and ( G with under line )

stands for inferior ovary.

Statement-II: In a floral Formula ⊕ stands for actinomorphic nature of the flower and ( G with under line ) stands for superior ovary.

In the light of the above statements,

choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Streptokinase produced by bacterium Streptococcus is used for

Which chromosome in the human genome has the highest number of genes?

Which of the following statement is correct about location of the male frog copulatory pad?

Which one of the following phytohormones promotes nutrient mobilization which help in the delay of leaf senescence in plants?

While trying to find out the characteristic of a newly found animal, a researcher did the histology of adult animal and observed a cavity with presence of mesodermal tissue towards the body wall but no mesodermal tissue was observed towards the alimentary canal. What could be the possible coelom of that animal?

Match List-I with List-II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Given below are the stages in the life cycle of pteridophytes. Arrange the following stages in the correct sequence.

A. Prothallus stage

B. Meiosis in spore mother cells

C. Fertilisation

D. Formation of archegonia and antheridia in gametophyte

E. Transfer of antherozoids to the archegonia in presence of water

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Cardiac activities of the heart are regulated by:

A. Nodal tissue

B. A special neural centre in the medulla oblongata

C. Adrenal medullary hormones

D. Adrenal cortical hormones

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Which of following organisms cannot fix nitrogen?

A. Azotobacter
B. Oscillatoria
C. Anabaena
D. Volvox

Statement-I: Transfer RNAs and ribosomal RNA do not interact with mRNA.

Statement-II: RNA interference (RNAi) takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of cellular defence.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

In the above represented plasmid an alien piece of DNA is inserted at EcoRI site. Which of the following strategies will be chosen to select the recombinant colonies?

Which of the following genetically engineered organisms was used by Eli Lilly to prepare human insulin?

Name the class of enzyme that usually catalyze the following reaction:

S–G + S^# → S + S^# –G

Where,

G → a group other than hydrogen

S → a substrate

S^# → another substrate

Find the statement that is NOT correct with regard to the structure of monocot stem.

The correct sequence of events in the life cycle of bryophytes is

A. Fusion of antherozoid with egg.

B. Attachment of gametophyte to substratum.

C. Reduction division to produce haploid spores.

D. Formation of sporophyte.

E. Release of antherozoids into water.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Which are correct?

A. Computed tomography and magnetic resonance imaging detect cancers of internal organs.

B. Chemotherapeutics drugs are used to kill non-cancerous cells.

C. α-interferon activate the cancer patient's immune system and helps in destroying the tumour.

D. Chemotherapeutic drugs are biological response modifiers.

E. In the case of leukaemia blood cell counts are decreased.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Match List-I with List-II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Match List-I with List-II.

Choose the option from with all correct matches.

Find the correct statements:

A. In human pregnancy, the major organ systems are formed at the end of 12 weeks.

B. In human pregnancy the major organ systems are formed at the end of 8 weeks.

C. In human pregnancy heart is formed after one month of gestation.

D. In human pregnancy, limbs and digits develop by the end of second month.

E. In human pregnancy the appearance of hair is usually observed in the fifth month.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

In the seeds of cereals, the outer covering of endosperm separates the embryo by a protein-rich layer called:

Which of the following diagrams is correct with regard to the proximal (P) and distal (D) tubule of the Nephron.

Identify the part of a bio-reactor which is used as a foam breaker from the given figure.

Assertion (A): A typical unfertilised, angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is 8 nucleated and 7-celled. Reason (R): The egg apparatus has 2 polar nuclei. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A specialised membranous structure in a prokaryotic cell which helps in cell wall formation, DNA replication and respiration is:

Which of the following are the post-transcriptional events in an eukaryotic cell?

A. Transport of pre-mRNA to cytoplasm prior to splicing.

B. Removal of introns and joining of exons.

C. Addition of methyl group 5′ end of hnRNA.

D. Addition of adenine residues at 3′ end of hnRNA.

E. Base pairing of two complementary RNAs.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

What is the pattern of inheritance for polygenic trait?

Which one of the following enzymes contains ‘Haem’ as the prosthetic group?

Each of the following characteristics represent a Kingdom proposed by Whittaker. Arrange the following in increasing order of complexity of body organization.

A. Multicellular heterotrophs with cell wall made of chitin.

B. Heterotrophs with tissue/organ/organ system level of body organization.

C. Prokaryotes with cell wall made of polysaccharides and amino acids.

D. Eukaryotic autotrophs with tissue/organ level of body organization.

E. Eukaryotes with cellular body organization.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Who is known as the father of Ecology in India?

Match List-I with List-II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Neoplastic characteristics of cells refer to:

A. A mass of proliferating cell

B. Rapid growth of cells

C. Invasion and damage to the surrounding tissue

D. Those confined to original location

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

With the help of given pedigree, find out the probability for the birth of a child having no disease and being a carrier (has the disease mutation in one allele of the gene) in F₃ generation

Statement-I: The primary source of energy in an ecosystem is solar energy.

Statement-II: The rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis in an ecosystem is called net primary productivity (NPP).

In the light of the above statements, choose the. most appropriate answer form the options given below:

Given below are two

Statement I: The DNA fragments extracted from gel electrophoresis can be used in construction of recombinant DNA.

Statement II: Smaller size DNA fragments are observed near anode while larger fragments are found near the wells in An agarose gel.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

Read the following statements on plant growth and development.

A. Parthenocarpy can be induced by auxins.

B. Plant growth regulators can be involved in promotion as well as inhibition of growth.

C. Dedifferentiation is a pre-requisite for re-differentiation.

D. Abscisic acid is a plant growth promoter.

E. Apical dominance promotes the growth of lateral buds.

Choose the option with all correct statements.

Consider the following:

A. The reductive division for the human female gametogenesis starts earlier than that of the male gametogenesis.

B. The gap between the first meiotic division and the second meiotic division is much shorter for males compared to females.

C. The first polar body is associated with the formation of the primary oocyte.

D. Luteinizing Hormone (LH) surge leads to disintegration of the endometrium and onset of menstrual bleeding.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Identify the statement that is NOT correct.

From the statements given below choose the correct option:

A. The eukaryotic ribosomes are 80S and prokaryotic ribosomes are70S

B. Each ribosome has two sub-units.

C. The two sub-units of 80S ribosome are 60S and 40S while that of 70S are 50S and 30S.

D. The two sub-units of 80S ribosome are 60S and 20S and that of 70S are 50S and 20S.

E. The two sub-units of 80S ribosome are 60S and 30S and that of 70S are 50S and 30S

The ratio of the wavelengths of the light absorbed by a Hydrogen atom when it undergoes n=2→n=3 and n=4→n=6 transitions, respectively, is

Which of the following statements are true? A. Unlike Ga that has a very high melting point, Cs has a very low melting point. B. On Pauling scale, the electronegativity values of N and Cl are not the same. C. Ar, K⁺, Cl⁻, Ca²⁺ and S²⁻ are all isoelectronic species. D. The correct order of the first ionization enthalpies of Na, Mg, Al, and Si is Si > Al > Mg > Na. E. The atomic radius of Cs is greater than that of Li and Rb. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Match List-I with List-II. Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

Predict the major product ‘P’ in the following sequence of reactions -

Energy and radius of first Bohr orbit of He² and Li²⁺ are [Given R_H = 2.18 × 10⁻¹⁸ J, a₀ = 52.9 pm]

Which of the following are paramagnetic?

A. [NiCl₄]²⁻

B. Ni(CO)₄

C. [Ni(CN)₄]²⁻

D. [Ni(H₂O)₆]²⁺

E. Ni(PPh₃)₄

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Given below are two statements :

Statement-I: Like nitrogen that can form antmonia, arsenic can form arsine,

Statement-II : Antimony cannot form antimony pentoxide.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

Which among the following electronic configurations belong to main group elements? A. [Ne] 3s¹ B. [Ar] 3d³4s² C. [Kr] 4d¹⁰5s²5p⁵ D. [Ar] 3d¹⁰4s¹ E. [Rn] 5f⁰6d²7s² Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

Consider the following compounds: KO₂, H₂O₂ and H₂SO₄. The oxidation states of the underlined elements in them are, respectively,

The correct order of the wavelength of light absorbed by the following complexes is, A. [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺ B. [Co(CN)₆]³⁻ C. [Cu(H₂O)₄]²⁺ D. [Ti(H₂O)₆]³⁺ Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Which one of the following compounds can exist as cis-trans isomers?

Phosphoric acid ionizes in three steps with their ionization constant values Kₐ₁, Kₐ₂ and Kₐ₃​, respectively, While K is the overall ionization constant. Which of the following statements are true?

A. log ⁡K = log⁡ Kₐ₁+ log Kₐ₂ + log Kₐ₃

B. H₃PO₄ is a stronger acid than H₂PO₄⁻ and HPO₄²⁻

C. Kₐ₁ > Kₐ₂ > Kₐ₃ D. Kₐ₁= Kₐ₃ + Kₐ₂/2

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Which one of the following reactions does NOT give benzene as the product?

If the molar conductivity (Aₘ​) of a 0.050 mol L⁻¹ solution of a monobasic weak acid is 90 S cm² mol⁻¹, its extent (degree) of dissociation will be [ Assume Λ⁰₊ 349.6 S cm² mol⁻¹ and Λ⁰₋ = 50.4 S cm² mol⁻¹]

Given below are two statements :

Statement-I: A hypothetical diatomic molecule with bond order zero is quite stable.

Statement-II: As bond order increases, the bond length increases.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

Out of the following complex compounds, which of the compound will be having the minimum conductance in solution?

Match List-I with List-II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below

Among the following choose the ones with equal number of atoms. A. 212 g of Na₂CO₃(s) [molar mass = 106 g] B. 248 g of Na₂O(s) [molar mass = 62 g] C. 240 g of NaOH(s) [molar mass = 40 g] D. 12 g of H₂(g) [molar mass = 2 g] E. 220 g of CO₂(g) [molar mass = 44 g] Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

The correct order of decreasing acidity of the following aliphatic acids is:

Given below are two statement :

Statement-I: Ferromagnetism is considered as an extreme form of paramagnetism.

Statement-II: The number of unpaired electrons in a Cr²⁺ ion (Z = 24) is the same as that of a Nd³⁺ ion (Z = 60). In the light of the above statements,

choose the correct answer from the options given below:

For the reaction A(g) ⇌ 2B(g) the backward reaction rate constant is higher than the forward reaction rate constant by a factor of 2500, at 1000 K. [Given: R = 0.0831 L atm mol⁻¹K⁻¹] Kₚ​ for the reaction at 1000 K is

Given below are two statements :

Statement-I: Benzenediazonium salt is prepared by the reaction of aniline with nitrous acid at 273–278 K. It decomposes easily in the dry state.

Statement-II: Insertion of iodine into the benzene ring is difficult and hence iodobenzene is prepared through the reaction of benzenediazonium salt with KI. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

How many products (including stereoisomers) are expected from monochlorination of the following compound ?

Among the given compound I-III, the correct order of bond dissociation energy of C-H bond marked with * is :

5 moles of liquid X and 10 moles of liquid Y make a solution having a vapour pressure of 70 torr. The vapour pressures of pure X and Y are 63 torr and 78 torr respectively. Which of the following is true regarding the described solution?

Sugar ‘X’ A. is found in honey. B. is a keto sugar. C. exists in α and β-anomeric forms. D. is laevorotatory. ‘X’ is:

The standard heat of formation, in kcal / mol⁻¹, of Ba²⁺ is: {Given: Standard heat of formation of SO₄²⁻ ion (aq) = −216 kcal mol ; Standard heat of crystallisation of BaSO₄(s) = −4.5 kcal /mol ; Standard heat of formation of BaSO₄(s) = −349 kcal / mol }

Total number of possible isomers (both structural as well as stereoisomers) of cyclic ethers of molecular formula C₄H₈O is :

Identify the correct orders against the property mentioned

(A) H₂O > NH₃ > CHCl₃ — dipole moment

(B) XeF₄ > XeO₃ > XeF₂ — number of lone pairs on central atom

(C) O–H > C–H > N–O — bond length

(D) N₂ > O₂ > H₂ — bond enthalpy

Choose the correct options given below:

Higher yield of NO in N₂(g) + O₂(g) ⇌ 2NO(g) can be obtained at [ΔH of the reaction = + 180.7 kJ mol⁻¹] A. higher temperature B. lower temperature C. higher concentration of N₂ D. higher concentration of O₂ Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

If the rate constant of a reaction is 0.03 s⁻¹, how much time does it take for 7.2 mol L⁻¹ concentration of the reactant to get reduced to 0.9 mol L⁻¹? (Given : log⁡2 = 0.301)

Which one of the following reactions does NOT belong to “Lassaigne’s test”?

Consider a water tank shown in the figure. It has one wall at x = L and can be taken to be very wide in the z direction. When filled with a liquid of surface tension S and density ρ, the liquid surface makes angle θ₀ (θ₀ ≪ 1) with the x-axis at x = L. If y(x) is the height of the surface then the equation for y(x) is: (take θ(x) = sin⁡θ(x) = tan⁡θ(x) = dy/dx, g is the acceleration due to gravity)

An electron (mass 9×10⁻³¹ kg and charge 1.6×10⁻¹⁹ ) moving with speed c/100 (c = speed of light) is injected into a magnetic field 𝐁⃗ of magnitude 9×10⁻⁴ T perpendicular to its direction of motion. We wish to apply a uniform electric field 𝐄⃗ together with the magnetic field so that the electron does not deflect from its path. Then (speed of light c = 3 × 10⁸ m s⁻¹)

There are two inclined surfaces of equal length (L) and same angle of inclination 45° with the horizontal. One of them is rough and the other is perfectly smooth. A given body takes 2 times as much time to slide down the rough surface than on the smooth surface. The coefficient of kinetic friction (μₖ​) between the object and the rough surface is close to:

The kinetic energies of two similar cars A and B are 100 J and 225 J respectively. On applying brakes, car A stops after 1000 m and car B stops after 1500 m. If F_A and F_B​ are the forces applied by the brakes on cars A and B, respectively, then the ratio F_A/​F_B is:

The current passing through the battery in the given circuit,is:

A bob of heavy mass m is suspended by a light string of length l. The bob is given a horizontal velocity v₀​ as shown in the figure. If the string gets slack at some point P, making an angle θ from the horizontal, the ratio of the speed v of the bob at point P to its initial speed v₀​ is:

The output (Y) of the given logic implementation is similar to the output of an/a ________ gate.

The electric field in a plane electromagnetic wave is given by E_z = 60 cos⁡(5x + 1.5 × 10⁹t) V/m Then expression for the corresponding magnetic field is (here subscripts denote the direction of the field):

A ball of mass 0.5 kg is dropped from a height of 40 m. The ball hits the ground and rises to a height of 10 m. The impulse imparted to the ball during its collision with the ground is (Take g = 9.8 m/s²)

AB is a part of an electrical circuit (see figure). The potential difference "V_A−V_B" at the instant when current i = 2 A and is increasing at a rate of 1 A/s is:

An oxygen cylinder of volume 30 litre has 18.20 moles of oxygen. After some oxygen is withdrawn from the cylinder, its gauge pressure drops to 11 atmospheric pressure at temperature 27°C. The mass of the oxygen withdrawn from the cylinder is nearly equal to: [Given, R = 100/12 J mol⁻¹K⁻¹ and molecular mass of O₂ = 32; 1 atm pressure = 1.01 × 10⁵ N/m]

A model for quantized motion of an electron in a uniform magnetic field B states that the flux passing through the orbit of the electron is n(h/e) where n is an integer, h is Planck's constant and e is the magnitude of electron's charge. According to the model, the magnetic moment of an electron in its lowest energy state will be (m is the mass of the electron)

Three identical heat-conducting rods are connected in series as shown in the figure. The rods on the sides have thermal conductivity 2K while that in the middle has thermal conductivity K. The left end of the combination is maintained at temperature 3T and the right end at T. The rods are thermally insulated from outside. In steady state, the temperature at the left junction is T₁​ and that at the right junction is T₂​. The ratio T₁/T₂ is

The plates of a parallel plate capacitor are separated by d. Two slabs of different dielectric constant K₁ and K₂ with thickness 3/8 d and d/2, respectively are inserted in the capacitor. Due to this, the capacitance becomes two times larger than when there is nothing between the plates. (If K₁ = 1.25 K₂), the value of K₁ is :

Two cities X and Y are connected by a regular bus service with a bus leaving in either direction every T min. A girl is driving scooty with a speed of 60 km/h in the direction X to Y notices that a bus goes past her every 30 minutes in the direction of her motion, and every 10 minutes in the opposite direction. Choose the correct option for the period of the bus . service and the speed (assumed constant) of the buses.

A uniform rod of mass 20 kg and length 5 m leans against a smooth vertical wall making an angle of 60° with it. The other end rests on a rough horizontal floor. The friction force that the floor exerts on the rod is (take g = 10 m/s²)

A balloon is made of a material of surface tension S and its inflation outlet (from where gas is filled in it) has a small area A. It is filled with a gas of density ρ and takes a spherical shape of radius R. When the gas is allowed to flow freely out of it, its radius changes from R to 0 (zero) in time T. If the speed v(r) of gas coming out of the balloon depends on r as rᵃ and T ∝ S^α Aᵝ ρᵞ Rᵟ then

Consider the diameter of a spherical object being measured with the help of a Vernier calipers. Suppose its 10 Vernier Scale Divisions (V.S.D.) are equal to its 9 Main Scale Divisions (M.S.D.). The least division in the Main Scale is 0.1 cm and the zero of V.S. is at x = 0.1 cm when the jaws of Vernier calipers are closed. If the main scale reading for the diameter is M = 5 cm and the number of coinciding vernier division is 8, the measured diameter after zero error correction is,

A parallel plate capacitor made of circular plates is being charged such that the surface charge density on its plates is increasing at a constant rate with time. The magnetic field arising due to displacement current is:

An unpolarized light beam travelling in air is incident on a medium of refractive index 1.73 at Brewster’s angle. Then

Two identical charged conducting spheres A and B have their centres separated by a certain distance. Charge on each sphere is q and the force of repulsion between them is F. A third identical uncharged conducting sphere is brought in contact with sphere A first and then with B and finally removed from both. New force of repulsion between spheres A and B (Radii of A and B are negligible compared to the distance of separation so that for calculating force between them they can be considered as point charges) is best given as :

A container has two chambers of volumes V₁ =2 litres and V₂ =3 litres separated by a partition made of a thermal insulator. The chambers contains n₁ =5 and n₂ = 4 moles of ideal gas at pressures p₁ = 1 atm and p₂ = 2 atm, respectively. When the partition is removed, the mixture attains an equilibrium pressure of :

A particle of mass m is moving around the origin with a constant force F pulling it towards the origin. If Bohr model is used to describe its motion, the radius r of the ntʰ orbit and the particle’s speed v in the orbit depend on n as

A body weighs 48 N on the surface of the earth. The gravitational force experienced by the body due to the earth at a height equal to one-third the radius of the earth from its surface is :

De-Broglie wavelength of an electron orbiting in the n = 2 state of hydrogen atom is close to (Given Bohr radius = 0.052 nm)

An electric dipole with dipole moment 5×10⁻⁶ C m  is aligned with the direction of a uniform electric field of magnitude 4×10⁵ N/C. The dipole is then rotated through an angle of 60° with respect to the electric field. The change in the potential energy of the dipole is:

A constant voltage of 50 V is maintained between the points A and B of the circuit shown in the figure. The current through the branch CD of the circuit is:

A photon and an electron (mass m) have the same energy E. The ratio (λₚₕₒₜₒₙ/λ_electron​) of their de-Broglie wavelengths is ( c is the speed of light):

A full wave rectifier circuit with diodes (D₁) and (D₂) is shown in the figure. If input supply voltage Vᵢₙ =220 sin (100 π t) volt, then at t = 15 msec

Two gases A and B are filled at the same pressure in separate cylinders with movable pistons of radius r_A and r_B, respectively. On supplying an equal amount of heat to both the systems reversibly under constant pressure, the pistons of gas A and B are displaced by 16 cm and 9 cm, respectively. If the change in their internal energy is the St e same, then the ratio r_A/r_B is equal to

A physical quantity P is related to four observations a, b, c and d as follows: P = a³b²/c√d

The percentage errors of measurement in a, b, c and d are 1%, 3%, 2% and 4% respectively. The percentage error in the quantity P is

The intensity of transmitted light when a polaroid sheet, placed between two crossed polaroids at 22.5° from the polatization axis of one of the polaroid, is (I₀ is the intensity of polarised light after passing through the first polaroid):

Two identical point masses P and Q, suspended from two separate massless springs of spring constants k₁ and k₂, respectively, oscillate vertically. If their maximum speeds A are the same, the ratio (A_Q/A_P) of the amplitude A_Q of mass Q to the amplitude A_P of mass P is :

Three identical heat-conducting rods are connected in series as shown in the figure. The rods on the sides have thermal conductivity 2K while that in the middle has thermal conductivity K. The left end of the combination is maintained at temperature 3T and the right end at T. The rods are thermally insulated from outside. In steady state, the temperature at the left junction is T₁​ and that at the right junction is T₂​. The ratio T₁/T₂ is

In an oscillating spring mass system, a spring is connected to a box filled with sand. As the box oscillates, sand leaks slowly out of the box vertically so that the average frequency ω (t) and average amplitude A(t) of the system change with time t. Which one of the following options schematically depicts these changes correctly?

C(s) + 2H₂(g) → CH₄(g); ΔH = −74.8 kJ mol⁻¹

Which of the following diagrams gives an accurate representation of the above reaction?

[R = reactants, P = products]

Which one of the following compounds does not decolourize bromine water ?

The major product of the following reaction is

Identify the suitable reagent for the following conversion