NEET-UG 2013 Question Paper — Set 2 Solutions

SOLUTIONS

2013 NEET EXAM

NEET-UG 2013 Question Paper — Set 2 Solutions

2013

NEET-UG

CBSE EXAMINATION PAPER-2013

NEET-ZOOLOGY

(Solved)

Time allowed : 3 hours

Maximum Marks : 720

General Instructions :

Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :

  1. This question paper contains 180 questions. All questions are compulsory.
  2. This question paper is divided into 1 sections.
  3. Section A – questions number 1 to 180 are multiple choice questions
  4. There is no overall choice given in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions.
  5. Use of calculator is NOT allowed.

Section A

Question 1.

The plant body is thalloid in

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Marchantia
  • (B) Salvinia
  • (C) Funaria
  • (D) Sphagnum
Explanation:

The plant body of a liverwort is haploid (n), gametophytic, small, dorsoventrally flattened, thallose, dichotomously branched fixed by unicellular and unbranched rhizoids, e.g., Marchantia.

Question 2.

Specialized cells for fixing atmospheric nitrogen in Nostoc are

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Nodules
  • (B) Hormogonia
  • (C) Akinetes
  • (D) Heterocysts
Explanation:

Heterocysts are large sized, thick-walled specialised cells which occur in terminal, intercalary or lateral position in filamentous cyanobacteria, e.g., Nostoc. They have enzyme nitrogenase and specialised to perform biological nitrogen fixation.

Question 3.

The common characteristics between tomato and potato will be maximum at the level of their

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Division
  • (B) Order
  • (C) Family
  • (D) Genus
Explanation:

Families are characterised on the basis of both vegetative and reproductive features of plant species. Tomato (Lycopersicon esculentum) and potato (Solanum tuberosum) belong to the same family Solanaceae.

Question 4.

What is common in all the three, Funaria, Dryopteris and Ginkgo?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Well developed vascular tissues
  • (B) Independent sporophyte
  • (C) Presence of archegonia
  • (D) Independent gametophyte
Explanation:

The female sex organ archegonium is formed in bryophytes (Funaria), pteridophytes (Dryopteris) and gymnosperms (Ginkgo).

Question 5.

The pair of quantities having same dimensions is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) impulse and surface tension
  • (B) Young’s modulus and energy
  • (C) angular momentum and work
  • (D) work and torque
Explanation:

Work = Force × displacement
= [MLT⁻²][L]
= [ML²T⁻²]

Torque = Force × force arm
= mass × acceleration × length
= [M] × [LT⁻²] × [L] = [ML²T⁻²]

Question 6.

The displacement 'x' (in meter) of a particle of mass 'm' (in kg) moving in one dimension under the action of a force is related to time 't' (in sec) by t = √x + 3. The displacement of the particle when its velocity is zero, will be

[4 Marks]
  • (A) zero
  • (B) 6m
  • (C) 4m
  • (D) 2m
Explanation:

∴ t = √x + 3

⇒ √x = t − 3 ⇒ x = (t − 3)² ...(i)

v= dx/dt = 2(t-3)=0

⇒ t = 3

From equation (i),

∴ x = (3 − 3)²

⇒ x = 0

Question 7.

Which one of the following is wrongly matched?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Basidiomycetes-Puffballs
  • (B) Sargassum-Chlorophyll c
  • (C) Nostoc-Water blooms
  • (D) Spirogyra-Motile gametes
Explanation:

Cyanobacteria, e.g., Nostoc, grow in such abundance as to form water blooms. Sargassum belongs to brown algae which possess chl a, c, carotenoids, xanthophyll and a characteristic brown pigment, fucoxanthin. Commonly known forms of basidiomycetes are mushrooms, bracket fungi or puffballs. In Spirogyra gametes are non flagellated (non-motile) but similar in size. They show amoeboid movements.

Question 8.

Among flowers of Calotropis, tulip, Sesbania, Asparagus, Colchicine, Sweet pea, Petunia, Indigofera, Mustard, Soyabean, Tobacco and groundnut how many plants have corolla with valvate aestivation?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Seven
  • (B) Eight
  • (C) Five
  • (D) Six
Explanation:

Calotropis, tulip, Asparagus, colchicine, Petunia, mustard, tobacco having valvate aestivation while sweet pea, groundnut, soyabean, Indigofera, Sesbania having vexillary aestivation.

Question 9.

How many plants among China rose, Ocimum, sunflower, mustard, Alstonia, guava, Calotropis and Nerium (Oleander) have opposite phyllotaxy?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Three
  • (B) Five
  • (C) Four
  • (D) Two
Explanation:

Phyllotaxy is the pattern of arrangement of leaves on the stem or branch.

  • Ocimum, Guava, Calotropis → Opposite phyllotaxy

  • China rose, Sunflower, Mustard → Alternate phyllotaxy

  • Alstonia, Nerium (Oleander) → Whorled phyllotaxy

Question 10.

Which of the following statements is not true for stomatal apparatus?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Inner walls of guard cells are thick
  • (B) Stomata are involved in gaseous exchange
  • (C) Guard cells are always surrounded by subsidiary cells
  • (D) Guard cells invariably possess chloroplasts and mitochondria
Explanation:

Sometimes, a few epidermal cells in the vicinity of the guard cells become specialised in their shape and size and are known as subsidiary cells or accessory cells.

Question 11.

Meristematic tissue responsible for increase in girth of tree trunk is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Phellogen
  • (B) Lateral meristem
  • (C) Intercalary meristem
  • (D) Apical meristem
Explanation:

Lateral meristems are meristems which occur parallel to the circumference of the organs in which they develop. They undergo periclinal divisions producing secondary tissues on the outer and inner sides and increase girth of the plant organs. Examples are vascular cambium and cork‑cambium.

Question 12.

Inflorescence is racemose in

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Aloe
  • (B) Tulip
  • (C) Brinjal
  • (D) Soyabean
Explanation:
  • Inflorescence in family Fabaceae (e.g., soybean) → Racemose

  • Inflorescence in family Liliaceae (e.g., tulip, Aloe) → Solitary/cymose; often umbellate

  • Inflorescence in family Solanaceae (e.g., brinjal) → Solitary, axillary or cymose as in Solanum

Question 13.

During the metaphase stage of mitosis spindle fibres attach to chromosomes at

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Both centromere and kinetochore
  • (B) Centromere, kinetochore and areas adjoining centromere
  • (C) Kinetochore
  • (D) Centromere
Explanation:

Kinetochores are small disc‑shaped structures at the surface of the centromeres which serve as the sites of attachment of spindle fibres to the chromosomes that are moved into position at the centre of the cell. Hence, metaphase is characterised by all the chromosomes coming to lie at the equator.

Question 14.

Uridine, present only in RNA is a

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Nucleotide
  • (B) Purine
  • (C) Nucleoside
  • (D) Pyrimidine
Explanation:

The combination of pentose sugar with nitrogenous bases (purines or pyrimidines) is called nucleoside. Examples: adenosine, guanosine, cytidine, thymidine, uridine.

Question 15.

The term ‘glycocalyx’ is used for

[4 Marks]
  • (A) A layer present between cell wall and membrane of bacteria
  • (B) Bacterial cell glyco‑engineered to possess N‑glycosylated proteins
  • (C) Cell wall of bacteria
  • (D) A layer surrounding the cell wall of bacteria
Explanation:

Glycocalyx or mucilage is the outermost coating of

bacterial cells/cell wall which is rich in polysaccharides. A thick and tougher mucilage is called capsule which gives gummy or sticky trait to cells. It protects the cells from dessication, toxins and preventing attachment to foreign invaders.

Question 16.

Vectors 𝐀⃗ 𝐁⃗ and 𝐂⃗ are such that: 𝐀⃗ 𝐁⃗ = 0 and 𝐀⃗ .𝐂⃗ = 0. Then the vector parallel to 𝐀⃗ is.

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 𝐁⃗+ 𝐂⃗
  • (B) 𝐁⃗x 𝐂⃗
  • (C) 𝐀⃗ x 𝐁⃗
  • (D) 𝐁⃗ and 𝐂⃗
Explanation:

Vector triple product

𝐀⃗ x (𝐁⃗ x 𝐂⃗) = 𝐁⃗ ( 𝐀⃗ .𝐂⃗)- 𝐂⃗ (𝐀⃗ .𝐁⃗)=0

⇒𝐀⃗ || (𝐁⃗ x 𝐂⃗)

Question 17.

Which of the following type of plastids does not contain stored food material?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Elaioplasts
  • (B) Aleuroplasts
  • (C) Chromoplasts
  • (D) Amyloplasts
Explanation:

Chromoplasts are non-photosynthetic coloured plastides which synthesise and stored carotenoid pigmentes. They, therefore, appear orange red and yellow where as amyloplast (store starch), aleuroplast store proteins) and elaioplast (store oil droplets and fats) are leucoplasts, colourless plastids.

Question 18.

A car is moving in a circular horizontal track of radius 10 m with a constant speed of 10 m/s. A bob is suspended from the roof of the car by a light wire of length 1.0 m. The angle made by the wire with the vertical is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) π/6
  • (B) π/3
  • (C) π/4
  • (D) 0°
Explanation:

Given: speed = 10 m/s; radius r = 10 m

Angle made by the wire with the vertical is θ.

Then,

T cos θ = mg

T sin θ = mv²/r

So,

tan⁡θ = v²/rg = 10²/10x 10 = 1

⇒ θ = 45° = π/4

Diagram 1 – NEET-UG 2013 Question Paper — Set 2 Solutions
Question 19.

During meiosis I, the chromosomes start pairing at

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Diplotene
  • (B) Pachytene
  • (C) Zygotene
  • (D) Leptotene
Explanation:

During zygotene, a substage of Prophase Ⅰ of meiosis Ⅰ, chromosomes start pairing together called synapsis. Such paired chromosomes are called as homologous chromosomes. A complex structure i.e., synaptonemal complex is formed by a pair of synapsed ‘homologous chromosomes called a bivalent or a tetrad.

Question 20.

A person holding a rifle (mass of person and rifle together is 100 kg) stands on a smooth surface and fires 10 shots horizontally. If each bullet has a mass of 10 g with a muzzle velocity of 800 m s⁻¹. The final velocity acquired by the person and the average force exerted on the person are

[4 Marks]
  • (A) −1.6 m s⁻¹ ; 16 N
  • (B) −0.8 m s⁻¹ ; 8 N
  • (C) −1.6 m s⁻¹ ; 8 N
  • (D) −0.8 m s⁻¹ ; 16 N
Explanation:

According to law of conservation of momentum

MV + mnv = 0

⇒ V = -mNv/M = -(0.01 kg × 10 × 800 m/s)/100

⇒ -0.8 m/s

According to work energy theorem,

Average work done = Change in average kinetic energy

i.e., Fₐᵥ × Sₐᵥ = ½mV²ᵣₘₛ

⇒ (FₐᵥVₘₐₓt)/2 = ½m(V²ᵣₘₛ/2)

⇒ Fₐᵥ = 8 N

Question 21.

Which two distinct microbial processes are responsible for the release of fixed nitrogen as dinitrogen gas (N₂) to the atmosphere?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Bacterial fermentation in cattle, and nitrogen fixation by Rhizobium in root nodules of legumes
  • (B) Decomposition of organic nitrogen, and conversion of dinitrogen to ammonium compounds
  • (C) Aerobic nitrate oxidation, and nitrite reduction
  • (D) Anaerobic ammonium oxidation, and denitrification
Explanation:

In the global nitrogen cycle, bacterial denitrification is recognised as an important process that converts fixed nitrogen to atmospheric nitrogen gas (N₂). In the marine nitrogen cycle, anaerobic oxidation of ammonium coupled to nitrate reduction contributes substantially to N₂‑production in marine sediments.

Question 22.

A particle with total energy E is moving in a potential energy region U(x). Motion of the particle is restricted to the region where

[4 Marks]
  • (A) U(x) ≤ E
  • (B) U(x) = 0
  • (C) U(x) > E
  • (D) U(x) < E
Explanation:

As the particle is moving in a potential energy region.

∴ Kinetic energy > 0

And, total energy E = K.E. + P.E.

⇒ U(x) <E

Question 23.

One coolie takes 1 minute to raise a suitcase through a height of 2 m but the second coolie takes 30 s to raise the same suitcase to the same height. The powers of two coolies are in the ratio of

[5 Marks]
  • (A) 2 : 1
  • (B) 3 : 1
  • (C) 1 : 3
  • (D) 1 : 2
Explanation:

∵ Power P = W/t

⇒ P₁/P₂ = t₂/t₁ = 30 s/1 minute = 30 s/60 s = 1/2

(t₁ = 1 minute; t₂ = 30 second given)

Question 24.

Which of the following best illustrates FEEDBACK in development?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Astissue (X) develops, it secretes enzymes that inhibit the development of tissue (Y)
  • (B) As tissue (X) develops, it secretes something that induces tissue (Y) to develop
  • (C) As tissue (X) develops, it secretes something that slows down the growth of tissue (Y)
  • (D) Tissue (X) secretes RNA which changes the development of tissue (Y)
Explanation:

During embryonic development, the primary organiser signals the development of another organ or tissue by secreting chemical factors.

Question 25.

The viability of seeds is tested by

[4 Marks]
  • (A) DMSO
  • (B) 2,3, 5 triphenyl tetrazolium chloride
  • (C) Safranine
  • (D) 2, 6 dichlorophenol indophenols
Explanation:

Dehydrogenase enzymes present in living tissue reduce the tetrazolium chloride to formazan, a reddish,water insoluble compound. This reaction occurs in or near living cells which are releasing hydrogen in respiration processes. Viable tissues produce a normal red-colour, weak Jiving tissue produce an abnormal colour. Dead tissues do not stain, remaining usually white.

Question 26.

Two discs are rotating about their axes, normal to the discs and passing through the centres of the discs. Disc D₁ has 2 kg mass and 0.2 m radius initially angular velocity of 50 rad s⁻¹. Disc D₂ has 4 kg mass, 0.1 m radius and initial angular velocity of 200 rad s⁻¹. The two discs are brought in contact due to face, with their axes of rotation coincident. The final angular velocity (in rad s⁻¹) of the system is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 100
  • (B) 120
  • (C) 60
  • (D) 40
Explanation:

Given: m₁ = 2 kg ; m₂ = 4 kg
r₁ = 0.2 m ; r₂ = 0.1 m
ω₁ = 50 rad s⁻¹ ; ω₂ = 200 rad s⁻¹

As, angular momentum,

I₁ω₁ + I₂ω₂ = (I₁ + I₂)ω

∴ ω_f = (I₁ω₁ + I₂ω₂)/(I₁ + I₂)
= (½m₁r₁²ω₁ + ½m₂r₂²ω₂)/(½m₁r₁² + ½m₂r₂²)

By putting the value of m₁, m₂, r₁, r₂ and solving we get

100 rad s⁻¹

Question 27.

The radius of the earth is R and the radius of earth. Both have almost equal average mass-density. If Vₚ and V_E are escape velocities of the planet and the earth, respectively, then

[4 Marks]
  • (A) V_E = 3 Vₚ
  • (B) Vₚ = 2V_E
  • (C) V_E = 1.5Vₚ
  • (D) Vₚ = 1.5 V_E
Explanation:

Escape velocity,

Vₑ = √(2GM_E/R_E)
= √2G/ R_E (4/3 πR_E³ρ_E) = R√(8/3 πGρ_E)
⇒ Vₑ ∝ Rₑ ⇒ Vₚ/V_E = Rₚ/R_E = 2
⇒ Vₚ = 2V_E

Question 28.

A particle of mass m is kept at rest at a height 3R from the surface of earth, where R is radius of earth and M is mass of earth. The minimum speed with which it should be projected, so that it does not return back, is (g is acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth)

[4 Marks]
  • (A) (2g /4)¹ᐟ²
  • (B) (gR/4)¹ᐟ²
  • (C) (GM/2R)¹ᐟ²
  • (D) (GM/R)¹ᐟ²
Explanation:

As we know, the minimum speed with which a body is projected so that it does not return back is called escape speed.
Vₑ = √2GM/r = √2GM/ R +h = √2GM/4R
= (GN/2R)¹ᐟ² (∵ h = 3R)

Question 29.

The pineapple which under natural conditions is difficult to blossom has been made to produce fruits throughout the year by application of

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Cytokinin
  • (B) NAA, 2,4-D
  • (C) Phenyl acetic acid
  • (D) IAA, IBA
Explanation:

Plants which are difficult to flower can be made to do so by spraying them with 2,4,-D (2,4 dichlorophenoxy acetic acid) and NAA (napthalene acetic acid) which are synthetic auxins, e.g, litchi, pineapple.

Question 30.

Which of the following elements is a constituent of biotin?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Sulphur
  • (B) Magnesium
  • (C) Calcium
  • (D) Phosphorus
Explanation:

Biotin, also known as vitamin H, is a water-soluble B-vitamin. It is a coenzyme for carboxylase enzymes, involved in the synthesis of fatty acids, isoleucine, valine and in gluconeogenesis. Sulphur is a constituent of biotin.

Question 31.

Bundle sheath cells

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Are rich in RuBisCO
  • (B) Are rich in PEP carboxylase (c) Lack RuBisCO
  • (C) Lack RuBisCO
  • (D) Lack both RuBisCO and PEP carboxylase
Explanation:

In C₄ plants, bundle sheath cells are rich in RuBisCO, but lack PEPcase. The CO₂ released in the bundle sheath cells enters the C₃ or the Calvin pathway, common to all plants. Thus, the basic pathway that results in the formation of sugars, the calvin pathway is common to the C₃ and C₄ plants.

Question 32.

Which one of the following statements is correct?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Cleistogamous flowers are always autogamous
  • (B) Geitonogamy involves the pollen and stigma of flowers of different plants
  • (C) Xenogamy occurs only by wind pollination
  • (D) Chasmogamous flowers do not open at all
Explanation:

Cleistogamous flowers do not expose their reproductive parts. Anthers and stigma lie close to each other. Pure autogamy occurs since there is no chance of cross‑pollination. Cleistogamy is the most efficient floral adaptation for promoting self‑pollination. E.g., Viola mirabilis and Oxalis autoseila.

Question 33.

Megaspores are produced from the megaspore mother cells after

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Meiotic division
  • (B) Mitotic division
  • (C) Formation of a thick wall
  • (D) Differentiation
Explanation:

Single Megaspore Mother Cell (MMC) with dense cytoplasm and a prominent nucleus gets differentiated from nucellus near the micropylar region. This Megaspore Mother Cell (MMC) undergoes meiosis to form ‘4’ haploid cells called megaspores and the process of formation is known as megasporogenesis.

Question 34.

Syngamy can occur outside the body of the organism in

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Fungi
  • (B) Mosses
  • (C) Algae
  • (D) Ferns
Explanation:

In most aquatic organisms, such as a majority of algae and fishes as well as amphibians, syngamy occurs in the external medium (water), i.e., outside the body of the organism. This type of gametic fusion is called external fertilisation.

Question 35.

Animal vectors are required for pollination in

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Maize
  • (B) Vallisneria
  • (C) Mulberry
  • (D) Cucumber
Explanation:

There are different types of vectors involved in pollination. For example, Maize, mulberry → pollination by wind. Vallisneria → pollination through water (hydrophily). Cucumber → Bees are brought for the commercial plantings of cucumber.

Question 36.

If the ratio of diameters, lengths and Young's modulus of steel and copper wires shown in the figure are p, q and s respectively, then the corresponding ratio of increase in their lengths would be

[4 Marks] Diagram 2 – NEET-UG 2013 Question Paper — Set 2 Solutions
  • (A) 5q/(7sp²)
  • (B) 7q/(5sp)
  • (C) 2q/(5sp)
  • (D) 7q/(5sp²)
Explanation:

From formula,

Increase in length,

ΔL = FL/AY = 4FL/(πD²Y)

ΔLₛ/ΔL_c = (Fₛ/F_c)(D_c/Dₛ)²(Y_c/Yₛ)
= 7/5 × (1/p)² × (1/5)⁴
= 7q/(5p²)

Question 37.

Which of the following statements is correct?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Sporopollenin can withstand high temperatures as well as strong acids and alkalis
  • (B) Sporopollenin is made up of inorganic materials
  • (C) Sporopollenin can be degraded by enzymes
  • (D) Sporopollenin can withstand high temperatures but not strong acids
Explanation:

Pollen grains are generally spherical and have a prominent two‑layered wall. The hard outer layer called the exine is made up of sporopollenin, one of the most resistant organic materials known. It can withstand high temperatures and strong acids and alkali.

Question 38.

Albuminous seeds store their reserve food mainly in

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Cotyledons
  • (B) Endosperm
  • (C) Hypocotyl
  • (D) Perisperm
Explanation:

Endosperm is the nutritive tissue which provides nourishment to the embryo in seed plants. Albuminous seeds retain a part of endosperm as it is not completely used up during embryo development (e.g., wheat, maize, barley, castor, sunflower).

Question 39.

Random unidirectional change in allele frequencies that occurs by chance in all populations and especially in small populations is known as

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Natural selection
  • (B) Genetic drift
  • (C) Mutation
  • (D) Migration
Explanation:

Genetic drift is random change in allele number and frequency in a gene pool due to chance (e.g., small population size). It is caused by sampling error in the gene pool forming the next generation. The sampling gene pool is generally small in size, limiting variability.

Question 40.

A fluid is in streamline flow across a ‘horizontal pipe of variable area of cross section. For this which of the following statements is correct?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Velocity and pressure both are maximum at the widest part of the pipe
  • (B) Velocity and pressure both are maximum at the narrowest part of the pipe
  • (C) The pipe and the pressure is minimum at the widest part of the pipe
  • (D) The velocity is maximum at the narrowest part of the pipe and pressure is maximum at the widest part of the pipe
Explanation:

According to Bernoulli's theorem,

p + 1/2 ρv² = constant and Av = constant

If A is minimum, v is maximum, P is minimum.

Question 41.

The density of water at 20°C is 998 kg/m³ and at 40°C is 992 kg/m³. The coefficient of volume expansion of water is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 10⁻⁴/°C
  • (B) 3 × 10⁻⁴/°C
  • (C) 2 × 10⁻⁴/°C
  • (D) 6 × 10⁻⁴/°C
Explanation:

T₁ = 20°C; T₂ = 40°C

ρ₂₀ = 998 kg/m³; ρ₄₀ = 992 kg/m³

As ρ_T₂ = ρ_T₁ / 1 + γ∆T =ρ_T₁/1+ γ(T₂ − T₁)

∴ 992 = 998 / 1 + γ(40 − 20) ⇒ 992 = 998 / 1 + 20γ

⇒ 20γ = 998/992 − 1 = 6/992

⇒ γ = 6/992 ×1/20 = 3 × 10⁻⁴ /°C

Question 42.

Two metal rods 1 and 2 of same lengths have same temperature difference across their ends. Their thermal conductivities are K₁ and K₂ and cross-sectional areas A₁ and A₂, respectively. If the rate of heat conduction in rod 1 is four times that in rod 2, then

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 4K₁A₁ = K₂A₂
  • (B) K₁A₁ = 2K₂A₂
  • (C) K₁A₁ = 4K₂A₂
  • (D) K₁A₁ = K₂A₂
Explanation:

Q₁ = 4Q₂ (Given)

⇒ K₁A₁Δt/L = 4.K₂A₂Δt/L⇒ K₁A₁ = 4K₂A₂

Question 43.

Which of the following is not a property of the genetic code?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Ambiguous
  • (B) Non‑overlapping
  • (C) Universal
  • (D) Degeneracy
Explanation:

Genetic code is the relationship of amino acid sequence in a polypeptide and nucleotide/base sequence in mRNA/antisense strand of DNA. It is universal, i.e., a codon specifies the same amino acid in all organisms, non-overlapping, i.e., adjacent codons are independent with no base being member of two codons, degeneracy, i.e., some amino acids are coded by more than one codon, hence the code is degenerate, unambiguous, i.e., one codon codes for only one amino acid.

Question 44.

Genetic variation in a population arises due to

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Reproductive isolation and selection
  • (B) Mutations as well as recombination
  • (C) Mutations only
  • (D) Recombination only
Explanation:

Crossing over leads to recombination of genetic material on two chromosomes. Mutation alters DNA sequences, changing genotype and phenotype. Along with recombination, mutation introduces variation in DNA.

Question 45.

Satellite RNAs are present in some

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Plant viruses
  • (B) Prions
  • (C) Viroids
  • (D) Bacteriophages
Explanation:

Plant viruses often contain parasites of their own, referred to as satellites. Satellite RNAs are dependent on their associated (helper) virus for both replication

and encapsidation. Example—Tobacco Necrosis Virus (TNV). Viroids are infectious agents smaller than viruses. Bacteriophages are viruses that infect the ‘bacteria. A prion is an infectious agent that is composed primarily of protein.

Question 46.

A system is shown in the figure to a state c by two paths adc and abc. The internal energy at a is Uₐ = 10 J. Along the path adc the system absorbs δQ₁ = 50 J and the work done is δW₁ = 20 J, whereas along the path abc the heat absorbed is Q₂ = 36 J. The amount of work done along the path abc is

[4 Marks] Diagram 3 – NEET-UG 2013 Question Paper — Set 2 Solutions
  • (A) 36J
  • (B) 10J
  • (C) 12J
  • (D) 6 J
Explanation:

From first law of thermodynamics

Q_adc = ΔU_adc + W_adc

50 J = ΔU_adc + 20 J

ΔU_adc = 30 J

Again,

Q_abc = ΔU_abc + W_abc

W_abc = Q_abc − ΔU_abc

= Q_abc − ΔU_adc

= 36 J − 30 J

= 6 J

Question 47.

One of the most frequently used techniques in DNA fingerprinting is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) AFLP
  • (B) VNTR
  • (C) SSCP
  • (D) SCAR
Explanation:

The technique of DNA fingerprinting was developed by Dr. Alec Jeffrey in 1984. It is a technique generally using repeated sequences (repetitive DNA) in the human genome that produces a pattern of band that is unique for every individuals. These short nucleotide repeats vary in number from person to person and are called variable number of tandem repeat (VNTR). VNTR belongs to class of satellite DNA referred to as minisatellite.

Question 48.

Which one of the following vectors is used to replace the defective gene in gene therapy?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Ti plasmid
  • (B) Adenovirus
  • (C) Cosmid
  • (D) Ri plasmid
Explanation:

Adenovirus is non‑enveloped dsDNA virus which cause respiratory diseases. Adenovirus is used as a vehicle to administer targeted therapy in the form of recombinant DNA or protein. Specific modifications on fibre proteins are used to target adenovirus to certain cell types, a major effort is made to limit hepatotoxicity and prevent multiple organ failure.

Question 49.

Which of the following relations does not give the equation of an adiabatic process, where terms have their usual meaning?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) PVᵞ = constant
  • (B) TVᵞ⁻¹ = constant
  • (C) Pᵞ T¹⁻ᵞ = constant
  • (D) P¹⁻ᵞTᵞ = constant
Explanation:

Adiabatic equations of state are

PVᵞ = constant TVᵞ⁻¹ = constant

P¹⁻ᵞTᵞ = constant

Question 50.

Which of the following statements is not true about somatic embryogenesis?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Somatic embryo is induced usually by an auxin such as 2, 4‑D
  • (B) Somatic embryos can develop from microspores
  • (C) The pattern of development of a somatic embryo is comparable to that of a zygotic embryo
  • (D) A somatic embryo develops from a somatic cell
Explanation:

Somatic embryogenesis is a process where a plant or embryo is derived from a single somatic cell or group of somatic cells. Somatic embryos are formed from plant cells that are not normally involved in the development of embryos, i.e., ordinary plant tissue. No endosperm or seed coat is formed around a somatic embryo.

Question 51.

Genes of interest can be selected from a genomic library by using

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Gene targets
  • (B) DNA probes
  • (C) Cloning vectors
  • (D) Restriction enzymes
Explanation:

A hybridization probe is a fragment of DNA of variable length which is used in DNA samples to detect the presence of nucleotide sequence (the DNA target) that are complementary to the sequence in the probe. The probe hybridize to single‑stranded DNA whose base sequence allow probe target base‑pairing due to complementarity between the probe and target.

Question 52.

During the process of isolation of DNA, chilled ethanol is added to

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Remove proteins such as histones
  • (B) Precipitate DNA
  • (C) Break open the cell to release DNA
  • (D) Facilitate action of restriction enzymes
Explanation:

Ethanol is non‑polar molecule while DNA is a polar molecule, it has a net negative charge due to the phosphate groups attached to it. When DNA is placed in a solution of 100% ethanol, it becomes insoluble and precipitates out of solution.

Question 53.

RNA interference involves

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Silencing of specific mRNA due to complementary RNA
  • (B) Interference of RNA in synthesis of DNA
  • (C) Synthesis of mRNA from DNA
  • (D) Synthesis of cDNA from RNA using reverse transcriptase
Explanation:

RNA is a method of cellular defense in all eukaryotes. It is a system within living cells that helps to control the activity of specific genes. This method involves silencing of mRNA due to complementary double stranded RNA that prevents translation of target gene or mRNA [silencing]. Source of ds RNA is retrovirus (having RNA genome) or transposons (mobile genetic material).

Question 54.

Benthic organisms are affected most by

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Water‑holding capacity of soil
  • (B) Light reaching the forest floor
  • (C) Surface turbulence of water
  • (D) Sediment characteristics of aquatic ecosystems
Explanation:

The sediment characteristics often determine the type of benthic animals that can thrive there.

Question 55.

Which of the following has maximum genetic diversity in India?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Rice
  • (B) Mango
  • (C) Wheat
  • (D) Groundnut
Explanation:

During the period 1960 to 2000 rice production went up from 35 million tonnes to 89.5 million tonnes. This was due to the development of semi-dwarf varieties of rice. There are 2,00,000 varieties of rice in India.

Question 56.

Which organization publishes the Red Data Book?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) GEF
  • (B) IUCN
  • (C) UNEP
  • (D) WWF
Explanation:

IUCN or WCN maintains a red data book which is a catalogue of threatened plants and animals facing risk of extinction. The IUCN red list (2004) documents the extinction of 784 species (including 338 vertebrates, 359 invertebrates and 87 plants) in the last 500 years.

Question 57.

The largest tiger reserve in India is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Nagarhole
  • (B) Valmiki
  • (C) Periyar
  • (D) Nagarjunsagar‑Srisailam
Explanation:

Nagarjunasagar‑Srisailam Tiger Reserve is the largest Tiger reserve in India and the only Tiger Reserve in Andhra Pradesh state.

Question 58.

The second commitment period for Kyoto Protocol was decided at

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Cancun
  • (B) Durban
  • (C) Bali
  • (D) Doha
Explanation:

The Kyoto Protocol is an international agreement linked to the United Nations Framework Convention on climate change which commits its parties by setting internationally binding emissions reduction targets. In Doha, Qatar on 8 December 2012, the “Doha Amendment to the Kyoto Protocol” was adopted. The second commitment period was from 1st Jan, 2013 to 31st Dec. 2020.

Question 59.

Which one of the following is a primary consumer in maize field ecosystem?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Lion
  • (B) Grasshopper
  • (C) Wolf
  • (D) Phytoplankton
Explanation:

In an ecosystem, producers (e.g., plants/phytoplankton) belong to first trophic level, herbivores or primary consumer (e.g., grasshopper) to the second and carnivores or secondary consumer (e.g., lion, wolf) to the third trophic level.

Question 60.

The characteristics of class Reptilia are :

[4 Marks]
  • (A) d. Marine animals with cartilaginous endoskeleton, body covered with placoid scales
  • (B) c. Fresh water animals with bony endoskeleton, air‑bladder to regulate buoyancy
  • (C) b. Body covered with moist skin which is devoid of scales, the ear is represented by a tympanum, alimentary canal, urinary and reproductive tracts open into a common cloaca
  • (D) a. Body covered with dry and cornified skin, scales over the body are epidermal, they do not have external ears
Explanation:

In option (a) all the characteristics belong to class Reptilia. In options (b), (c) and (d) the characteristics belong to the classes Amphibia, Osteichthyes and Chondrichthyes respectively.

Question 61.

Two Carnot engines A and B are operated in series. The engine A receives heat from the source at temperature T₁ and rejects heat to the sink at temperature T. The second engine B receives the heat at temperature T and rejects it to the sink at temperature T₂. For what value of T are the efficiencies of the two engines equal?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) √(T₁T₂²)
  • (B) T₁T₂
  • (C) T₁ − T₂/2
  • (D) T₁ + T₂/2
Explanation:

Efficiency of engine A, η₁ = 1 − T/T₁
Efficiency of engine B, η₂ = 1 − T₂/T
Here, η₁ = η₂
∴ T/T₁ = T₂/T ⇒ T = √(T₁T₂)

Question 62.

In a vessel, the gas is at a pressure P. If the mass of all the molecules is halved and their speed is doubled, then the resultant pressure will be

[4 Marks]
  • (A) P/2
  • (B) P
  • (C) 2P
  • (D) 4P
Explanation:

∵ P = 1/3.mN/V.v²ᵣₘₛ
where
m = mass of each molecule
N = total number of molecules
V = volume of the gas
When mass is halved and speed is doubled then

Resultant pressure, P' = 1/3 x (m/2) x N/V (2vᵣₘₛ)²

= 2P

Question 63.

Which one of the following animals is correctly matched with its one characteristic and the taxon?

Animal

Characteristic

Taxon

(a) Duckbilled platypus

Oviparous

Mammalian

(b) Millipede

Ventral nerve cord

Arachnida

(c) Sea Anemone

Triploblastic

Cnidaria

(d) Silverfish

Pectoral and Pelvic fins

Chordata

[4 Marks]
  • (A) a
  • (B) b
  • (C) c
  • (D) d
Explanation:

Duckbilled platypus is oviparous and comes under phylum mammalia. Millipede belongs to the phylum arthropoda. Sea‑anemone is diploblastic belongs to phylum cnidaria. Silver‑fish is an insect belongs to phylum arthropoda, having long antennae, no wings and move in a wriggling motion that resembles the movement of a fish.

Question 64.

Which one of the following groups of animals reproduces only by sexual means?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Ctenophora
  • (B) Porifera
  • (C) Cnidaria
  • (D) Protozoa
Explanation:

In Ctenophora, sexes are not separate. Reproduction takes place only by sexual means. In Cnidaria, which exist in both forms, polyps produce medusae asexually and medusae form the polyps sexually. Porifera (sponge) reproduce asexually by fragmentation and sexually by formation of gametes. Protozoans come under protista which reproduce asexually and sexually by cell fusion and zygote formation.

Question 65.

Sharks and dogfishes differ from skates and rays by

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Their pectoral fins distinctly marked off from cylindrical bodies
  • (B) Gill slits are ventrally placed
  • (C) Head and trunk are widened considerably
  • (D) Distinct demarcation between body and tail
Explanation:

Sharks and dogfishes have cylindrical body while skates and rays have flattened body with winglike pectoral fins which are not distinct from body.

Question 66.

Identify the tissue shown in the diagram and match with its characteristics and its location

[4 Marks] Diagram 4 – NEET-UG 2013 Question Paper — Set 2 Solutions
  • (A) Striated muscles, tapering at both‑ends, attached with the bones of the ribs
  • (B) Smooth muscles, show branching, found of the heart
  • (C) Skeletal muscle, shows striations and closely attached with the bones of the limbs
  • (D) Cardiac muscles, unbranched muscles, found in the walls of the heart
Explanation:

Skeletal muscle tissue is closely attached to skeletal bones. In a typical muscle such as the biceps, striated (striped) skeletal muscle fibres are bundled together in a parallel fashion.

Question 67.

A particle of mass m oscillates along x-axis according to equation x= a sin ωt. The nature of the graph between momentum and displacement of the particle is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) ellipse
  • (B) straight line passing through origin
  • (C) Circle
  • (D) hyperbola
Explanation:

As v²/a²ω² + y²/a² = 1 This is the equation of an ellipse. Hence the graph is an ellipse. P versus x graph is similar to v versus x graph.

Question 68.

Select the correct option with respect to cockroaches

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Malpighian tubules convert nitrogenous wastes into urea
  • (B) The fore wings are tegmina which are used in flight
  • (C) Males bear short anal styles not present in females
  • (D) Nervous system comprises of a dorsal nerve cord and ten pairs of ganglion
Explanation:

In cockroaches, males bear a pair of short thread‑like anal styles which are absent in females.

Question 69.

Select the alternative giving correct identification and function of the

organelle ‘A’ in the diagram.

[4 Marks] Diagram 5 – NEET-UG 2013 Question Paper — Set 2 Solutions
  • (A) Endoplasmic reticulum ‑ synthesis of lipids
  • (B) Mitochondria ‑ produce cellular energy in the form of ATP
  • (C) Golgi body ‑ provides packaging material
  • (D) Lysosomes ‑ secrete hydrolytic enzymes
Explanation:

In fig., (A) shows the cell organelle mitochondria The mitochondria are bounded by two membranes, i.e., outer membrane and inner membrane. Mitochondria are referred as “powerhouse” of the cell as they produce 95% of ATP. This energy is produced during the break down of food molecules which involve glycolysis, Oxidative decarboxylation and oxidative phosphorylation (krebs cycle and respiratory chain).

Question 70.

The length of the wire between two ends of a sonometer is 100 cm. What should be the positions of two bridges below the wire so that the three segments of the wire have their fundamental frequencies in the ratio of 1: 3 : 5 ?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 1500/23 cm, 500/23 cm
  • (B) 1500/23 cm, 300/23 cm
  • (C) 1500/23 cm , 2000/23 cm
  • (D) 300/23 cm, 1500/23 cm
Explanation:

From the formula, f = 1/x√T/m

⇒ f ∝ 1/l

∴ l₁ : l₂ : l₃ = 1/f₁ : 1/f₂ : 1/f₃

= f₂ f₃ : f₁ f₃: f₁ f₂

(Given, f₁ : f₂ : f₃ = 1 : 3 : 5)

=15: 5 : 3

Therefore the positions of two bridges below the wire are

15 x 100/ 15+ 5 +3 cm and 15 x 100 + 5 x 100/ 15 + 5 + 3cm

i.e., 1500/23 cm 2000/23 cm

Question 71.

Why is a capsule advantageous to a bacterium?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) It allows bacterium to “hide” from host’s immune system
  • (B) It protects the bacterium from desiccation
  • (C) It provides means of locomotion
  • (D) It allows the bacterium to attach to the surface
Explanation:

Capsule is a layer that lies outside the cell wall bacteria. The capsule can protect cells from engulfment by eukaryotic cells, such as macrophages. They also exclude bacterial viruses and most hydrophobic toxic materials such as detergents.

Question 72.

Two sources P and Q produce notes of frequency 660 HZ each. A listener moves from P to Q with a speed of 1 ms⁻¹ If the speed of sound is 330 m/s, then the number of beats heard by the listener per second will be

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 2
  • (B) 8
  • (C) zero
  • (D) 4
Explanation:

∆f/f = v/c

⇒ (Beats)/2/f = v/c

⇒ Beats = 2 fv/c = 4

Question 73.

Which of the following statements about enzymes is wrong?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Enzymes require optimum pH and temperature for maximum activity
  • (B) Enzymes are mostly proteins but some are lipids also
  • (C) Enzymes are denatured at high temperatures
  • (D) Enzymes are highly specific
Explanation:

Almost all enzymes are proteins. There are some nucleic acids that behave like enzymes. There are called ribozyme (also called RNA enzyme or catalytic RNA).

Question 74.

A charge ‘q’ is placed at the centre of the line joining two equal charges ‘Q’. The system of the three charges’ will be in equilibrium if‘ "q” is equal to

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Q/2
  • (B) -Q/2
  • (C) Q/4
  • (D) -Q/4
Explanation:

The system of three charges will be in equilibrium.

For this, force between charge at A and B + force between charge at point O and either at A or B is zero

i. e. , kQ²/(2r)² + kQq/(r)² = 0

By solving we get,

q =- Q/4

Diagram 6 – NEET-UG 2013 Question Paper — Set 2 Solutions
Question 75.

An electric dipole of dipole moment p is aligned parallel to a uniform electric field E. The energy required to rotate the dipole by 90⁰ is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) infinity
  • (B) pE
  • (C) p²E
  • (D) pE²
Explanation:

When electric dipole is aligned parallel

θ = 0° and the dipole is rotated by 90° i.e.,

θ = 90°

Energy required to rotate the dipole

W = U_f - Uᵢ = (- pE cos 90°) −(-pE cos 0°)

= pE.

Question 76.

The figure shows a hypothetical tetrapeptide portion of a protein with parts labelled A-D. Which one of the following option is correct?

[4 Marks] Diagram 7 – NEET-UG 2013 Question Paper — Set 2 Solutions
  • (A) Adis the sulphur containing amino acid - methionine
  • (B) D is the acidic amino acid - glutamic acid"
  • (C) C isan aromatic amino acid - tryptophan
  • (D) Aisthe C - terminal amino acid and D is N terminal amino acid
Explanation:

Glutamic acid and aspartic acid are acidic amino acids with two carboxylic groups and one amino group

Question 77.

A stage of mitosis is shown in the diagram. Which stage is it and what are its characteristics?

[4 Marks] Diagram 8 – NEET-UG 2013 Question Paper — Set 2 Solutions
  • (A) Anaphase – centromeres split and chromatids separate and start moving away
  • (B) Metaphase – chromosomes moved to spindle equator, chromosomes made up of two sister chromatids
  • (C) Late prophase – chromosomes move to spindle equator
  • (D) Metaphase – spindle fibres attached to kinetochores, centromeres split and chromatids separate
Explanation:

Metaphase chromosome is made up of two sister chromatids which are held together by the centromere. Chromosomes are moved to spindle equator and gets aligned along metaphase plate through spindle fibers to both poles.

Question 78.

A healthy person eats the following diet – 5 gm raw sugar, 4 gm albumin, 10 gm pure buffalo ghee adulterated with 2 gm vegetable ghee (hydrogenated vegetable oil) and 5 gm lignin. How many calories is he likely to get?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 144
  • (B) 126
  • (C) 112
  • (D) 164
Explanation:

Physiological value of carbohydrates is 4.0 kcal/g, proteins 4.0 kcal/g and of fats is 9.0 kcal/g. Hence, 5 g raw sugar will yield 5 × 4.0 = 20.0 kcal

4 g albumin (protein) will yield 4 × 4.0

= 16.0 kcal 10 + 2 g of fat will yield 12 × 9.0 = 108.0 kcal Total yield = 144 kcal.

Question 79.

Which enzymes are likely to act on the baked potatoes eaten by a man, starting from the mouth and as it moves down the alimentary canal?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Salivary maltase → carboxypeptidase → trypsinogen
  • (B) Disaccharidase like maltase → lipases → nucleases
  • (C) Pancreatic amylase → salivary amylase → lipases
  • (D) Salivary amylase → pancreatic amylase → disaccharidases
Explanation:

Chemical process of digestion started in the oral cavity by the hydrolytic action of the carbohydrate (potato contains starch) splitting enzyme, the salivary amylase. Carbohydrates in the chyme are hydrolysed by pancreatic amylase into disaccharides.

Question 80.

Which one of the following is one of the paths followed by air/O₂ during respiration in an adult male Periplaneta americana as it enters the animal body?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Hypopharynx, mouth, pharynx, trachea, tissues
  • (B) Spiracle in metathorax, trachea, tracheoles, oxygen diffuses into cells
  • (C) Spiracles in prothorax, tracheoles, trachea, oxygen diffuses into cells
  • (D) Mouth, bronchial tube, trachea, oxygen enters cells
Explanation:

The number of spiracles in cockroach is 10‑pairs (2‑pairs in thoracic and 8‑pairs in abdominal region). The thoracic pairs of spiracles are present on pleuron between prothorax ‑ mesothorax and metathorax. Each spiracle opens into a chamber called atrium. After atrium the tracheal tube ramifies into fine branches of tracheae, and then tracheoles.

Question 81.

The figure shows a human blood cell. Identify it and give its characteristics.

[4 Marks] Diagram 9 – NEET-UG 2013 Question Paper — Set 2 Solutions
  • (A) Blood Cell-B‑lymphocyte ; Characteristics - Form about 20% of blood cells involved in immune response
  • (B) Blood Cell-Basophil ; Characteristics - Secrete serotonin, inflammatory response
  • (C) Blood Cell-Neutrophil ; Characteristics -Most abundant blood cell, phagocytic
  • (D) Blood Cell-Monocyte; Characteristics - Life span 3 days, produce antibodies
Explanation:

Basophils secrete histamine, serotonin, heparin, etc., and are involved in inflammatory reactions.

Question 82.

Figure shows blood circulation in humans with labels A to D. Select the option which gives correct identification of label and functions of the part:

[4 Marks] Diagram 10 – NEET-UG 2013 Question Paper — Set 2 Solutions
  • (A) C — Vein — thin walled and blood flows in jerks/spurts
  • (B) D — Pulmonary vein — takes oxygenated blood to heart PO₂ = 95 mmHg
  • (C) A — Artery — thick walled and blood flows evenly
  • (D) B — Capillary — thin without muscle layers and wall two cell thick
Explanation:

Artery is blood vessel which receives blood from heart, has elastic thick wall shows jerky movements due to pumping activity of heart. Vein is a blood vessel which carries blood towards the heart, has wider lumen with internal valves where blood flows smoothly and slowly. Blood capillary is a very fine blood vessel which has a single layered wall. Pulmonary veins are the only veins which carry oxygenated blood. (pO₂ = 95 mmHg, pCO₂ = 40 mmHg)

Question 83.

Two rods are joined end to end, as shown. Both have a cross-sectional area of 0.01 cm². Each is 1 meter long . One rod is of copper with a resistivity of 1.7 x 10⁻⁶ ohm -centimeter, the other is of iron with a resistivity of 10⁻⁵ ohm-centimeter.

How much voltage is required to produce a current Of 1 ampere in the rods?

[4 Marks] Diagram 11 – NEET-UG 2013 Question Paper — Set 2 Solutions
  • (A) 0.117 V
  • (B) 0.00145V
  • (C) 0.0145V
  • (D) 1.7 x 10⁻⁶V
Explanation:

Copper rod and iron rod are joined in series.

∴ R = R_Cu + R_Fe = (ρ₁ + ρ₂)l/A (∵ R = ρl/A)

From Ohm's law, V = RI

= (1.7 × 10⁻⁶ × 10⁻² + 10⁻⁵ × 10⁻²) ÷ 0.01 × 10⁻⁴ volt

= 0.117 volt (∵ I = 1 A)

Question 84.

Select the correct statement with respect to disorders of muscles in humans

[4 Marks]
  • (A) An overdose of vitamin D causes osteoporosis
  • (B) Accumulation of urea and creatine in the joints causes their inflammation
  • (C) Failure of neuromuscular transmission in myasthenia gravis can prevent normal swallowing
  • (D) Rapid contractions of skeletal muscles causes muscle dystrophy
Explanation:

Myasthenia gravis is a chronic autoimmune muscular disease. It causes breakdown of neuromuscular junction due to which the brain loses control over muscles. The difficulty symptoms may include drooping eyelids, difficulty in swallowing muscle fatigue, difficult breathing and inability to control facial expressions.

Question 85.

Select the option which shows correct matching of animal with excretory organs and excretory product.

Animal

Excretory organs

Excretory product

(a) Housefly

Renal tubules

Uric acid

(b) Labeo (Rohu)

Nephridial tubes

Ammonia

(c) Salamander

Kidney

Urea

(d) Peacock

Kidney

Urea

[4 Marks]
  • (A) b
  • (B) a
  • (C) d
  • (D) c
Explanation:

Salamander (Amphibia; Caudata) excrete urea by help of kidneys.

Question 86.

A 12 cm wire is given a shape of a right angled triangle ABC having sides 3 cm, 4 cm and 5 cm as shown in the figure. The resistance between two ends (4B, BC, CA) of the respective sides are measured one by one by a multi meter. The resistances will be in the ratio of

[4 Marks] Diagram 12 – NEET-UG 2013 Question Paper — Set 2 Solutions
  • (A) 21:24:25
  • (B) 27:32:35
  • (C) 9:16:25
  • (D) 3:4:5
Explanation:

Resistance is directly proportional to length.

1/R_AB = 1/3 + 1/4 + 5 = (4 + 5 )+ 3/(3)(4 + 5)

R_AB = 3×(4 + 5)/3 + (4 + 5) = 27/12

Similarly,

R_BC = 4×(3 + 5)/4 + (3 + 5) = 32/12

R_AC = 5×(3 + 4)/5 +( 3 + 4) = 35/12

∴ R_AB : R_BC : R_AC = 27 : 32 : 35

Question 87.

Ten identical cells connected in series are needed to heat a wire of length one meter and radius ‘r' by 10°C in time 't'. How many cells will be required to heat the wire of length

two meter of the same radius by the same temperature in time ‘t'?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 30
  • (B) 40
  • (C) 20
  • (D) 10
Explanation:

Resistance is directly proportional to length of the wire. As length is doubled, so mass is doubled and resistance is doubled.

We have

(10E)²/R × t = mSΔT ,Now, (nE)²t/2R = (2m)SΔT

⇒ n²E²t / 2R = 2.10²E²t/R

⇒ n = 20

Question 88.

A long straight wire carries a certain current and produces a magnetic field of 2 x 10⁻⁴ weber/m² at a perpendicular distance of 5cm from the wire. An electron situated at 5 cm

from the wire moves with a velocity 10⁷ m/s towards the wire along perpendicular to it. The force experienced by the electron will be

(charge on electron =1.6 x 10⁻¹⁹ C)

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 3.2N
  • (B) 3.2 x 10⁻¹⁶ N
  • (C) 1.6 x 10⁻¹⁶ N
  • (D) Zero
Explanation:

Given:

Magnetic field, B = 2 × 10⁻⁴ weber/m²

Velocity of electron, v = 10⁷ m/s

Lorentz force,

F = qvB sin θ

= 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ × 10⁷ × 2 × 10⁻⁴ × sin 90°

= 3.2 × 10⁻¹⁶ N

Question 89.

A circular coil ABCD carrying a current i is placed in a uniform magnetic field. If the magnetic force on the segment AB is 𝐅⃗, the force on the remaining segment BCDA is

[4 Marks] Diagram 13 – NEET-UG 2013 Question Paper — Set 2 Solutions
  • (A) -3𝐅⃗
  • (B) -𝐅⃗
  • (C) 𝐅⃗
  • (D) 3𝐅⃗
Explanation:

Here, 𝐅⃗_AB + 𝐅⃗_BCDA = 𝐎⃗

⇒ 𝐅⃗_BCDA = −𝐅⃗_AB = −𝐅⃗

(∵ F_AB = 𝐅⃗)

Question 90.

A bar magnet of magnetic moment M is placed at right angles to a magnetic induction B. If a force F is experienced by each pole of the magnet, the length of the magnet will

be

[4 Marks]
  • (A) MB|F
  • (B) MF|B
  • (C) MB|F
  • (D) F|MB
Explanation:

Torque FL=MB ⇒ L = MB/F

Question 91.

A current of 2.5 A flows through a coil of inductance 5 H. The magnetic flux linked with the coil is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Zero
  • (B) 12.5Wb
  • (C) 0.5Wb
  • (D) 2Wb
Explanation:

Given: Current, I = 2.5 A
Inductance, L = 5 H

Magnetic flux, ϕ = ?

We know, ϕ = LI ⇒ 5 × 2.5 = 12.5 Wb

Question 92.

The primary of a transformer when connected to a dc battery of 10 volt draws a current of 1 mA. The number of turns of the primary and secondary windings are 50 and 100 respectively. The voltage in the secondary and the current drawn by the circuit in the secondary are respectively

[3 Marks]
  • (A) Zero and therefore no current
  • (B) 10 V and 0.5 mA
  • (C) 20 V and 0.5 mA
  • (D) 20 V and 2.0 mA
Explanation:

A transformer is essentially an AC device. DC source so no mutual induction between the coils.

⇒ E₂ = 0 and I₂ = 0

Question 93.

An electromagnetic wave of frequency v = 3.0 MHz passes from vacuum into a dielectric medium with relative permittivity ε =4.0. Then

[4 Marks]
  • (A) wavelength and frequency both remain unchanged
  • (B) wavelength is halved and frequency remains unchanged
  • (C) wavelength is doubled and frequency becomes half
  • (D) wavelength is doubled and frequency is unchanged
Explanation:

Given: Frequency, f = 2 MHz

Relative permittivity, ∈ᵣ = 4

From the formula,

velocity = c/√∈ᵣ = c/2 ⇒ λ' = λ/2

[since frequency remains unchanged]

Question 94.

Two plane mirrors are inclined at 70°. A ray incident on one mirror at angle 0 after reflection falls on second mirror and is reflected from there parallel to first mirror. The value of 0 is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 50⁰
  • (B) 45⁰
  • (C) 30⁰
  • (D) 55⁰
Explanation:

From fig. 40°+ θ = 90° ∴ θ = 90°- 40°=50°

Diagram 14 – NEET-UG 2013 Question Paper — Set 2 Solutions
Question 95.

In Young’s double slit experiment the distance between the slits and the screen is doubled. The separation between the slits is reduced to half. As a result the fringe width

[4 Marks]
  • (A) remains unchanged
  • (B) becomes four times
  • (C) is halved
  • (D) is doubled
Explanation:

Fringe width, β = λD/d

From the question, D′ = 2D and d′ = d/2

∴ β′ = λD′/d′ = 4β

Question 96.

A parallel beam of light of wavelength . is incident normally on a narrow slit. A diffraction pattern is formed on a screen placed perpendicular to the direction of the incident beam.

At the second minimum of the diffraction pattern, the phase difference between the rays coming from the two edges of slit is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 3π
  • (B) 4π
  • (C) 2π
  • (D) πλ
Explanation:

Conditions for diffraction minima are:

Path difference, Δx = nλ and Phase diff. δϕ = 2nπ

Path diff. = nλ = 2λ

Phase diff. = 2nπ = 4π (∵ n = 2)

Question 97.

The de-Broglie wavelength of neutron in thermal equilibrium at temperature T' is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 0.0308/√T Å
  • (B) 30.8/√T Å
  • (C) 3.08/√T Å
  • (D) 0.308/√T Å
Explanation:

From the formula, λ = h/√(2mkT)

= 6.63 × 10⁻³⁴ / √(2 × 1.67 × 10⁻²⁷ × 1.38 × 10⁻²³ × T) . m

(By placing the values of h, m and k)

= 30.8/√T Å

Question 98.

A source of light is placed at a distance of 50 cm from a photocell and the stopping potential is found to be V₀. If the distance between the light source and photocell is made 25 cm, the new stopping potential will be

[4 Marks]
  • (A) V₀
  • (B) 4V₀
  • (C) 2V₀
  • (D) V₀/2
Explanation:

Since stopping potential is independent of distance, the new stopping potential will remain unchanged i.e., new stopping potential = V₀

Question 99.

An electron in hydrogen atom makes a transition n₁ → n₂ where n₁ and n₂ are principal quantum numbers of the two states. Assuming Bohr's model to be valid the time period of the electron in the initial state is eight times that in the final state. The possible values of n₁ and n₂ are

[4 Marks]
  • (A) n₁ = 6 and n₂ = 2
  • (B) n₁ = 4 and n₂ = 2
  • (C) n₁ = 8 and n₂ = 2
  • (D) n₁ = 8 and n₂ = 1
Explanation:

∵ T ∝ n³

T₁/T₂ = 8T₂/T₂ = (n₁/n₂)³

Hence, n₁ = 2n₂

Question 100.

How does the binding energy per nucleon vary with the increase in the number of nucleons?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) First decreases and then increases with increase in ‘mass number
  • (B) First increases and then decreases with increase in mass number
  • (C) Decreases continuously with mass number
  • (D) Increases continuously with mass number
Explanation:

From the graph of BE/A versus mass number A it is clear that, BE/A first increases and then decreases with increase in mass number.

Diagram 15 – NEET-UG 2013 Question Paper — Set 2 Solutions
Question 101.

During muscle contraction in humans the

[4 Marks]
  • (A) A band remain same
  • (B) A, H and I bands shorten
  • (C) Sarcomere does not shorten
  • (D) Actin filaments shorten
Explanation:

Increase in Ca⁺⁺ level into the sarcoplasm leads to the binding of calcium with a subunit of troponin on actin filaments and thereby remove the masking of active sites for myosin. Utilising the energy from ATP hydrolysis, the myosin head now binds to the exposed active sites on actin to form a cross bridge. This pulls the attached actin filaments towards the centre of ‘A’ band. The ‘Z’ lines attached to these actins are also pulled inwards thereby causing a shortening of the sarcomere, i.e., contraction. It is clear from the above steps, that during shortening of the muscle, i.e., contraction, the ‘I’ bands get reduced, whereas the ‘A’ bands retain the length.

Question 102.

α-particles, β-particles and γ-rays are all having same energy. Their penetrating power in a given medium in increasing order will be

[4 Marks]
  • (A) γ, α, β
  • (B) β, γ, α
  • (C) α, β, γ
  • (D) β, α, γ
Explanation:

Increasing order of penetrating power :

α< β< γ .

Question 103.

In an unbiased p-n junction, holes diffuse from the p-region to n-region because of

[4 Marks]
  • (A) the higher hole concentration in p-region than that in n-region
  • (B) the higher concentration of electrons in the n-region than that in the p-region
  • (C) the attraction of free electrons of n-region
  • (D) the potential difference across the p-n junction
Explanation:

In p-region of p-n junction

holes concentration > electrons concentration and in n- region of p-n junction

electrons concentration > holes concentration.

Question 104.

One way in which the operation of a n-p-n transistor differs from that of a p-n-p

[4 Marks]
  • (A) the emitter injects holes into the base of n-p-n
  • (B) the emitter junction injects minority carriers into the base region of the p-n-p
  • (C) the emitter injects holes into the base of the p-n -p . and electrons into the base region of n-p-n
  • (D) the emitter junction is reversed biased in n-p-n
Explanation:

In p-n-p transistor holes are injected into the base while electrons are injected into the base of n-p-n transistor. Emitter-base junction is forward biased.

Question 105.

The output from a NAND gate is divided into two in parallel and fed to another NAND gate. The resulting gate is a

[4 Marks] Diagram 16 – NEET-UG 2013 Question Paper — Set 2 Solutions
  • (A) ORgate
  • (B) NOR gate
  • (C) AND gate
  • (D) NOT gate
Explanation:

C′ = (A̅ · B̅)̅ ⇒ C = A̅̅ · B̅̅ = A · B

Hence, the resultant gate is AND gate.

Question 106.

The ratio of radii of gyration of a circular ring and a circular disc, of the same mass and radius, about an axis passing through their centres and perpendicular to their planes are

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 3 : 2
  • (B) 1 : √ 2
  • (C) √2 : 1
  • (D) 2 : 1
Explanation:

∵ I = MK² ∴ K = √(I/M)

I_ring = MR² and I_disc = 1/2 MR²

K₁/K₂ = √(I₁/I₂) = √MR²/(MR²/2) = √2 : 1

Question 107.

A charge g is located at the centre of a cube. The electric flux through any face is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 4πq /6(4πε₀)
  • (B) πq/6(4πε₀)
  • (C) 2πq/6(4πε₀)
  • (D) q/6(4πε₀)
Explanation:

Cube has 6 faces. Flux through any face is given by

ϕ = q/6ε₀ = q4π/6(4πε₀)

Question 108.

In an experiment it showed that 10 mL of 0.05 M solution of chloride required 10 mL of 0.1 M solution of AgNO₃. Which of the following will be the formula of the chloride (X stands for the symbol of the element other than

[4 Marks]
  • (A) XCl₂
  • (B) XCl₄
  • (C) X₂Cl
  • (D) X₂Cl₂
Explanation:

Millimoles of solution of chloride = 0.05 × 10 = 0.5 Millimoles of AgNO₃ solution = 10 × 0.1 = 1 So, the millimoles of AgNO₃ are double than the chloride solution. ∴ XCl₂ + 2AgNO₃ → 2AgCl + X(NO₃)₂

Question 109.

According to the law of photochemical equivalence, the energy absorbed (in ergs/mole) is given as (h = 6.62 × 10⁻²⁷ erg s, c = 3 × 10¹⁰ cm s⁻¹, Nₐ = 6.02 × 10²³ mol⁻¹)

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 1.196 × 10¹⁶ / λ
  • (B) 1.196 × 10⁸ / λ
  • (C) 2.859 × 10⁵ / λ
  • (D) 2.859 × 10¹⁶ / λ
Explanation:

E = hc/λ × N_A

= 6.62 × 10⁻²⁷ × 3 × 10¹⁰ × 6.02 × 10²³ / λ

= 1.19 × 10⁸ / λ ergs mol⁻¹

Question 110.

Which one of the following arrangements represents the correct order of least negative to most negative electron gain enthalpy for C, Ca, Al, F and O?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Ca < Al < C < O < F
  • (B) Al < Ca < O < C < F
  • (C) Al < O < C < Ca < F
  • (D) C < F < O < Al < Ca
Explanation:
As the nuclear charge increases, the force of attraction between the nucleus and the incoming electron increases and hence the electron gain enthalpy becomes more negative, hence the correct order is  
Ca < Al < C < O < F  
Question 111.

In which of the following pair both the species have sp³ hybridization?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) H₂S, BF₃
  • (B) SiF₄, BeH₂
  • (C) NF₃, H₂O
  • (D) NF₃, BF₃
Explanation:

Applying VSEPR theory, both NF₃ and H₂O are sp³ hybridized.

Question 112.

A sagittal section of human‑brain is shown here. Identify at least two labels from A‑D.

[4 Marks] Diagram 17 – NEET-UG 2013 Question Paper — Set 2 Solutions
  • (A) A – Cerebral hemispheres; B – Cerebellum
  • (B) C – Mid brain; D – Cerebellum
  • (C) B – Corpus callosum; D – Medulla
  • (D) A – Cerebrum; C – Pons
Explanation:

Cerebrum is the first and most developed part of forebrain. It makes 2/3rd part of total brain. Pons is a small spherical projection, which is situated below the midbrain and upper side of the medulla oblongata. It acts as a relay centre among different parts of brain. B and D are thalamus and spinal cord respectively.

Question 113.

The figure shows an axon terminal and synapse. Select the option giving correct identifications of labels A‑D

[4 Marks] Diagram 18 – NEET-UG 2013 Question Paper — Set 2 Solutions
  • (A) A – Axon terminal; B – Serotonin complex
  • (B) A – Action potential; C – Neurotransmitter
  • (C) B – Neurotransmitter; D – Receptor capsules
  • (D) C – Receptor; D – Synaptic vesicles
Explanation:

In the given figure, A, B, C and D are axon, neurotransmitters, receptors and synaptic vesicles respectively.

Question 114.

Which of the following represents the action of insulin?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Increases blood glucose levels by hydrolysis of glycogen
  • (B) Increases blood glucose levels by stimulating glycogen production
  • (C) Decreases blood glucose levels by forming glycogen
  • (D) Decreases blood glucose level by promoting cellular uptake of glucose
Explanation:

Insulin is a peptide hormone, which plays a major role in the regulation of glucose homeostasis. Insulin acts mainly on hepatocytes and adipocytes (cells of adipose tissue), and enhances cellular glucose uptake and utilization. Insulin also stimulates conversion of glucose into glycogen (glycogenesis) in the target cells.

Question 115.

Norepinephrine: (1) Is released by sympathetic fibres

(2) Is released by parasympathetic fibres

(3) Increases the heart rate

(4) Decreases blood pressure

Which of the above said statements are correct?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) (1) and (4)
  • (B) (2) and (3)
  • (C) (1) and (3)
  • (D) (2) and (4)
Explanation:

Norepinephrine is released by sympathetic fibres i.e., rapidly secreted in response to stress of any kind and, during emergency situations. It increases the heart beat, the strength of heart contraction and the rate of respiration.

Question 116.

The figure shows a section of human ovary. Select the option which gives the correct identification of A and B with function/characteristic

[4 Marks] Diagram 19 – NEET-UG 2013 Question Paper — Set 2 Solutions
  • (A) B – Corpus luteum – secretes estrogen
  • (B) A – Tertiary follicle – forms Graafian follicle
  • (C) B – Corpus luteum – secretes progesterone
  • (D) A – Primary oocyte – it is the prophase – I of the meiotic division
Explanation:

The corpus luteum is a temporary endocrine structure in female mammals that is involved in the production of relatively high levels of progesterone. A marked in the figure shows primary follicle, a layer of granulosa cells, surrounds each primary oocyte. A large number of these follicles degenerate during the phase from birth to puberty.

Question 117.

Select the option which correctly matches the endocrine gland with its hormone and its function.

Endocrine gland

Hormone

Function

(a) Ovary

FSH

Stimulates follicular development and the secretion of estrogens.

(b) Placenta

Estrogen

Initiates secretion of the milk.

(c) Corpus luteum

Estrogen

Essential for maintenance of endometrium.

(d) Leydig

Androgen

Initiates the cells production of sperms.

[4 Marks]
  • (A) a
  • (B) b
  • (C) c
  • (D) d
Explanation:

Leydig cells or interstitial cells, which are present in the intertubular spaces produce a group of hormones called androgens mainly testosterone. Androgens play a major stimulatory role in the process of spermato‑genesis (formation of spermatozoa).

Question 118.

One of the following is not a method of contraception – which one?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Lippes loop
  • (B) Pills of a combination of oxytocin and vasopressin
  • (C) Condoms
  • (D) Tubectomy
Explanation:

Oxytocin is birth hormone and acts on the smooth muscles of our body and stimulates their contraction. Vasopressin acts mainly at the kidney and stimulates resorption of water and electrolytes and reduces loss of water through urine. Hence, it is also called as anti‑diuretic hormone (ADH).

Question 119.

The foetal ejection reflex in humans triggers release of

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Oxytocin from maternal pituitary
  • (B) Oxytocin from foetal pituitary
  • (C) Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG) from placenta
  • (D) Human Placental Lactogen (hPL) from placenta
Explanation:

Parturition is induced by a complex neuroendocrine mechanism. The signals for parturition originate from the fully developed foetus and the placenta which induce mild uterine contractions called foetal ejection reflex. This triggers release of oxytocin from the maternal pituitary.

Question 120.

‘Which one of the following statements is correct rega Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STD)?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Haemophilia is one of the STD
  • (B) Genital herpes and sickle-cell anaemia are both STD
  • (C) The chances ofa 5 year boy contacting a STD are very little
  • (D) A person may contact syphilis by sharing milk with one already suffering from the disease
Explanation:

STDs are more common in 15-24 years age group. Gonorrhoea, syphilis, genital herpes, chlamydiasis, genital warts, trichomoniasis, hepatitis-B and AIDS are some of the common STDs. Haemophilia is sex-linked recessive disease, which show its transmission from unaffected carrier female to some of male progeny. Sickle cell anaemia is an autoimmune linked recessive trait in which both the partners are carrier for the gene.

Question 121.

The stage transferred into the uterus after induced fertilization of ova in the laboratory is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Zygote
  • (B) Embryo at 4 blastomere stage
  • (C) Embryo at 2 blastomere stage
  • (D) Morula
Explanation:

In Intra‑Uterine Transfer (IUT) embryo with more than 8‑blastomeres stage (morula) is used for transfer into the uterus.

Question 122.

Which one is the incorrect statement with regards to the importance of pedigree analysis?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) It confirms that DNA is the carrier of genetic information
  • (B) It helps to trace the inheritance of a specific trait
  • (C) It helps to understand whether the trait in question is dominant or recessive
  • (D) It confirms that the trait is linked to one of the autosome
Explanation:

Pedigree is a chart showing the record of inheritance of certain genetic traits for two or more ancestral generations of an individual, abnormality or disease.

Question 123.

In our society women are blamed for producing female children. Choose the correct answer for the sex‑determination in humans

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Due to the genetic make up of the particular sperm which fertilizes the egg
  • (B) Due to the genetic make up of the egg
  • (C) Due to some defect like asperimia in man
  • (D) Due to some defect in the women
Explanation:

In case of humans, the sex determining mechanism is XY type. Out of 23 pairs of chromosomes, 22 pairs are exactly same in both males and females called autosomes. A pair of X‑chromosomes present in the female, whereas the presence of an X and Y chromosome are determinant of male characteristic. In case the ovum fertilises with a sperm carrying X‑chromosome the zygote develops into a female (XX) and the fertilisation of ovum with Y‑chromosome carrying sperm results into a male offspring.

Question 124.

Down’s syndrome in humans is due to

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Two ‘Y’ chromosomes
  • (B) Three ‘X’ chromosomes
  • (C) Three copies of chromosome 21
  • (D) Monosomy
Explanation:

Down’s syndrome is the chromosomal disorders due to the presence of an additional copy of the chromosome number 21 (trisomy of 21). The affected individual is short statured with small round head, furrowed tongue and partially open mouth and mental development is retarded.

Question 125.

The figure gives an important concept in the genetic implication of DNA. Fill the blanks A, B and C.

[4 Marks] Diagram 20 – NEET-UG 2013 Question Paper — Set 2 Solutions
  • (A) A — Erwin Chargaff; B — translation; C — replication
  • (B) A — James Watson; B — replication; C — extension
  • (C) A — Francis Crick; B — translation; C — transcription
  • (D) A — Maurice Wilkins; B — transcription; C — translation
Explanation:

In this question A is Francis Crick, B is translation and C is transcription. It is unidirectional flow of information from DNA to mRNA (transcription) and then decoding the information present in mRNA in the formation of polypeptide chain or protein (translation).

Question 126.

In an inducible operon, the genes are

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Always expressed
  • (B) Usually not expressed unless a signal turns them “on”
  • (C) Usually not expressed unless a signal turns them “off”
  • (D) Never expressed
Explanation:

Inducible operons are usually switched off. This is a type of operon which is switched on when a chemical called inducer is present. The inducer is almost always a substrate.

Question 127.

The finch species of Galapagos Islands are grouped according to their food sources. Which of the following is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Seeds
  • (B) Carrion
  • (C) Tree buds
  • (D) Insects
Explanation:

Darwin observed an amazing diversity of creatures on Galapagos islands. He realised that there were many varieties of finches in the same island like seed‑eating, insect‑eating and cactus‑eating varieties.

Question 128.

Dinosaurs dominated the world in which of the following geological era?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Coenozoic
  • (B) Devonion
  • (C) Jurassic
  • (D) Mesozoic
Explanation:

Dinosaurs dominated the world in mesozoic era. In Triassic period, giant reptiles (dinosaurs) emerged. In Jurassic period, dinosaurs diversified and abundant (golden age of dinosaurs) and in cretaceous period, mass extinction of dinosaurs occurred.

Question 129.

Identify the site where Wuchereria bancrofti is normally found on human body

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Bloog vessels of the thigh region
  • (B) Skin between the fingers
  • (C) Lymphatic vessels of the lower limbs
  • (D) Muscles of the legs
Explanation:

Wuchereria (W. bancrofti and W. malayi), filarial worms causing chronic inflammation of the organs in which they live for many years, usually the lymphatic vessels of the lower limbs and the disease caused by them known as elephantiasis or filariasis. The genital organs are mainly affected, resulting in gross deformities. The pathogens are transmitted to a healthy person through the bite by the female mosquito vectors.

Question 130.

Which one of the following is a hallucinogenic drug?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Opium
  • (B) Caffeine
  • (C) Morphine
  • (D) Lysergic acid diethylamide
Explanation:

Hallucinogens are drugs that cause illusions and delusions (hallucinations) and change the feelings or perception. Examples are Bhang, Charas, Hashish, Marijuana (all cannabinoids) and LSD (Lysergic acid diethylamide). Opium and morphine are opiate narcotics (opioids) having analgesic (pain relieving effect) while caffeine is a stimulant that increases the activity of nervous system, and causes awakening.

Question 131.

Tissue culture technique can produce infinite number of new plants from a small parental tissue. The economic importance of the technique is in raising

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Development of new species
  • (B) Homozygous diploid plants
  • (C) Variants through picking up somaclonal variations
  • (D) Genetically uniform population identical to the original parent
Explanation:

The method of producing thousands of plants through tissue culture is called micro‑propagation. Each of these plants will be genetically identical to the original plant from which they were grown, i.e., they are somaclones. Many important food plants like tomato, banana, apple have been produced on commercial scale using this method.

Question 132.

Microbe used for biocontrol of pest butterfly caterpillars is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
  • (B) Trichoderma sp.
  • (C) Streptococcus sp.
  • (D) Bacillus thuringiensis
Explanation:

Microbial biocontrol agent that can be introduced in order to control butterfly caterpillars is the bacteria Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt). They are sprayed onto vulnerable plants, where they are eaten by the insect larvae. In the gut of the larvae, the toxin is released and the larvae get killed. The bacterial disease will kill the caterpillars, but leave other insects unharmed.

Question 133.

The age pyramid with broad base indicates

[4 Marks]
  • (A) High percentage of old individuals
  • (B) High percentage of young individuals
  • (C) Low percentage of young individuals
  • (D) A stable population
Explanation:

Age pyramid is a graphic representation of different age groups of population with pre‑reproductive groups at the base, reproductive ones in the middle and post‑reproductive groups at the top. In triangular age pyramid, the number of pre‑reproductive individuals is very large while reproductive are moderate and post‑reproductive are fewer.

Question 134.

When man eats fish which feeds on zooplankton which have eaten small plants, the producer in the chain is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Zooplankton
  • (B) Small plants
  • (C) Fish
  • (D) Man
Explanation:

Plants are producers which can prepare their food by the process of photosynthesis. Zooplanktons, fish and man are primary, secondary and tertiary carnivores respectively.

Question 135.

Which one of the following is not a parasitic adaptation?

[5 Marks]
  • (A) Loss of unnecessary sense organs
  • (B) Development of adhesive organs
  • (C) Loss of digestive organs
  • (D) Loss of reproductive capacity
Explanation:

In parasitism, one species (parasite) is benefited and the other (host) is harmed. Parasites have very high reproduction capacity. The life cycles of parasites are often complex, involving one or two intermediate hosts or vectors to facilitate parasitisation of its primary host.

Question 136.

Climate of the world is threatened by

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Decreasing amount of atmospheric carbondioxide
  • (B) Increasing amount of atmospheric carbondioxide
  • (C) Decreasing amount of atmospheric oxygen
  • (D) Increasing concentration of atmospheric oxygen
Explanation:

The increase in the level of greenhouse gases (e.g., CO₂, CH₄, CFC, N₂O etc.) has led to the considerable heating of earth surface leading to global warming. The relative contributions of various greenhouse gases to global warming is: CO₂ (60%) > CH₄ (20%) > CFC (14%) > N₂O (6%)

Question 137.

Which one of the following is not correct as regards the harmful effects of particulate matter of the size 2.5 micro meters or less?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) It can be inhaled into the lungs
  • (B) It can cause respiratory problems
  • (C) It can directly enter into our circulatory system
  • (D) It can cause inflammation and damage to the lungs
Explanation:

According to Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) particulate size 2.5 micrometers or less in diameter are responsible for causing various breathing inflammations, damage to the lungs and premature deaths.

Question 138.

The outer orbitals of C in ethene molecule can be considered to be hybridized to give three equivalent sp² orbitals. The total number of sigma (σ) and pi (π) bonds in ethene molecule is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 1 sigma (σ) and 2 pi (π) bonds
  • (B) 3 sigma (σ) and 2 pi (π) bonds
  • (C) 5 sigma (σ) and 1 pi (π) bonds
  • (D) 4 sigma (σ) and 1 pi (π) bond
Answer: Diagram 21 – NEET-UG 2013 Question Paper — Set 2 Solutions
Question 139.

In which of the following ionisation processes the bond energy increases and the magnetic behaviour changes from paramagnetic to diamagnetic?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) O₂ → O₂⁺
  • (B) N₂ → N₂⁺
  • (C) NO → NO⁺
  • (D) C₂ → C₂⁺
Explanation:

(a) N₂ ⟶ N₂⁺

B.O. 3, 2.5

Bond energy decreases.

Magnetic behaviour changes from diamagnetic to paramagnetic.

(b) O₂ ⟶ O₂⁺

B.O. 2 , 2.5
Bond energy increases.
Magnetic behaviour does not change.

(c) C₂ ⟶ C₂⁺
B.O. 2, 2.5
Bond energy decreases.
Magnetic behaviour changes from diamagnetic to paramagnetic.

(d) NO ⟶ NO⁺
B.O. 2 , 2.5
Bond energy increases.
Magnetic behaviour changes from paramagnetic to diamagnetic.

Question 140.

The pair of species that has the same bond order in the following is:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) O₂, N₂
  • (B) O₂, B₂
  • (C) NO⁻, CN⁻
  • (D) CO, NO⁺
Explanation:

No. of electrons in CO = 6 + 8 = 14
No. of electrons in NO⁺ = 7 + 8 − 1 = 14
∴ CO and NO⁺ are isoelectronic species.
Isoelectronic species have identical bond order.

Question 141.

What is the density of N₂ gas at 227°C and 5.00 atm pressure? (R = 0.0821 atm K⁻¹ mol⁻¹)

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 3.41 g/mL
  • (B) 2.81 g/mL
  • (C) 1.40 g/mL
  • (D) 0.29 g/mL
Explanation:

Density = PM/RT = 5 × 28/0.0821 × 500 = 3.41 g/mL

Question 142.

When 5 litres of a gas mixture of methane and propane is perfectly combusted at 0°C and 1 atmosphere, 16 litre of oxygen at the same temperature and pressure is consumed. The amount of heat released from this combustion in kJ (ΔH_comb (CH₄) = 890 kJ mol⁻¹, ΔH_comb (C₃H₈) = 2220 kJ mol⁻¹) is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 32
  • (B) 317
  • (C) 38
  • (D) 477
Explanation:

CH₄ (x ) + 2O₂ (2x)→ CO₂ + 2H₂O


C₃H₈ (5-x) + 5O₂ 5(5-x) → 3CO₂ + 4H₂O


2x + 5(5 − x) = 16
x = 3 L
∴ Heat released
= 3/22.4 × 890 + 2/22.4 × 2220 = 317

Question 143.

Three thermochemical equations are given below:

(i) C(graphite) + O₂(g) → CO₂(g); ΔᵣH° = x kJ mol⁻¹

(ii) C(graphite) + ½ O₂(g) → CO(g); ΔᵣH° = y kJ mol⁻¹

(iii)CO(g) + ½ O₂(g) → CO₂(g); ΔᵣH° = z kJ mol⁻¹

Based on the above equations, find out which of the relationship given below is correct?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) x=y -z
  • (B) x = y + z
  • (C) y = 2z - x
  • (D) z = x + y
Explanation:

Applying Hess's law, equation (i) can be obtained by adding equation (ii) and (iii).

∴ x = y + z

Question 144.

At 100°C the K_w of water is 55 times its value at 25°C. What will be the pH of neutral solution? (log 55 = 1.74)

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 5.13
  • (B) 7.87
  • (C) 7.00
  • (D) 6.13
Explanation:

K_w at 25°C = 1 × 10⁻¹⁴
At 25°C
K_w = [H⁺][OH⁻] = 10⁻¹⁴
At 100°C (given)
K_w = [H⁺][OH⁻] = 55 × 10⁻¹⁴
∵ For a neutral solution
[H⁺] = [OH⁻]
∴ [H⁺]² = 55 × 10⁻¹⁴
or [H⁺] = (55 × 10⁻¹⁴)¹ᐟ²
∵ pH = −log[H⁺]
On taking log on both side
−log[H⁺] = −log(55 × 10⁻¹⁴)¹ᐟ²
pH = ½(−log55 + 14log10)
pH = 6.13

Question 145.

Accumulation of lactic acid (HC₃H ₅o₃, a monobasic acid in tissues leads to pain and a feeling of fatigue. In a 0.10 M aqueous solution, lactic acid is 3.7% dissociated. The value of dissociation constant, Ka, for this acid will be:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 3.7 × 10⁻⁴
  • (B) 1.4 × 10⁻⁴
  • (C) 1.4 × 10⁻⁵
  • (D) 2.8 × 10⁻⁴
Explanation:

α = √(Kₐ/C) = 0.037 = √(Kₐ/0.10)
Kₐ = (0.037)² × 0.10 = 1.37 × 10⁻⁴ = 1.4 × 10⁻⁴

Question 146.

The values of K_sp of CaCO₃ and CaC₂O₄ are 4.7 × 10⁻⁹ and 1.3 × 10⁻⁹ respectively at 25°C. If the mixture of these salts is washed with water, what is the concentration of Ca²⁺ ions in water?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 3.606 × 10⁻⁵ M
  • (B) 6.856 × 10⁻⁵ M
  • (C) 7.746 × 10⁻⁵ M
  • (D) 5.831 × 10⁻⁵ M
Explanation:

CaCO₃ (x ) →Ca²⁺ + CO₃²⁻ (x )

CaC₂O₄ → Ca²⁺ (Y ) + C₂O₄²⁻ (Y )

∴ [Ca²⁺] = x + y

Now, K_sp(CaCO₃) = [Ca²⁺][CO₃²⁻]

or ,4.7 × 10⁻⁹ = (x + y)x

Similarly, K_sp(CaC₂O₄) = [Ca²⁺][C₂O₄²⁻]

or 1.3 × 10⁻⁹ = (x + y)y

On solving, we get

[Ca²⁺] = 7.746 × 10⁻⁵ M

Question 147.

The dissociation constant of a weak acid is 1 × 10⁻⁴. In order to prepare a buffer solution with a pH = 5, the [Salt]/[Acid] ratio should be

[5 Marks]
  • (A) 5: 4
  • (B) 4: 5
  • (C) 10 : 1
  • (D) 1 : 10
Explanation:

Given, K_a = 1 × 10⁻⁴
∴ pK_a = −log(1 × 10⁻⁴) = 4
Now from Henderson equation,
pH = pK_a + log([Salt]/[Acid])
Putting the values,
5 = 4 + log([Salt]/[Acid])
log([Salt]/[Acid]) = 5 − 4 = 1
Taking antilog,
[Salt]/[Acid] = 10 = 10 : 1

Question 148.

In Castner-Kellner cell for production of sodium hydroxide:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Brine is electrolyzed with Pt electrodes
  • (B) Molten sodium chloride is electrolyzed
  • (C) Sodium amalgam is formed at mercury cathode
  • (D) Brine is electrolyzed using graphite electrodes
Explanation:

In Castner-Kellner cell, sodium amalgam is formed at mercury cathode.

Question 149.
Which statement is wrong?
[4 Marks]
  • (A) Mg ₂SiO₄ is an orthosilicate
  • (B) Basicstructural unit in silicates is the SiO ₄ , tetrahedron
  • (C) Beryl is an example of cyclic silicate
  • (D) Feldspar is not aluminosilicate
Explanation:

Feldspars are 3-dimensional alumino-silicates.

Question 150.

Arrange the following in increasing order of stability

[4 Marks] Diagram 22 – NEET-UG 2013 Question Paper — Set 2 Solutions
  • (A) E
  • (B) E
  • (C) D
  • (D) A
Explanation:

Greater the number of e ̅ donating alkyl groups (+I effect), greater will be the stability of carbocations.

Question 151.

Homolytic fission of the following alkanes forms free radicals CH₃ – CH₃, CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₃, (CH₃)₂CH – CH₃, CH₃ – CH₂ – CH(CH₃)₂. Increasing order of stability of the radicals is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) CH₃ – ĊH₂ < CH₃ – ĊH – CH₃ < (CH₃)₃Ċ – CH₃CH₂ < (CH₃)₂Ċ -- CH₂CH₃
  • (B) CH₃ – ĊH₂ < CH₃ – ĊH – CH₃ < (CH₃)₂Ċ – CH₂ - CH₃ < (CH₃)₃Ċ
  • (C) (CH₃)₃Ċ < (CH₃)₂Ċ – CH₂CH₃ < CH₃ – ĊH – CH₃ < CH₃ – ĊH₂
  • (D) (CH₃)₂Ċ – CH₂CH₃ < CH₃ – ĊH – CH₃ < CH₃ – ĊH₂ < (CH₃)₃Ċ
Explanation:

Stability depends on number of hyper conjugative structure.

Question 152.

What is the hybridisation state of benzyl carbonium

[4 Marks] Diagram 23 – NEET-UG 2013 Question Paper — Set 2 Solutions
  • (A) sp²d
  • (B) sp²
  • (C) spd²
  • (D) sp³
Explanation:

In the carbonium ion the carbon atom carrying the positive charge is sp² hybridized.


Question 153.

Nitrogen detection in an organic compound is carried out by Lassaigne’s test. The blue colour formed corresponds to which of the following formulae?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Fe₃[Fe(CN)₆]₃
  • (B) Fe₃[Fe(CN)₆]₂
  • (C) Fe₄[Fe(CN)₆]₂
  • (D) Fe₄[Fe(CN)₆]₃
Explanation:

The prussian blue colour is of Fe₄[Fe(CN)₆]₃ ferrie ferrocyanide

Question 154.

[4 Marks] Diagram 24 – NEET-UG 2013 Question Paper — Set 2 Solutions
  • (A) A pair of geometrical isomers
  • (B) A pair of conformers
  • (C) Identical
  • (D) A pair of optical isomers
Explanation:

Conformers are form of stereoisomers in which isomers can be interconverted by rotation about single bonds. I and Il are staggered and eclipsed conformers respectively.

Question 155.

In the following reaction :

Product ‘P’ will not give

[4 Marks] Diagram 25 – NEET-UG 2013 Question Paper — Set 2 Solutions
  • (A) Victory Meyer test
  • (B) Brady’s reagent test
  • (C) Tollen's reagent test
  • (D) lodoform test
Explanation:

Conformers are form of stereoisomers in which isomers can be interconverted by rotation about single bonds. I and Il are staggered and eclipsed conformers respectively.

Diagram 26 – NEET-UG 2013 Question Paper — Set 2 Solutions
Question 156.

Which of the following chemical system is non aromatic?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Diagram 27 – NEET-UG 2013 Question Paper — Set 2 Solutions
  • (B) Diagram 28 – NEET-UG 2013 Question Paper — Set 2 Solutions
  • (C) Diagram 29 – NEET-UG 2013 Question Paper — Set 2 Solutions
  • (D) Diagram 30 – NEET-UG 2013 Question Paper — Set 2 Solutions
Explanation:

Huckel ruleis ot obeyed. Ithas only four electrons . further it does not have continous conjugation.

Question 157.

Which one of the following statements is not true?

[3 Marks]
  • (A) ‘When the pH of rain water is higher than 6.5, it is called acid rain.
  • (B) Fluoride deficiency in drinking water is harmful. Soluble fluoride is often used to bring its concentration upto 1ppm.
  • (C) Clean water would have a BOD value of 5 ppm.
  • (D) Dissolved oxygen (DO) in cold water can reach a concentration upto 10 ppm.
Explanation:

Acid rain is the rain water containing sulphuric acid and nitric acid which are formed from the oxides of sulphur and nitrogen present in the air as pollutants. Rain water has a pH

below 5.6.

Question 158.

How many grams of cobalt metal will be deposited when a solution of cobalt (II) chloride is electrolyzed with a current of 10 amperes for 109 minutes (1 Faraday = 96,500 C; Atomic mass of Co = 59 u)

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 4.0
  • (B) 0.66
  • (C) 20.0
  • (D) 40.0
Explanation:

Applying,
w = Zit = Eit/96500
Equivalent weight of cobalt (II) = 59/2
I = 10 A
Time (t) = 109 min = 109 × 60 sec
Substituting these values we get,
w = (59 × 10 × 109 × 60) / (2 × 96500) = 20.0

Question 159.

Consider the half-cell reduction reaction: Mn²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Mn, E° = -1.18 V Mn²⁺ → Mn³⁺ + e⁻, E° = -1.51 V The E° for the reaction 3Mn²⁺ → Mn⁰ + 2Mn³⁺, and possibility of the forward reaction are, respectively

[4 Marks]
  • (A) -2.69 V and no
  • (B) —4.18 V and yes
  • (C) +0.33 V and yes
  • (D) +2.69 V and no
Explanation:

ΔE° = E°_red + E°_oxd = −1.81 − 1.51 = −2.69

Since ΔE° is negative,

∴ ΔG = −nF E°, ΔG will have positive value, so forward reaction is not possible.

Question 160.

A reaction is 50% completed in 2 hours and 75% completed in 4 hours. The order of

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 0
  • (B) 1
  • (C) 2
  • (D) 3
Explanation:

For a first order reaction,

t₇₅% = 2 × t₅₀%

Question 161.

For a reaction between A and B the order with respect to A is 2and the order with respect to Bis 3. The concentrations of both A and B are doubled, the rate will increase by a factor of :

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 32
  • (B) 16
  • (C) 10
  • (D) 12
Explanation:

Rate₁ = k[A]²[B]³
When concentrations of both A and B are doubled then,
Rate₂ = k[2A]²[2B]³ = 32k[A]²[B]³
∴ Rate will increase by a factor of 32.

Question 162.

The metal oxide which cannot be reduced to metal by

carbon is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Fe₂O₃
  • (B) Al₂O₃
  • (C) PbO
  • (D) ZnO
Explanation:

Al₂O₃ cannot be reduced by carbon.

Question 163.

Identify the incorrect statement, regarding the molecule XeO₄:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) XeO₄ molecule is tetrahedral
  • (B) XeO₄ molecule is square planar
  • (C) There are four sp³–pσ bonds
  • (D) There are four pπ–dπ bonds
Explanation:

Al₂O₃ cannot be reduced by carbon.

Diagram 31 – NEET-UG 2013 Question Paper — Set 2 Solutions
Question 164.

Sc (Z = 21) is a transition element but Zn (Z = 30) is not because

[3 Marks]
  • (A) last electron is assumed to be added to 4s level in case of Zn
  • (B) both Sc³⁺ and Zn²⁺ ions are colourless and form white compounds
  • (C) both Sc and Zn do not exhibit variable oxidation states
  • (D) in case of Sc, 3d orbitals are partially filled but in Zn these are completely filled
Explanation:

A transition element must have incomplete d-subshell Zinc have completely filled d subshell having 3d¹⁰ configuration. Hence do not show properties of transition elements to any appreciable extent except for their ability to form complexes.

Question 165.

Gadolinium belongs to 4f series. Its atomic number is 64. Which of the following is the correct electronic configuration of gadolinium?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) [Xe]4f⁸6d²
  • (B) [Xe]4f⁹5s¹
  • (C) [Xe]4f⁷5d¹ 6s²
  • (D) [Xe]4f ⁶ 5⁵d²6s²
Explanation:

Gd (64) = [Xe]4f⁷ 5d¹ 6s²

Question 166.

In a cymose inflorescence the main axis

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Has unlimited growth but lateral branches end in flowers
  • (B) Bears a solitary flower
  • (C) Has unlimited growth
  • (D) Terminates in a flower
Explanation:

In cymose inflorescence, the growth of the main axis is definite because the growing point of peduncle is used up in the formation of a flower. Further growth of flowering axis is continued by one or more lateral branches which also end in flower.

Question 167.

The correct IUPAC name for [CrF₂(en)₂]Cl is:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Chlorodifluoridobis (ethylene diamine) chromium (III)
  • (B) Chlorodifluoridoethy lenediaminechromium (III) chloride
  • (C) Difluorobis-(ethylene diamine) chromium (III) chloride
  • (D) Difluoridobis (ethylene diamine) chromium (III) chloride
Explanation:

IUPAC name of [CrF₂(en)₂]Cl is
Difluorobis(ethylenediamine) chromium (III) chloride

Question 168.

In a particular isomer of [Co(NH₃)₄Cl₂] ⁰, the Cl–Co–Cl angle is 90°.

the isomer is known as .

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Position isomer
  • (B) cis-isomer
  • (C) Optical isomer
  • (D) Linkage isomer
Explanation:

Diagram 32 – NEET-UG 2013 Question Paper — Set 2 Solutions
Question 169.

Which is diamagnetic?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) [Fe(CN)₆]³⁻
  • (B) [Co(F₆)]³⁻
  • (C) [NiCl₄]²⁻
  • (D) [Ni(CN)₄]²⁻
Explanation:

CN⁻ is a strong ligand and causes pairing of 3d electrons of Ni²⁺.
∴ It is diamagnetic.

Diagram 33 – NEET-UG 2013 Question Paper — Set 2 Solutions
Question 170.

The anion of acetylacetone (acac) forms Co(acac)₃ chelate with Co³⁺. The rings of the chelate are

[4 Marks]
  • (A) three membered
  • (B) five membered
  • (C) six membered
  • (D) four membered
Explanation:

CN⁻ is a strong ligand and causes pairing of 3d electrons of Ni²⁺.
∴ It is diamagnetic.

Diagram 34 – NEET-UG 2013 Question Paper — Set 2 Solutions
Question 171.

Which among the following is a paramagnetic complex?

(At. No. of Mo = 42, Pt = 78)

[4 Marks]
  • (A) [Mo(CO)₆]
  • (B) [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺
  • (C) [Pt(en)Cl₂]
  • (D) [CoBr₄]²⁻
Explanation:

Co²⁺ ⇒ [Ar]3d⁷4s⁰, here, Br⁻ is a weak field ligand so will not cause pairing of d-electrons in Co²⁺.
∴ [CoBr₄]²⁻ will exhibit paramagnetic behaviour due to unpaired electrons.

Question 172.

Phenol is distilled with Zn dust followed by Friedel Crafts alkylation with propyl chloride in the presence of AlCl₃ to give a compound (B). (B) is oxidised in the presence of air to form the compound (C). The structural formula of (C) is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Diagram 35 – NEET-UG 2013 Question Paper — Set 2 Solutions
  • (B) Diagram 36 – NEET-UG 2013 Question Paper — Set 2 Solutions
  • (C) Diagram 37 – NEET-UG 2013 Question Paper — Set 2 Solutions
  • (D) Diagram 38 – NEET-UG 2013 Question Paper — Set 2 Solutions
Explanation:


Diagram 39 – NEET-UG 2013 Question Paper — Set 2 Solutions
Question 173.

Some reactions of amines are given. Which one is correct ?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) (CH₃)₂NH + NaNO₂ + HCl → (CH₃)₂N–N=O
  • (B) CH₃NH₂ + C₆H₅SO₂Cl → CH₃NHSO₂C₆H₅
  • (C) CH₃CH₂NH₂ + HNO₂ → CH₃CH₂OH + N₂
  • (D) Diagram 40 – NEET-UG 2013 Question Paper — Set 2 Solutions
Explanation:

Secondary amine react with nitrous acid to give N-Nitrosoamines.

Diagram 41 – NEET-UG 2013 Question Paper — Set 2 Solutions
Question 174.

On hydrolysis of a “compound”, two compounds are obtained. One of which on treatment with sodium nitrite and hydrochloric acid gives a product which does not respond to iodoform test. The second one reduces Tollen’s reagent and Fehling’s solution. The “compound” is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) CH₃CH₂CH₂ON=O
  • (B) CH₃CH₂CH₂CN
  • (C) CH₃CH₂CH₂NC
  • (D) CH₃CH₂CH₂CON(CH₃)₂
Explanation:

Hydrolysis of propyl isocyanide (CH₃CH₂CH₂NC) gives
CH₃CH₂CH₂NH₂ + HCOOH
On treatment with NaNO₂ and HCl, I gives CH₃CH₂CH₂OH which does not give iodoform test. II (HCOOH) reduces Tollens' reagent and Fehling's solution.
CH₃CH₂CH₂NC ( Propyl isocyanide ) + ---H₂O →

CH₃CH₂CH₂NH₂ (I )+ HCOOH (II )

Question 175.

In DNA, the linkages between different nitrogenous bases are :

[4 Marks]
  • (A) peptide linkage
  • (B) phosphate linkage
  • (C) glycosidic linkage
  • (D) H-bonding
Explanation:

The base pairs of the two strands of DNA are linked together through H-bonds.

Question 176.
Dettol is the mixture of
[4 Marks]
  • (A) Chloroxylenol and Terpineol
  • (B) Chloroxylenol and Bithionol
  • (C) Phenol and Iodine
  • (D) Terpineol and Bithionol
Explanation:

Dettol is a mixture of chloroxylenol and terpineol.

Question 177.

Which condition is not satisfied by an ideal solution?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Obeysance to Raoult’s Law
  • (B) Δ_mix H = 0
  • (C) Δ_mix V = 0
  • (D) Δ_mix S = 0
Explanation:

An ideal solution is that solution in which. each component obeys Raoult’s law under all conditions of temperatures and concentrations. For an ideal solution.

ΔH_mix = 0 and ΔV_mix = 0..

Question 178.

The outer electronic configuration of Gd (At. No. 64) is:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 4f⁴ 5d⁵ 6s¹
  • (B) 4f⁵ 5d⁴ 6s¹
  • (C) 4f⁷ 5d¹ 6s²
  • (D) 4f⁸ 5d⁵ 6s²
Explanation:

Gd [64] = [Xe]4f⁷5d¹6s²

Question 179.

Number of isomeric alcohols of molecular formula C₆H₁₄O which give positive iodoform test is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) three
  • (B) four
  • (C) five
  • (D) two
Explanation:

Gd [64] = [Xe]4f⁷5d¹6s²

Diagram 42 – NEET-UG 2013 Question Paper — Set 2 Solutions
Question 180.

Arrange the following in increasing order of stability

[4 Marks] Diagram 43 – NEET-UG 2013 Question Paper — Set 2 Solutions
  • (A) E
  • (B) E
  • (C) A
  • (D) D
Explanation:

Greater the number of e  ̅ donating alkyl groups (+I effect ),greater will be the stability of carbocations