NEET-UG 2009 Question Paper Solutions

SOLUTIONS

2009 NEET EXAM

NEET-UG 2009 Question Paper Solutions

2009

NEET-UG

CBSE EXAMINATION PAPER-2009

NEET-ZOOLOGY

(Solved)

Time allowed : 3 hours

Maximum Marks : 800

General Instructions :

Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :

  1. This question paper contains 200 questions. All questions are compulsory.
  2. This question paper is divided into 1 sections.
  3. Section A – questions number 1 to 200 are multiple choice questions
  4. There is no overall choice given in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions.
  5. Use of calculator is NOT allowed.

Section A

Question 1.

A bus is moving with a speed of 10 ms⁻¹ on a straight road. A scooterist wishes to overtake the bus in 100 s. If the bus is at a distance of 1 km from the scooterist, with what speed should the scooterist chase the bus?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 25 ms⁻¹
  • (B) 20 ms⁻¹
  • (C) 40 ms⁻¹
  • (D) 10 ms⁻¹
Explanation:

Let v be the relative velocity of scooter w.r.t. bus.

v = vₛ − v_B

1000/100 = 10 ms⁻¹

v_B = 10 ms⁻¹

∴ vₛ = v + v_B

= 10 + 10 = 20 ms⁻¹

∴ Velocity of scooter = 20 ms⁻¹

Diagram 1 – NEET-UG 2009 Question Paper Solutions
Question 2.

A body under the action of a force F vector = 6 î − 8 ĵ + 10 k̂, acquires an acceleration of 1 m/s². The mass of this body must be

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 10√2 kg
  • (B) 2√10 kg
  • (C) 20 kg
  • (D) 10 kg
Explanation:

𝐅⃗ = 6î − 8ĵ + 10k̂

|𝐅⃗| = √(6² + (−8)² + 10²) = √(36 + 64 + 100) = 10√2 N

(∵ F = √(Fₓ² + Fᵧ² + F𝓏²))

Given, a = 1 ms⁻²

∴ F = ma

⇒ m = F/a

⇒ m = 10√2/1 = 10√2 kg

Question 3.

The mass of a lift is 2000 kg. When the tension in the supporting cable is 28000 N, then its acceleration is:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 30 ms⁻² downwards
  • (B) 4 ms⁻² downwards
  • (C) 4 ms⁻² upwards
  • (D) 14 ms⁻² upwards
Explanation:

Net force,

F = T − mg

ma = T − mg

2000a = 28000 − 20000 = 8000

a = 8000/2000 = 4 ms⁻² ↑

Question 4.

An engine pumps water continuously through a hose. Water leaves the hose with a velocity v and m is the mass per unit length of the water jet. What is the rate at which kinetic energy is imparted to water?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) ½mv³
  • (B) ½mv²
  • (C) mv²
  • (D) ½m²v²
Explanation:

m = mass per unit length

∴ Mass flowing per second = mv

Rate of K.E. = ½(mv)v² = ½mv³

Question 5.

A body of mass 1 kg is thrown upwards with a velocity 20 m/s. It momentarily comes to rest after attaining a height of 18 m. How much energy is lost due to air friction?
(g = 10 m/s²)

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 40 J
  • (B) 20 J
  • (C) 30 J
  • (D) 10 J
Explanation:

When the body is thrown upwards, its K.E. is converted into P.E.

The loss of energy due to air friction is the difference of K.E. and P.E.

½mv² − mgh

= ½ × 1 × 400 − 1 × 18 × 10

= 200 − 180

= 20 J

Question 6.

An explosion blows a rock into three parts. Two parts go off at right angles to each other. These two are, 1 kg first part moving with a velocity of 12 ms⁻¹ and 2 kg second part moving with a velocity of 8 ms⁻¹ . If the third part flies off with a velocity of 4 ms⁻¹, its mass would be:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 17kg
  • (B) 5kg
  • (C) 7kg
  • (D) 3kg
Explanation:

Momentum of first part

⇒ 1 × 12 = 12

Momentum of second part

⇒ 2 × 8 = 16

Resultant momentum,

= √((12)² + (16)²) = 20

Then M₁ be the mass of third part M · 4 = 20

M = 20/4 = 5 kg

Diagram 2 – NEET-UG 2009 Question Paper Solutions
Question 7.

Two bodies of mass 1 kg and 3 kg have position vectors î + 2ĵ + k̂ and −3î − 2ĵ + k̂ respectively. The centre of mass of this system has a position vector:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) −2î − ĵ + k̂
  • (B) 2î − ĵ − 2k̂
  • (C) −î + ĵ + k̂
  • (D) −2î + 2k̂
Explanation:

The position vector of the centre of mass of two particle system is given by

𝐑⃗ cm = (m₁ 𝐫⃗₁ + m₂ 𝐫⃗₂)/(m₁ + m₂)

= 1/4 [−8î − 4ĵ + 4k̂]

= −2î − ĵ + k̂

Question 8.

A thin circular ring of mass M and radius R is rotating in a horizontal plane about an axis vertical to its plane with a constant angular velocity ω. If two objects each of mass m be attached gently to the opposite ends of a diameter of the ring, the ring will then rotate with an angular velocity:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) ωM/(M + m)
  • (B) ω(M − 2m)/(M + 2m)
  • (C) ωM/(M + 2m)
  • (D) ω(M + 2m)/M
Explanation:

In absence of external torque, L = Iω = constant

I₁ω₁ = I₂ω₂,

I₁ = MR²,

I₂ = MR² + 2mR²

(Moment of inertia of a thin circular ring about an axis vertical to its plane = MR²)

∴ ω₂ = (I₁/I₂)ω

= (M/(M + 2m))ω

Question 9.

If 𝐅⃗ is the force acting on a particle having position vector 𝐫⃗ and τ vector be the torque of this force about the origin, then:
 

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 𝐫⃗ · τ vector = 0 and 𝐅⃗ · τ vector ≠ 0
  • (B) 𝐫⃗r · τ vector = 0 and 𝐅⃗ · τ vector = 0
  • (C) 𝐫⃗ · τ vector > 0 and 𝐅⃗ · τ vector < 0
  • (D) 𝐫⃗ · τ vector ≠ 0 and 𝐅⃗ · τ vector = 0
Explanation:

τ vector = 𝐫⃗ × 𝐅⃗

𝐫⃗ · τ vector = 0

𝐅⃗ · τ vector = 0

Since, τ vector is perpendicular to the plane of 𝐫⃗ and 𝐅⃗, hence the dot product of τ vector with 𝐫⃗ and 𝐅⃗ is zero.

Question 10.

Four identical thin rods each of mass M and length l, form a square frame. Moment of inertia of this frame about an axis through the centre of the square and perpendicular to its plane is:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) (2/3) Ml²
  • (B) (13/3) Ml²
  • (C) (4/3) Ml²
  • (D) (1/3) Ml²
Explanation:

Moment of inertia of a thin rod of length l about an axis passing through centre and perpendicular to the rod

= (1/12)Ml²

Thus moment of inertia of the frame,

Ml²/12 + Ml²/4 = (4Ml²)/12 = Ml²/3

Total M.I. = 4 × Ml²/3

= 4Ml²/3

Question 11.

The figure shows elliptical orbit of a planet m about the sun S. The shaded area SCD is twice the shaded area SAB. If t₁ is the time for the planet to move from C to D and t₂ is the time to move from A to B then:

[4 Marks] Diagram 3 – NEET-UG 2009 Question Paper Solutions
  • (A) t₁ = 2t₂
  • (B) t₁ = 4t₂
  • (C) t₁ > t₂
  • (D) t₁ = t₂
Explanation:

According to Kepler's law, the areal velocity of a planet around the sun always remains constant.

SCD : A₁ – t₁ (areal velocity constant)

SAB : A₂ – t₂

A₁/t₁ = A₂/t₂

t₁ = t₂ × A₁/A₂

(given A₁ = 2A₂)

= t₂ × 2A₂/A₂

∴ t₁ = 2t₂

Question 12.

The two ends of a rod of length L and a uniform cross-sectional area A are kept at two temperatures T₁ and T₂ (T₁ > T₂). The rate of heat transfer, dQ/dt through the rod in a steady state is given by:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) dQ/dt = k(T₁ − T₂)/LA
  • (B) dQ/dt = kLA(T₁ − T₂)
  • (C) dQ/dt = kA(T₁ − T₂)/L
  • (D) dQ/dt = kL(T₁ − T₂)/A
Explanation:

dQ/dt = kA(T₁ − T₂)/L

[(T₁ − T₂) is the temperature difference]

Question 13.

A black body at 227°C radiates heat at the rate of 7 cals/cm²s. At a temperature of 727°C, the rate of heat radiated in the same units will be:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 80
  • (B) 60
  • (C) 50
  • (D) 112
Explanation:

According to Stefan's law

E = σT⁴

T₁ = 500 K

T₂ = 1000 K

E₂/E₁ = (T₂/T₁)⁴ = (1000/500)⁴ = 16

∴ E₂ = 16 × 7 = 112 cal/cm²s

Question 14.

The internal energy change in a system that has absorbed 2 kcals of heat and done 500 J of work is:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 6400 J
  • (B) 5400 J
  • (C) 7900 J
  • (D) 8900 J
Explanation:

According to first law of thermodynamics

Q = ΔU + W

ΔU = Q − W

= 2 × 4.2 × 1000 − 500

= 8400 − 500

= 7900 J

Question 15.

In thermodynamic processes which of the following statements is not true?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) In an isochoric process pressure remains constant
  • (B) In an adiabatic process the system is insulated from the surroundings
  • (C) In an isothermal process the temperature remains constant
  • (D) In an adiabatic process PVᵞ = constant
Explanation:

In an isochoric process volume remains constant whereas pressure remains constant in isobaric process.

Question 16.

Which one of the following equations of motion represents simple harmonic motion?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Acceleration = −k₀x + k₁x²
  • (B) Acceleration = k(x + a)
  • (C) Acceleration = kx
  • (D) Acceleration = −k(x + a)
Explanation:

acceleration,

a = −kX,

where,

X = x + a.

In simple harmonic motion acceleration is directly proportional to the displacement from the mean position. Also the acceleration is in the opposite direction of displacement.

Question 17.

A simple pendulum performs simple harmonic motion about x = 0 with an amplitude a and time period T. The speed of the pendulum at x = a/2 will be:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) πa√3/T
  • (B) π
  • (C) πa√3/2T
  • (D) 3π²a/T
Explanation:

Speed,

v = ω√(a² − x²), x = a/2

∴ v = ω√(a² − a²/4)

= ω√(3a²/4)

= (2π/T) × (a√3/2)

= πa√3/T

Question 18.

A block of mass M is attached to the lower end of a vertical spring. The spring is hung from a ceiling and has force constant value k. The mass is released from rest with the spring initially unstretched. The maximum extension produced in the length of the spring will be:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Mg/2k
  • (B) 4Mg/k
  • (C) Mg/k
  • (D) 2Mg/k
Explanation:

Restoring force,

f' = −kx

where x is the extension produced in the spring.

Weight of the mass acting downward = Mg.

In equilibrium

kx = Mg

or

x = Mg/k

Question 19.

A wave in a string has an amplitude of 2 cm. The wave travels in the +ve direction of x axis with a speed of 128 m/sec and it is noted that 5 complete waves fit in 4 m length of the string. The equation describing the wave is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) y = (0.02) m sin (15.7x − 2010t)
  • (B) y = (0.02) m sin (15.7x + 2010t)
  • (C) y = (0.02) m sin (7.85x − 1005t)
  • (D) y = (0.02) m sin (7.85x + 1005t)
Explanation:

A = 2 cm,

ω/k = 128 ms⁻¹,

5λ = 4,

λ = 4/5 m

y = A sin(kx − ωt),

k = 2π/λ

⇒ (2π × 5)/4

= 31.4/4

= 7.85

y = 0.02 m sin(7.85x − 1005t)

ω = 128 × 7.85

= 1005

Question 20.

Each of the two strings of length 51.6 cm and 49.1 cm are under tension separately by 20 N force. Mass per unit length of both strings is same and equal to 1 g/m. When both the strings vibrate simultaneously the number of beats is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 3
  • (B) 8
  • (C) 7
  • (D) 5
Explanation:

The frequency of vibration of a string is given by,

f = 1/(2l) √(T/m)

where m is mass per unit length.

f₁ = 1/(2l₁) √(T/m), f₂ = 1/(2l₂) √(T/m)

f₂ − f₁ = ½ √(T/m) × (l₁ − l₂)/(l₁l₂)

√(T/m) = √(20/10⁻³) = √2 × 10² = 1.414 × 100

= 141.4

(l₁ − l₂)/(l₁l₂) = ((51.6 − 49.1) × 10²)/(51.6 × 49.1)

= (2.5 × 10²)/(50 × 50)

= 1/10

∴ f₂ − f₁ = ½ × 141.4 × 1/10 = 7 beats

Question 21.

The driver of a car travelling with speed 30 m/s towards a hill sounds a horn of frequency 600 Hz. If the velocity of sound in air is 330 m/s, the frequency of reflected sound as heard by driver is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 500 Hz
  • (B) 555.5 Hz
  • (C) 550 Hz
  • (D) 720 Hz
Explanation:

From the given condition

f′ is the apparent frequency received by an observer at the hill. f″ is the frequency of reflected sound as heard by driver.

f′ = v/(v − 30) f

and

f″ = (v + 30)/v × f′

⇒ (v + 30)/(v − 30) f

= (360/300) × 600

= 720 Hz

Diagram 4 – NEET-UG 2009 Question Paper Solutions
Question 22.

The mean free path of electrons in a metal is 4 × 10⁻⁸ m. The electric field which can give on an average 2 eV energy to an electron in the metal will be in units of V/m

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 5 × 10⁻¹¹
  • (B) 8 × 10⁻¹¹
  • (C) 8 × 10⁷
  • (D) 5 × 10⁷
Explanation:

Energy = 2 eV

⇒ eV₀ = 2 eV

⇒ V₀ = 2 volt

E = V₀/d

= 2/(4 × 10⁻⁸)

= 0.5 × 10⁸

= 5 × 10⁷ Vm⁻¹

Question 23.

Three concentric spherical shells have radii a, b and c (a < b < c) and have surface charge densities σ, −σ and σ respectively. If Vₐ, V subscript (B) and V𝒸 denotes the potentials of the three shells, then for c = a + b, we have

[4 Marks]
  • (A) V𝒸 = V subscript (B) ≠ Vₐ
  • (B) V𝒸 ≠ V subscript (B) ≠ Vₐ
  • (C) V𝒸 = V subscript (B) = Vₐ
  • (D) V𝒸 = Vₐ ≠ V subscript (B)
Explanation:

.

Diagram 5 – NEET-UG 2009 Question Paper Solutions
Question 24.

The electric potential at a point (x, y, z) is given by V = −x²y − xz³ + 4.

The electric field 𝐄⃗ at that point is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 𝐄⃗ = îz³ + ĵxyz + k̂z²
  • (B) 𝐄⃗ = î(2xy − z³) + ĵxy² + k̂3z²x
  • (C) 𝐄⃗ = î(2xy + z³) + ĵx² + k̂3xz²
  • (D) 𝐄⃗ = î(2xy + z³) + ĵ(x² + y²) + k̂(3xz − y²)
Explanation:

The electric field at a point is equal to negative of potential gradient at that point.

𝐄⃗ = −∂V/∂r

= −[ (∂V/∂x)î + (∂V/∂y)ĵ + (∂V/∂z)k̂ ]

= [(2xy + z³)î + ĵx² + k̂3xz²]

Question 25.

Three capacitors each of capacitance C and of breakdown voltage V are joined in series. The capacitance and breakdown voltage of the combination will be

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 3C, V/3
  • (B) C/3, 3V
  • (C) C/3, V/3
  • (D) 3C, 3V
Explanation:

In series combination of capacitors

V_eff = V + V + V = 3V

1/C_eff = 1/C + 1/C + 1/C

⇒ C_eff = C/3

Thus, the capacitance and breakdown voltage of the combination will be C/3 and 3V.

Question 26.

A wire of resistance 12 ohms per meter is bent to form a complete circle of radius 10 cm. The resistance between its two diametrically opposite points, A and B as shown in the figure, is

[4 Marks] Diagram 6 – NEET-UG 2009 Question Paper Solutions
  • (A) 0.6πΩ
  • (B) 6πΩ
  • (C) 3Ω
  • (D) 6Ω
Explanation:
Length of wire = 2πr = 2π(0.1) = 0.2π m

Resistance of complete circle/wire = 12 × 0.2π = 2.4π Ω

∴ Resistance of each semi-circle = 1.2π Ω

Hence, equivalent resistance,

R Subscript (AB) = 1.2π/2 = 0.6π Ω
Diagram 7 – NEET-UG 2009 Question Paper Solutions
Question 27.

See the electric circuit shown in the figure.

Which of the following equations is a correct equation for it?

[4 Marks] Diagram 8 – NEET-UG 2009 Question Paper Solutions
  • (A) ε₂ − (i₁ + i₂)R + i₂r₂ = 0
  • (B) ε₂ − i₂r₂ − ε₁ − i₁r₁ = 0
  • (C) ε₁ − (i₁ + i₂)R + i₁r₁ = 0
  • (D) ε₁ − (i₁ + i₂)R − i₁r₁ = 0
Explanation:

Applying Kirchhoff’s rule in loop abcfa

ε₁ − (i₁ + i₂)R − i₁r₁ = 0.

Diagram 9 – NEET-UG 2009 Question Paper Solutions
Question 28.

A student measures the terminal potential difference (V) of a cell (of emf E and internal resistance r) as a function of the current (I) flowing through it. The slope and intercept of the graph between V and I, then, respectively, equal:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) r and −E
  • (B) −r and E
  • (C) E and −r
  • (D) −E and r
Explanation:

The terminal potential difference of a cell is given by

V + Ir = E

or

V = V_A − V_B

V = E − Ir

⇒ dV/dI = −r

Also for, i = 0 then V = E

∴ slope = −r, intercept = E

Question 29.

The magnetic force acting on a charged particle of charge −2 μC in a magnetic field of 2T acting in y direction, when the particle velocity is (2î + 3ĵ) × 10⁶ ms⁻¹, is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 8 N in y direction
  • (B) 4 N in z direction
  • (C) 8 N in −z direction
  • (D) 8 N in z direction
Explanation:

The magnetic force acting on the charged particle is given by

𝐅⃗ = q(𝐯⃗ × 𝐁⃗)

= (−2 × 10⁻⁶)[{(2î + 3ĵ) × 10⁶} × (2ĵ)]

= −4(2k̂) = −8k̂

∴ Force is of 8 N along negative z-axis.

Question 30.

Under the influence of a uniform magnetic field, a charged particle moves with constant speed v in a circle of radius R. The time period of rotation of the particle:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) depends on R and not on v
  • (B) is independent of both v and R
  • (C) depends on both v and R
  • (D) depends on v and not on R
Explanation:

The time period of the charged particle is given by,

T = 2πm/qB

Thus, time period is independent of both v and R.

Question 31.

A galvanometer having a coil resistance of 60 Ω shows full scale deflection when a current of 1.0 amp passes through it. It can be converted into an ammeter to read currents upto 5.0 amp by:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) putting in parallel a resistance of 15 Ω
  • (B) putting in parallel a resistance of 240 Ω
  • (C) putting in series a resistance of 240 Ω
  • (D) putting in series a resistance of 15 Ω
Explanation:

G = 60Ω, I_g = 1.0 A, I = 5 A.

Let S be the shunt resistance connected in parallel to galvanometer.

I_g G = (I − I₉)S

S = I_g G/(I − I_g)

= (1/(5 − 1)) × 60

= 15Ω

Thus by putting 15Ω in parallel, the galvanometer can be converted into an ammeter.

Diagram 10 – NEET-UG 2009 Question Paper Solutions
Question 32.

A bar magnet having a magnetic moment of 2 × 10⁴ JT⁻¹ is free to rotate in a horizontal plane. A horizontal magnetic field B = 6 × 10⁻⁴ T exists in the space. The work done in taking the magnet slowly from a direction parallel to the field to a direction 60° from the field is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 12 J
  • (B) 6 J
  • (C) 0.6 J
  • (D) 2 J
Explanation:

Work done

= MB(cos θ₁ − cos θ₂)

= MB(cos 0° − cos 60°)

= MB(1 − 1/2)

= (2 × 10⁴ × 6 × 10⁻⁴)/2

= 6 J

Question 33.

If a diamagnetic substance is brought near the north or the south pole of a bar magnet, it is:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) repelled by both the poles
  • (B) attracted by both the poles
  • (C) attracted by the north pole and repelled by the south pole
  • (D) repelled by the north pole and attracted by the south pole
Explanation:

Diamagnetic substances do not have any unpaired electron. And they are magnetised in direction opposite to that of magnetic field. Hence, when they are brought to north or south pole of a bar magnet, they are repelled by poles.

Question 34.

A rectangular, a square, a circular and an elliptical loop, all in the (x−y) plane, are moving out of a uniform magnetic field with a constant velocity, 𝐕⃗ = vî. The magnetic field is directed along the negative z axis direction. The induced emf, during the passage of these loops, out of the field region, will not remain constant for

[4 Marks]
  • (A) only the elliptical loop.
  • (B) the circular and the elliptical loops.
  • (C) any of the four loops.
  • (D) the rectangular, circular and elliptical loops.
Explanation:

The induced emf will remain constant only in the case of rectangular and square loops. In case of the circular and the elliptical loops, the rate of change of area of the loops during their passage out of the field is not constant, hence induced emf will not remain constant for them.

Question 35.

A conducting circular loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 0.04 T with its plane perpendicular to the magnetic field. The radius of the loop starts shrinking at 2 mm/s. The induced emf in the loop when the radius is 2 cm is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 3.2 πμV
  • (B) 1.6 πμV
  • (C) 4.8 μV
  • (D) 0.8 πμV
Explanation:

Induced emf in the loop is given by

e = −B · dA/dt

where A is the area of the loop.

e = −B · d/dt (πr²)

= −Bπ2r · dr/dt

r = 2 cm = 2 × 10⁻² m

dr = 2 mm = 2 × 10⁻³ m

dt = 1 s

e = −0.04 × 3.14 × 2 × 2 × 10⁻² × (2 × 10⁻³)/1 V

= 0.32π × 10⁻⁵ V

= 3.2π × 10⁻⁶ V

= 3.2π μV

Question 36.

Power dissipated in an LCR series circuit connected to an a.c source of emf ε is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) ε²R/√[R² + (Lω − 1/Cω)²]
  • (B) ε²R/[R² + (Lω − 1/Cω)²]
  • (C) ε²[R² + (Lω − 1/Cω)²]/R
  • (D) ε²√[R² + (Lω − 1/Cω)²]/R
Explanation:

Power dissipated in series LCR;

P = I²R

= ε²/(Z²) R

= ε²R/[R² + (ωL − 1/ωC)²]

Question 37.

The electric field part of an electromagnetic wave in a medium is represented by Eₓ = 0;

Eᵧ = 2.5 N/C cos[(2π × 10⁶ rad/m)t − (π × 10⁻² rad/s)x]; E𝓏 = 0. The wave is:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) moving along y direction with frequency 2π × 10⁶ Hz and wavelength 200 m.
  • (B) moving along −x direction with frequency 10⁶ Hz and wavelength 200 m.
  • (C) moving along x direction with frequency 10⁶ Hz and wavelength 200 m.
  • (D) moving along x direction with frequency 10⁶ Hz and wavelength 100 m.
Explanation:

Comparing with the equation of wave.

Eᵧ = E₀ cos(ωt − kx)

ω = 2πf = 2π × 10⁶

∴ f = 10⁶ Hz

2π/λ = k = π × 10⁻² m⁻¹

∴ λ = 200 m

Question 38.

The number of photo electrons emitted for light of a frequency ν (higher than the threshold frequency ν₀) is proportional to:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Frequency of light (ν)
  • (B) ν − ν₀
  • (C) Intensity of light
  • (D) Threshold frequency (ν₀)
Explanation:

The number of photoelectrons emitted is proportional to the intensity of incident light.
Saturation current ∝ intensity.

Question 39.

The figure shows a plot of photo current versus anode potential for a photo sensitive surface for three different radiations. Which one of the following is a correct statement?

[4 Marks] Diagram 11 – NEET-UG 2009 Question Paper Solutions
  • (A) Curves (2) and (3) represent incident radiations of different frequencies and different intensities.
  • (B) Curves (1) and (2) represent incident radiations of same frequency but of different intensities.
  • (C) Curves (2) and (3) represent incident radiations of same frequency having same intensity.
  • (D) Curves (1) and (2) represent incident radiations of different frequencies and different intensities.
Explanation:

Retarding potential depends on the frequency of incident radiation but is independent of intensity.

Question 40.

Monochromatic light of wavelength 667 nm is produced by a helium neon laser. The power emitted is 9 mW. The number of photons arriving per sec on the average at a target irradiated by this beam is:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 9 × 10¹⁷
  • (B) 3 × 10¹⁹
  • (C) 9 × 10¹⁵
  • (D) 3 × 10¹⁶
Explanation:

λ = 667 × 10⁻⁹ m, P = 9 × 10⁻³ W

P = Nhc/λ, N = No. of photons emitted/sec.

N = (9 × 10⁻³ × 667 × 10⁻⁹)/(6.6 × 10⁻³⁴ × 3 × 10⁸)

= (9 × 6.67 × 10⁻¹⁰)/(3 × 6.6 × 10⁻²⁶)

= 3 × 10¹⁶ /sec

Question 41.

In a Rutherford scattering experiment when a projectile of charge Z₁ and mass M₁ approaches a target nucleus of charge Z₂ and mass M₂, the distance of closest approach is r₀. The energy of the projectile is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) directly proportional to M₁ × M₂
  • (B) directly proportional to mass M₁
  • (C) directly proportional to Z₁Z₂
  • (D) inversely proportional to Z₁
Explanation:

The kinetic energy of the projectile is given by

½mv² = Ze(2e)/(4πɛ₀r₀)

= Z₁Z₂/(4πɛ₀r₀)

Thus energy of the projectile is directly proportional to Z₁Z₂.

Question 42.

The ionization energy of the electron in the hydrogen atom in its ground state is 13.6 eV. The atoms are excited to higher energy levels to emit radiations of 6 wavelengths. Maximum wavelength of emitted radiation corresponds to the transition between

[4 Marks]
  • (A) n = 3 to n = 2 states
  • (B) n = 2 to n = 1 states
  • (C) n = 3 to n = 2 states
  • (D) n = 4 to n = 3 states
Explanation:

n(n − 1)/2 = 6

n² − n − 12 = 0

(n − 4)(n + 3) = 0

or n = 4

Diagram 12 – NEET-UG 2009 Question Paper Solutions
Question 43.

The number of beta particles emitted by a radioactive substance is twice the number of alpha particles emitted by it. The resulting daughter is an

[4 Marks]
  • (A) isobar of parent
  • (B) isotone of parent
  • (C) isotope of parent
  • (D) isomer of parent
Explanation:
A radioactive substance when emits one alpha particle (⁴₂He), its mass number reduces by 4 and charge no. reduces by 2 and after emission of two β-particles its charge no. increase by 2 thus the charge no. i.e. atomic number remains the same.
Question 44.

In the nuclear decay given below:

the particles emitted in the sequence are

[4 Marks] Diagram 13 – NEET-UG 2009 Question Paper Solutions
  • (A) β, α, γ
  • (B) α, β, γ
  • (C) γ, β, α
  • (D) β, γ, α
Explanation:

.

Diagram 14 – NEET-UG 2009 Question Paper Solutions
Question 45.

A p-n photodiode is fabricated from a semiconductor with a band gap of 2.5 eV. It can detect a signal of wavelength

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 4000 nm
  • (B) 6000 nm
  • (C) 4000 Å
  • (D) 6000 Å
Explanation:

λₘₐₓ = hc/E

= (6.6 × 10⁻³⁴ × 3 × 10⁸)/(2.5 × 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹)

= 5000 Å

The wavelength detected by photodiode should be less than λₘₐₓ. Hence it can detect a signal of wavelength 4000 Å.

Question 46.

Sodium has body centred packing. Distance between two nearest atoms is 3.7 Å. The lattice parameter is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 3.0 Å
  • (B) 4.3 Å
  • (C) 8.6 Å
  • (D) 6.8 Å
Explanation:

d = (√3/2)a

3.7 = (√3/2)a

a = (2 × 3.7)/√3

= 4.3 Å

Question 47.

A transistor is operated in common-emitter configuration at VSubscript (C) = 2 V such that a change in the base current from 100 μA to 200 μA produces a change in the collector current from 5 mA to 10 mA. The current gain is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 100
  • (B) 150
  • (C) 50
  • (D) 75
Explanation:

ΔI Subscript (E) = ΔI Subscript (B) + ΔI Subscript (C)

β = ΔI Subscript (C)/ΔI Subscript (B)

ΔI Subscript (C) = (10 − 5) × 10⁻³

= 5 × 10⁻³ A

ΔI Subscript (B) = (200 − 100) × 10⁻⁶

= 100 × 10⁻⁶ A

β = (5 × 10⁻³)/(100 × 10⁻⁶)

= (5/100) × 1000

= 50

Question 48.

Symbolic representation of four logic gate are shown as

Pick out which ones are for AND, NAND and NOT gates, respectively

[4 Marks] Diagram 15 – NEET-UG 2009 Question Paper Solutions
  • (A) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
  • (B) (iii), (iii) and (iv)
  • (C) (iii), (ii) and (i)
  • (D) (ii), (iv) and (iii)
Explanation:

the correct one is (ii), (iv) and (iii).

Question 49.

Which one of the following is employed as a tranquilizer?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Naproxen
  • (B) Equanil
  • (C) Chlorpheniramine
  • (D) Tetracycline
Explanation:

The drugs which are used to reduce anxiety and for the treatment of mental diseases, are called tranquilizers. These drugs are also known as psychotherapeutic drugs. Luminal, Seconal and Equanil are two commonly used tranquilizers.

Question 50.

What is the [OH] in the final solution prepared by mixing 20.0 mL of 0.050 M HCl with 30.0 mL of 0.10 M Ba(OH)₂?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 0.12 M
  • (B) 0.10 M
  • (C) 0.0050 M
  • (D) 0.40 M
Explanation:

No. of milli equivalent of HCl

= 20 × 0.05 = 1.0

No. of milli equivalent of Ba(OH)₂

= 30 × 0.1 × 2 = 6.0

After neutralization, no. of milli equivalents in 50 mL of solution

= (6 − 1) = 5

Total volume of the solution = 20 + 30 = 50 mL

∴ No. of equivalent of OH⁻ in 50 mL is

[OH⁻] = (5 × 1000/50) × 10⁻³ = 0.1 M

Question 51.

10 g of hydrogen and 64 g of oxygen were filled in a steel vessel and exploded. Amount of water produced in this reaction will be:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 2 mol
  • (B) 1 mol
  • (C) 4 mol
  • (D) 3 mol
Explanation:

H₂ + ½O₂ ⟶ H₂O

10 g 64 g

(5 mol) (2 mol)

In this reaction oxygen is the limiting agent. Hence, amount of H₂O produced depends on the amount of O₂ taken.

∵ 0.5 mol of O₂ gives H₂O = 1 mol

∴ 2 mol of O₂ gives H₂O = 4 mol

Question 52.

Structures of some common polymers are given. Which one is not correctly presented?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Diagram 16 – NEET-UG 2009 Question Paper Solutions
  • (B) Diagram 17 – NEET-UG 2009 Question Paper Solutions
  • (C) Diagram 18 – NEET-UG 2009 Question Paper Solutions
  • (D) Diagram 19 – NEET-UG 2009 Question Paper Solutions
Explanation:

Neoprene is a polymer of chloroprene.

Question 53.

Which of the following hormones contains iodine?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Testosterone
  • (B) Adrenaline
  • (C) Insulin
  • (D) Thyroxine
Explanation:

Thyroxine is the only hormone among the given choices that contains iodine. Its structure is as follows:

Diagram 20 – NEET-UG 2009 Question Paper Solutions
Question 54.

The segment of DNA which acts as the instrumental manual for the synthesis of the protein is:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) nucleoside
  • (B) nucleotide
  • (C) gene
  • (D) ribose
Explanation:

The DNA sequence that codes for a specific protein is called a Gene and thus every protein in a cell has a corresponding gene.

Question 55.

Nitrobenzene can be prepared from benzene by using a mixture of conc. HNO₃ and conc. H₂SO₄; in the mixture, nitric acid acts as a/an:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) reducing agent
  • (B) catalyst
  • (C) base
  • (D) acid
Explanation:

Nitric acid acts as a base by accepting a proton.

Diagram 21 – NEET-UG 2009 Question Paper Solutions
Question 56.

Predict the product:

[4 Marks] Diagram 22 – NEET-UG 2009 Question Paper Solutions
  • (A) Diagram 23 – NEET-UG 2009 Question Paper Solutions
  • (B) 1 Diagram 24 – NEET-UG 2009 Question Paper Solutions
  • (C) Diagram 25 – NEET-UG 2009 Question Paper Solutions
  • (D) Diagram 26 – NEET-UG 2009 Question Paper Solutions
Explanation:

Secondary amine with (NaNO₂ + HCl) gives a nitroso product.

Diagram 27 – NEET-UG 2009 Question Paper Solutions
Question 57.

Propionic acid with Br₂|P yields a dibromo product. Its structure would be:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Diagram 28 – NEET-UG 2009 Question Paper Solutions
  • (B) Diagram 29 – NEET-UG 2009 Question Paper Solutions
  • (C) Diagram 30 – NEET-UG 2009 Question Paper Solutions
  • (D) Diagram 31 – NEET-UG 2009 Question Paper Solutions
Explanation:

This reaction is an example of Hell–Volhard–Zelinsky reaction. In this reaction acids containing α–H on treatment with X₂/P give di-halo substituted acid.

Diagram 32 – NEET-UG 2009 Question Paper Solutions
Question 58.

Consider the following reaction:

[4 Marks] Diagram 33 – NEET-UG 2009 Question Paper Solutions
  • (A) benzoic acid
  • (B) benzaldehyde
  • (C) benzene
  • (D) toluene
Explanation:

.

Diagram 34 – NEET-UG 2009 Question Paper Solutions
Question 59.

H₂COH · CH₂OH on heating with periodic acid gives:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Diagram 35 – NEET-UG 2009 Question Paper Solutions
  • (B) 2 CO₂
  • (C) 2 HCOOH
  • (D) Diagram 36 – NEET-UG 2009 Question Paper Solutions
Explanation:

1,2–Diols, when treated with an aqueous solution of periodic acid, give aldehyde or ketones.

Diagram 37 – NEET-UG 2009 Question Paper Solutions
Question 60.

Consider the following reaction,

[4 Marks] Diagram 38 – NEET-UG 2009 Question Paper Solutions
  • (A) CH₃–CH₂–O–SO₃H
  • (B) CH₃CH₂–O–CH₂–CH₃
  • (C) CH₃CH₂OH
  • (D) CH₂=CH₂
Explanation:

.

Diagram 39 – NEET-UG 2009 Question Paper Solutions
Question 61.

Trichloroacetaldehyde, CCl₃CHO reacts with chlorobenzene in presence of sulphuric acid and produces:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Diagram 40 – NEET-UG 2009 Question Paper Solutions
  • (B) Diagram 41 – NEET-UG 2009 Question Paper Solutions
  • (C) Diagram 42 – NEET-UG 2009 Question Paper Solutions
  • (D) Diagram 43 – NEET-UG 2009 Question Paper Solutions
Explanation:

.

Diagram 44 – NEET-UG 2009 Question Paper Solutions
Question 62.

Benzene reacts with CH₃Cl in the presence of anhydrous AlCl₃ to form:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) chlorobenzene
  • (B) benzylchloride
  • (C) xylene
  • (D) toluene
Explanation:

.

Diagram 45 – NEET-UG 2009 Question Paper Solutions
Question 63.

Which of the following reactions is an example of nucleophilic substitution reaction?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) RX + H₂ → RH + HX
  • (B) 2RX + 2Na → R–R + 2NaX
  • (C) RX + KOH → ROH + KX
  • (D) RX + Mg → RMgX
Explanation:

In nucleophilic substitution, a nucleophile provides an electron pair to the substrate and the leaving group departs with an electron pair.

Diagram 46 – NEET-UG 2009 Question Paper Solutions
Question 64.

Which of the following complex ions is expected to absorb visible light?

(At.no. Zn = 30, Sc = 21, Ti = 22, Cr = 24)

[4 Marks]
  • (A) [Sc(H₂O)₃(NH₃)₃]³⁺
  • (B) [Zn(NH₃)₆]²⁺
  • (C) [Ti(en)₂(NH₃)₂]⁴⁺
  • (D) [Cr(NH₃)₆]³⁺
Explanation:
Since Cr³⁺ in the complex has unpaired electrons in the d orbital, hence will be coloured.

Ti = [Ar]3d²4s²; Ti⁴⁺ = 3d⁰

Cr = [Ar]3d⁵4s¹;  Cr³⁺ = 3d³

Zn = [Ar]3d¹⁰4s²;  Zn²⁺ = 3d¹⁰

Sc = [Ar]3d¹4s²;  Sc³⁺ = 3d⁰
Question 65.

Which of the following does not show optical isomerism?

(en = ethylenediamine)

[4 Marks]
  • (A) [Co(en)Cl₂(NH₃)₂]⁺
  • (B) [Co(NH₃)₃Cl₃]⁰
  • (C) [Co(en)₂Cl₂]⁺
  • (D) [Co(en)₃]³⁺
Explanation:

The octahedral coordination compounds of the type MA₃B₃ exhibit fac-mer isomerism.

Diagram 47 – NEET-UG 2009 Question Paper Solutions
Question 66.

Out of TiF₆²⁻, CoF₆³⁻, Cu₂Cl₂ and NiCl₄²⁻ (Z of Ti = 22, Co = 27, Cu = 29, Ni = 28), the colourless species are:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Cu₂Cl₂ and NiCl₄²⁻
  • (B) CoF₆³⁻ and NiCl₄²⁻
  • (C) TiF₆²⁻ and Cu₂Cl₂
  • (D) TiF₆²⁻ and CoF₆³⁻
Explanation:

In TiF₆²⁻ – Ti is in +4 O.S.; 3d⁰ – colourless

In CoF₆³⁻ – Co is in +3 O.S.; 3d⁶ – coloured

In Cu₂Cl₂ – Cu is in +1 O.S.; 3d¹⁰ – colourless

In NiCl₄²⁻ – Ni is in +2 O.S.; 3d⁸ – coloured

Question 67.

Which one of the elements with the following outer orbital configurations may exhibit the largest number of oxidation states?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 3d³4s²
  • (B) 3d²4s²
  • (C) 3d⁵4s¹
  • (D) 3d⁵4s²
Explanation:

Mn – 3d⁵4s²

The no. of various oxidation states possible are +2, +3, +4, (+5), +6, +7.

Diagram 48 – NEET-UG 2009 Question Paper Solutions
Question 68.

Among the following which is the strongest oxidising agent?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Br₂
  • (B) I₂
  • (C) F₂
  • (D) Cl₂
Explanation:

Standard reduction potential of halogens are positive and decreases from fluorine to iodine. Therefore, halogens act as strong oxidising agent and their oxidising power decreases from fluorine to iodine.

Question 69.

In the case of alkali metals, the covalent character decreases in the order:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) MCl > MI > MBr > MF
  • (B) MI > MBr > MCl > MF
  • (C) MF > MCl > MI > MBr
  • (D) MF > MCl > MBr > MI
Explanation:

MI > MBr > MCl > MF.

As the size of the anion decreases covalency decreases.

Question 70.

For the reaction A + B ⟶ products, it is observed that:

(1) On doubling the initial concentration of A only, the rate of reaction is also doubled and

(2) On doubling the initial concentrations of both A and B, there is a change by a factor of 8 in the rate of the reaction.

The rate of this reaction is given by:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) rate = k[A]²[B]³
  • (B) rate = k[A][B]²
  • (C) rate = k[A][B]
  • (D) rate = k[A]²[B]
Explanation:

When concentration of A is doubled, rate is doubled. Hence order with respect to A is one.

When concentrations of both A and B are doubled, rate increases by 8 times hence order with respect to B is 2.

∴ rate = k[A]¹[B]²

Question 71.

Half life period of a first-order reaction is 1386 seconds. The specific rate constant of the reaction is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 5.0 × 10⁻³ s⁻¹
  • (B) 5.0 × 10⁻² s⁻¹
  • (C) 0.5 × 10⁻³ s⁻¹
  • (D) 0.5 × 10⁻² s⁻¹
Explanation:

For a first order reaction

t₁/₂ = 0.693/k

k = 0.693/1386

= 0.5 × 10⁻³ s⁻¹

Question 72.

In the reaction
BrO₃⁻(aq) + 5Br⁻(aq) + 6H⁺ ⟶ 3Br₂(l) + 3H₂O(l)

The rate of appearance of bromine (Br₂) is related to rate of disappearance of bromide ions as following:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) d[Br₂]/dt = −3/5 d[Br⁻]/dt
  • (B) d[Br₂]/dt = 3/5 d[Br⁻]/dt
  • (C) d[Br₂]/dt = −5/3 d[Br⁻]/dt
  • (D) d[Br₂]/dt = 5/3 d[Br⁻]/dt
Explanation:

Rate of disappearance of Br⁻ = Rate of appearance of Br₂

⇒ −1/5 d[Br⁻]/dt = 1/3 d[Br₂]/dt

⇒ d[Br₂]/dt = −3/5 d[Br⁻]/dt

Question 73.

For the reaction, N₂ + 3H₂ ⟶ 2NH₃

d[NH₃]/dt = 2 × 10⁻⁴ mol L⁻¹ s⁻¹, the value of −d[H₂]/dt would be:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 1 × 10⁻⁴ mol L⁻¹ s⁻¹
  • (B) 3 × 10⁻⁴ mol L⁻¹ s⁻¹
  • (C) 6 × 10⁻⁴ mol L⁻¹ s⁻¹
  • (D) 4 × 10⁻⁴ mol L⁻¹ s⁻¹
Explanation:

Rate of disappearance of H₂ = Rate of formation of NH₃

⇒ −1/3 d[H₂]/dt = 1/2 d[NH₃]/dt

⇒ −d[H₂]/dt = 3/2 d[NH₃]/dt

= 3/2 × 2 × 10⁻⁴

= 3 × 10⁻⁴ mol L⁻¹ s⁻¹

Question 74.

Given:

(i) Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ ⟶ Cu, E° = 0.337 V

(ii) Cu²⁺ + e⁻ ⟶ Cu⁺, E° = 0.153 V

Electrode potential, E° for the reaction, Cu⁺ + e⁻ ⟶ Cu, will be:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 0.30 V
  • (B) 0.90 V
  • (C) 0.52 V
  • (D) 0.38 V
Explanation:

Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ ⟶ Cu; ΔG° = −nE°F

= −2 × F × 0.337 = −0.674F  ...(i)

Cu⁺ ⟶ Cu²⁺ + e⁻; ΔG° = −nE°F

= −1 × F × (−0.153) = 0.153F  ...(ii)

On adding eqn (i) & (ii)

Cu⁺ + e⁻ ⟶ Cu;

ΔG° = −0.521F = −nE°F;

Here n = 1

∴ E° = +0.52 V

Question 75.

Al₂O₃ is reduced by electrolysis at low potentials and high currents. If 4.0 × 10⁴ amperes of current is passed through molten Al₂O₃ for 6 hours, what mass of aluminium is produced? (Assume 100% current efficiency and At. mass of Al = 27 g mol⁻¹)

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 9.0 × 10³ g
  • (B) 2.4 × 10⁵ g
  • (C) 1.3 × 10⁴ g
  • (D) 8.1 × 10⁴ g
Explanation:

As Q = i × t

∴ Q = 4.0 × 10⁴ × 6 × 60 × 60 C

= 8.64 × 10⁸ C

Now since 96500 C liberates 9 g of Al

8.64 × 10⁸ C liberates

= (9/96500) × 8.64 × 10⁸ g Al

= 8.1 × 10⁴ g of Al

Question 76.

The equivalent conductance of M/32 solution of a weak monobasic acid is 8.0 mho cm² and at infinite dilution is 400 mho cm². The dissociation constant of this acid is:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 1.25 × 10⁻⁵
  • (B) 1.25 × 10⁻⁴
  • (C) 6.25 × 10⁻⁴
  • (D) 1.25 × 10⁻⁶
Explanation:

Degree of dissociation,

α = Λ/Λ∞ = 8.0/400 = 2 × 10⁻²

Kₐ = Cα²/(1 − α)

≈ Cα²

= 1/32 × (2 × 10⁻²)²

= 1.25 × 10⁻⁵

Question 77.

A 0.0020 mol aqueous solution of an ionic compound Co(NH₃)₅(NO₂)Cl freezes at −0.00732 °C. Number of moles of ions which 1 mol of compound produces on being dissolved in water will be (K_f = −1.86 °C/m)

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 3
  • (B) 4
  • (C) 2
  • (D) 1
Explanation:

ΔT_f = 0 − (−0.00732) = 0.00732

ΔT_f = i × K_f × m

i = ΔT_f /(K_f × m)

= 0.00732/(1.86 × 0.002)

= 2

Question 78.

Lithium metal crystallises in a body centred cubic crystal. If the length of the side of the unit cell of lithium is 351 pm, the atomic radius of the lithium will be:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 151.8 pm
  • (B) 75.5 pm
  • (C) 240.8 pm
  • (D) 300.5 pm
Explanation:

Since lithium metal crystallises in a body centred cubic crystal

r = a√3/4

= (351 × 1.732)/4

= 151.98 pm

Question 79.

Copper crystallises in a face-centred cubic lattice with a unit cell length of 361 pm. What is the radius of copper atom in pm?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 128
  • (B) 108
  • (C) 157
  • (D) 181
Explanation:

Since Cu metal crystallises in a face centred cubic lattice

∴ r = a/(2√2)

r = 361/(2√2) = 127.6 ≈ 128 pm

Question 80.

Which of the following compounds will exhibit cis-trans (geometrical) isomerism?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 2-Butene
  • (B) 2-Butenol
  • (C) Butanol
  • (D) 2-Butyne
Explanation:

Alkenes with double bonds cannot undergo free rotation and can have different geometrical shapes with two different groups on each end of the double bond.

Diagram 49 – NEET-UG 2009 Question Paper Solutions
Question 81.

The IUPAC name of the compound having the formula CH ≡ C–CH=CH₂ is:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 3-butene-1-yne
  • (B) 1-butyn-3-ene
  • (C) 1-butene-3-yne
  • (D) but-1-yne-3-ene
Explanation:

So the IUPAC name of the compound is 1-butene-3-yne.

Question 82.

The state of hybridization of C₂, C₃, C₅ and C₆ of the hydrocarbon,

in the following sequence:

[4 Marks] Diagram 50 – NEET-UG 2009 Question Paper Solutions
  • (A) sp, sp³, sp² and sp³
  • (B) sp, sp², sp³ and sp²
  • (C) sp, sp², sp² and sp³
  • (D) sp³, sp², sp² and sp
Explanation:

.

Diagram 51 – NEET-UG 2009 Question Paper Solutions
Question 83.

The state of hybridization of C₂, C₃, C₅ and C₆ of the hydrocarbon,

is in the following sequence:

[4 Marks] Diagram 52 – NEET-UG 2009 Question Paper Solutions
  • (A) sp³, sp², sp² and sp
  • (B) sp, sp², sp² and sp³
  • (C) sp, sp², sp³ and sp²
  • (D) sp, sp³, sp² and sp³
Answer: Diagram 53 – NEET-UG 2009 Question Paper Solutions
Question 84.

The straight chain polymer is formed by

[4 Marks]
  • (A) hydrolysis of (CH₃)₂SiCl₂ followed by condensation polymerisation
  • (B) hydrolysis of (CH₃)₃SiCl followed by condensation polymerisation
  • (C) hydrolysis of (CH₃)₄Si by addition polymerisation
  • (D) hydrolysis of CH₃SiCl₃ followed by condensation polymerisation
Explanation:

Hydrolysis of substituted chlorosilanes yield corresponding silanols which undergo polymerisation.

Diagram 54 – NEET-UG 2009 Question Paper Solutions
Question 85.

Which of the following oxides is not expected to react with sodium hydroxide?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) SiO₂
  • (B) CaO
  • (C) B₂O₃
  • (D) BeO
Explanation:

NaOH is a strong alkali. It combines with acidic and amphoteric oxides to form salts. Since CaO is a basic oxide hence does not react with NaOH.

Question 86.

Oxidation numbers of P in PO₄³⁻, of S in SO₄²⁻ and that of Cr in Cr₂O₇²⁻ are respectively

[4 Marks]
  • (A) −3, +6 and +6
  • (B) +5, +6 and +6
  • (C) +3, +6 and +5
  • (D) +5, +3 and +6
Explanation:

PO₄³⁻ = x + 4(−2) = −3; x − 8 = −3; x = +5

SO₄²⁻ = x + 4(−2) = −2; x − 8 = −2; x = +6

Cr₂O₇²⁻ = 2x + 7(−2) = −2; 2x − 14 = −2; 2x = 12; x = +6

Question 87.

The ionization constant of ammonium hydroxide is 1.77 × 10⁻⁵ at 298 K. Hydrolysis constant of ammonium chloride is:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 5.65 × 10⁻¹³
  • (B) 6.50 × 10⁻¹²
  • (C) 5.65 × 10⁻¹⁰
  • (D) 5.65 × 10⁻¹²
Explanation:

Ammonium chloride is a salt of weak base and strong acid. In this case, hydrolysis constant, Kₕ can be calculated as

Kₕ = K_w /K_b

= (1 × 10⁻¹⁴)/(1.77 × 10⁻⁵)

= 5.65 × 10⁻¹⁰

Question 88.

Which of the following molecules acts as a Lewis acid?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) (CH₃)₂O
  • (B) (CH₃)₃P
  • (C) (CH₃)₃N
  • (D) (CH₃)₃B
Explanation:

(CH₃)₃B is electron deficient, thus behave as a Lewis acid.

Question 89.

The dissociation constants for acetic acid and HCN at 25°C are 1.5 × 10⁻⁵ and 4.5 × 10⁻¹⁰ respectively. The equilibrium constant for the equilibrium CN⁻ + CH₃COOH ⇌ HCN + CH₃COO⁻ would be:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 3.0 × 10⁴
  • (B) 3.0 × 10⁻⁴
  • (C) 3.0 × 10⁵
  • (D) 3.0 × 10⁻⁵
Explanation:

Given,

CH₃COOH ⇌ CH₃COO⁻ + H⁺;

Kₐ₁ = 1.5 × 10⁻⁵  ...(i)

HCN ⇌ H⁺ + CN⁻;

Kₐ₂ = 4.5 × 10⁻¹⁰

or

H⁺ + CN⁻ ⇌ HCN;

K′ₐ₂ = 1/Kₐ₂

= 1/(4.5 × 10⁻¹⁰)  ...(ii)

∴ From (i) and (ii), we find that the equilibrium constant (Kₐ) for the reaction,

CN⁻ + CH₃COOH ⇌ CH₃COO⁻ + HCN,

Kₐ = Kₐ₁ × K′ₐ₂

= (1.5 × 10⁻⁵)/(4.5 × 10⁻¹⁰)

= (1/3) × 10⁵

= 3.33 × 10⁴

Question 90.

The values of ΔH and ΔS for the reaction, C(graphite) + CO₂(g) ⟶ 2CO(g) are 170 kJ and 170 JK⁻¹, respectively. This reaction will be spontaneous at

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 710 K
  • (B) 1110 K
  • (C) 510 K
  • (D) 910 K
Explanation:

ΔG = ΔH − TΔS

At equilibrium, ΔG = 0

⇒ 0 = (170 × 10³ J) − T(170 JK⁻¹)

⇒ T = 1000 K

For spontaneity, ΔG is −ve, which is possible only if T > 1000 K.

Question 91.

From the following bond energies:
H–H bond energy: 431.37 kJ mol⁻¹
C=C bond energy: 606.10 kJ mol⁻¹
C–C bond energy: 336.49 kJ mol⁻¹
C–H bond energy: 410.50 kJ mol⁻¹

Enthalpy for the reaction,

will be:

[4 Marks] Diagram 55 – NEET-UG 2009 Question Paper Solutions
  • (A) −120.0 kJ mol⁻¹
  • (B) −243.6 kJ mol⁻¹
  • (C) 553.0 kJ mol⁻¹
  • (D) 1523.6 kJ mol⁻¹
Explanation:

Enthalpy of reaction

= ΣB.E. Subscript (Reactant) − ΣB.E. Subscript (Product)

= [B.E. Subscript (C=C) + 4B.E. Subscript (C−H) + B.E. Subscript (H−H)]

− [B.E. Subscript (C−C) + 6B.E. Subscript (C−H)]

= [606.1 + (4 × 410.5) + 431.37] − [336.49 + (6 × 410.5)]

= −120.0 kJ mol⁻¹

Question 92.

According to MO theory which of the following lists ranks the nitrogen species in terms of increasing bond order?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) N₂ < N₂²⁻ < N₂⁻
  • (B) N₂²⁻ < N₂⁻ < N₂
  • (C) N₂²⁻ < N₂ < N₂⁻
  • (D) N₂⁻ < N₂ < N₂²⁻
Explanation:

.

Diagram 56 – NEET-UG 2009 Question Paper Solutions
Question 93.

In which of the following molecules / ions BF₃, NO₂⁻, NH₂⁻ and H₂O, is the central atom sp² hybridized?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) NO₂⁻ and NH₂⁻
  • (B) BF₃ and NO₂⁻
  • (C) NO₂⁻ and H₂O
  • (D) NH₂⁻ and H₂O
Explanation:

We find that in the given molecules hybridisation is

BF₃ → sp²

NO₂⁻ → sp²

NH₂⁻ → sp³

H₂O → sp³

Question 94.

What is the dominant intermolecular force or bond that must be overcome in converting liquid CH₃OH to a gas?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Hydrogen bonding
  • (B) Covalent bonds
  • (C) Dipole-dipole interaction
  • (D) London dispersion force
Explanation:

Due to intermolecular hydrogen bonding in methanol, it exist as associated molecule.

Question 95.

The stability of +1 oxidation state increases in the sequence:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) In < Tl < Ga < Al
  • (B) Al < Ga < In < Tl
  • (C) Tl < In < Ga < Al
  • (D) Ga < In < Al < Tl
Explanation:

The stability of +1 oxidation state increases from aluminium to thallium i.e.

Al < Ga < In < Tl

Question 96.

Amongst the elements with following electronic configurations, which of them may have the highest ionization energy?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Ne [3s²3p¹]
  • (B) Ne [3s²3p³]
  • (C) Ne [3s²3p²]
  • (D) Ar [3d¹⁰4s²4p³]
Explanation:

The smaller the atomic size, larger is the value of ionisation potential. Further the atoms having half filled or fully filled orbitals are comparatively more stable, hence more energy is required to remove the electron from such atoms.

Question 97.

Maximum number of electrons in a sub shell of an atom is determined by the following:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 2n²
  • (B) 4l + 2
  • (C) 4l − 2
  • (D) 2l + 1
Explanation:

The number of subshell is (2l + 1). The maximum number of electrons in the subshell is

2(2l + 1) = (4l + 2)

Question 98.

Which of the following is not permissible arrangement of electrons in an atom?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) n = 3, l = 2, m = −2, s = −1/2
  • (B) n = 3, l = 2, m = −3, s = −1/2
  • (C) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = −1/2
  • (D) n = 5, l = 3, m = 0, s = +1/2
Explanation:

m = 2l + 1, thus for l = 2, m = 5, hence values of m will be −2, −1, 0, +1, +2.

Therefore for l = 2, m cannot have the value −3.

Question 99.

The energy absorbed by each molecule (A₂) of a substance is 4.4 × 10⁻¹⁹ J and bond energy per molecule is 4.0 × 10⁻¹⁹ J. The kinetic energy of molecule per atom will be:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) 2.0 × 10⁻²⁰ J
  • (B) 4.0 × 10⁻²⁰ J
  • (C) 2.0 × 10⁻¹⁹ J
  • (D) 2.2 × 10⁻¹⁹ J
Explanation:

K.E per atom

= [(4.4 × 10⁻¹⁹) − (4.0 × 10⁻¹⁹)] / 2

= (0.4 × 10⁻¹⁹) / 2

= 2.0 × 10⁻²⁰ J

Question 100.

Which one is the wrong pairing for the disease and its causal organism?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Late blight of potato – Alternaria solani
  • (B) Root-knot of vegetables – Meloidogyne sp
  • (C) Black rust of wheat – Puccinia graminis
  • (D) Loose smut of wheat – Ustilago nuda
Explanation:

Late blight is caused by the fungus Phytophthora infestans. Late blight appears on potato or tomato leaves as pale green, water-soaked spots, often beginning at leaf tips or edges. The circular or irregular leaf lesions are often surrounded by a pale yellowish-green border that merges with healthy tissue. Lesions enlarge rapidly and turn dark brown to purplish-black.

Question 101.

Mannitol is the stored food in:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Fucus
  • (B) Chara
  • (C) Porphyra
  • (D) Gracillaria
Explanation:

Mannitol is a food stored in Fucus. Fucus is a genus of brown alga in the clas Phaeophyceae to be found in the intertidal zones of rocky seashores almost everywhere in the world. Primary chemical constituents of this plant include mucilage, algin, mannitol, beta-carotene, zeaxanthin, iodine, bromine, potassium, volatile oils, and many other minerals.

Question 102.

Which one of the following plants is monoecious?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Pinus
  • (B) Cycas
  • (C) Papaya
  • (D) Marchantia
Explanation:

Pinus plant is monoecious i.e. both male and female cone are present in same plant but on different branches. Pinus, with over 100 species, is the largest genus of conifers and the most widespread genus of trees in the Northern Hemisphere.

Question 103.

Which one of the following is a vascular cryptogam?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Marchantia
  • (B) Ginkgo
  • (C) Equisetum
  • (D) Cedrus
Explanation:

Equisetum is a vascular cryptogam. Equisetum is the only living genus in the Equisetaceae, a family of vascular plants that reproduce by spores rather than seeds. They are commonly known as horse tails.

Question 104.

Which one of the following has haplontic life cycle?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Funaria
  • (B) Wheat
  • (C) Ustilago
  • (D) Polytrichum
Explanation:

Ustilago has a haplontic life cycle. This is a simplest and most primitive type of life cycle. The other pattern of life-cycle have originated from this type. This type is found in all Chlorophyceae. In such cases, the somatic phase (plant) is haploid (gametophyte) while the diploid phase (sporophyte) is represented by zygote. During germination the zygote (2n) divides meiotically producing haploid (n) zoospores, which develop into individual plant. Here, the unicellular or filamentous gametophyte (n) alternates with one-celled zygote or sporophyte (2n).

Question 105.

Which one of the following groups of animals is bilaterally symmetrical and triploblastic?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Aschelminthes (round worms)
  • (B) Ctenophores
  • (C) Sponges
  • (D) Coelenterates (Cnidarians)
Explanation:

Aschelminthes is bilaterally symmetrical and triploblastic. These are mostly aquatic, free living or parasitic. Their body is three layered which is ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm.

Question 106.

Which one of the following pairs of animals comprises jawless fishes?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Mackerals and Rohu
  • (B) Lampreys and hag fishes
  • (C) Lampreys and eels
  • (D) Guppies and hag fishes
Explanation:

Lampreys and hagfishes are unusual, jawless fish that comprise the order Cyclostomata, so named because of the circular shape of the mouth. The brains of lampreys and hagfishes differ a lot, but they also show a large number of similarities, as do all craniate brains.

Question 107.

An example of axile placentation is:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Dianthus
  • (B) Marigold
  • (C) Lemon
  • (D) Argemone
Explanation:

In flowering plants, placentation occurs where the ovules are attached inside the ovary. An example of axile placentation is citrus. In this type of placentation the ovary is sectioned by radial spokes with placentas in separate locules.

Question 108.

The floral formula

is that of:

[4 Marks] Diagram 57 – NEET-UG 2009 Question Paper Solutions
  • (A) Tulip
  • (B) Sunhemp
  • (C) Tobacco
  • (D) Soyabean
Explanation:

The given floral formula is of tobacco. It belong to the family Solanaceae. The flower is actinomorphic, bisexual and has superior ovary. Soyabean and sunhemp have monocarpellary pistil and tulip has trimerous flower and perianth.

Question 109.

Reduction in vascular tissue, mechanical tissue and cuticle is characteristic of:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) mesophytes
  • (B) epiphytes
  • (C) xerophytes
  • (D) hydrophytes
Explanation:

Reduction in vascular tissue, mechanical tissue and cuticle is characteristic of hydrophytes.

Question 110.

Palisade parenchyma is absent in leaves of:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) sorghum
  • (B) soybean
  • (C) gram
  • (D) mustard
Explanation:

Palisade parenchyma is absent in leaves of sorghum. It is a leaf tissue composed of columnar cells containing numerous chloroplasts in which the long axis of each cell is perpendicular to the leaf surface. The palisade parenchyma is usually directly beneath the epidermis of the upper surface of the leaf.

Question 111.

Anatomically fairly old dicotyledonous root is distinguished from the dicotyledonous stem by

[4 Marks]
  • (A) absence of secondary phloem
  • (B) presence of cortex
  • (C) position of protoxylem
  • (D) absence of secondary xylem
Explanation:

Anatomically fairly old dicotyledonous root is distinguished from the dicotyledonous stem by position of protoxylem. In dicot root the protoxylem is located near the periphery of the vascular cylinder while in dicot stem the protoxylem is located near the centre of vascular bundle i.e. the xylem is endarch.

Question 112.

The annular and spirally thickened conducting elements generally develop in the protoxylem when the root or stem is:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) elongating
  • (B) widening
  • (C) differentiating
  • (D) maturing
Explanation:

The annular and spirally thickened conducting elements generally develop in the protoxylem when the root or stem is maturing.

Question 113.

In barley stem vascular bundles are:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) open and in a ring
  • (B) closed and radial
  • (C) open and scattered
  • (D) closed and scattered
Explanation:

In barley stem, vascular bundles are closed and scattered. They are open only for a hours in the day time and never open at night. e.g. Cereals.

Question 114.

The epithelial tissue present on the inner surface of bronchioles and fallopian tube is:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) cuboidal
  • (B) squamous
  • (C) ciliated
  • (D) glandular
Explanation:

Ciliated epithelium has simple columnar epithelial cells, but in addition, they possess fine hair-like outgrowths, cilia, on their free surfaces. These cilia are capable of rapid, rhythmic, wavelike beatings in a certain direction. This movement of the cilia in a certain direction causes the mucus, which is secreted by the goblet cells, to move (flow or stream) in that direction.

Question 115.

The cell junctions called tight, adhering and gap junctions are found in

[4 Marks]
  • (A) muscular tissue
  • (B) neural tissue
  • (C) connective tissue
  • (D) epithelial tissue
Explanation:

The cell junctions known as tight, adhering and gap junctions are found in epithelial tissue. Epithelial tissue covers the whole surface of the body. It is made up of cells closely packed and ranged in one or more layers. This tissue is specialised to form the covering or lining of all internal and external body surfaces.

Question 116.

The kind of tissue that forms the supportive structure in our pinna (external ears) is also found in:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) nails
  • (B) ear ossicles
  • (C) tip of the nose
  • (D) vertebrae
Explanation:

The kind of tissue that forms the supportive structure in our pinna (external ears) is also found in tip of the nose. External pinna is made up of elastic cartilage. It is the passage towards middle ear.

Question 117.

If a live earthworm is pricked with a needle on its outer surface without damaging its gut, the fluid that comes out is:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) excretory fluid
  • (B) slimy mucus
  • (C) coelomic fluid
  • (D) haemolymph
Explanation:

If a live earthworm is pricked with a needle on its outer surface without damaging its gut, the fluid that comes out is coelomic fluid because coelomic fluid lies between body wall and alimentary canal.

Question 118.

Which one of the following correctly describes the location of some body parts in the earthworm Pheretima?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Four pairs of spermathecae in 4–7 segments.
  • (B) One pair of ovaries attached at intersegmental septum of 14th and 15th segments.
  • (C) Two pairs of accessory glands in 16–18 segments.
  • (D) Two pairs of testes in 10th and 11th segments.
Explanation:

In Pheretima two pairs of testes sacs are situated in the 10th and 11th segments. Each testes sac of the 10th segment encloses a testes and a seminal funnel. Each testes sac of the 11th segment encloses a testes, a seminal vesicle and a seminal funnel.

Question 119.

Plasmodesmata are:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) lignified cemented layers between cells
  • (B) membranes connecting the nucleus with plasmalemma
  • (C) connections between adjacent cells
  • (D) locomotary structures
Explanation:

Plasmodesmata are connections between adjacent cells. Plasmodesmata are narrow channels that act as intercellular cytoplasmic bridges to facilitate communication and transport of materials between plant cells.

Question 120.

Cytoskeleton is made up of:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) callose deposits
  • (B) cellulosic microfibrils
  • (C) proteinaceous filaments
  • (D) calcium carbonate granules
Explanation:

The cytoskeleton is made up of three kinds of protein filaments: actin filaments (also called microfilaments), intermediate filaments and microtubules whose major constituents are actin and tubulin respectively.

Question 121.

Stroma in the chloroplasts of higher plant contains:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) light-dependent reaction enzymes
  • (B) ribosomes
  • (C) chlorophyll
  • (D) light-independent reaction enzymes
Explanation:

Stroma in the chloroplasts of higher plant contains light independent reaction enzymes. Within the stroma are stacks of thylakoids, the sub-organelles which are the site of photosynthesis.

Question 122.

Middle lamella is composed mainly of:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) muramic acid
  • (B) calcium pectate
  • (C) hemicellulose
  • (D) phosphoglycerides
Explanation:

Middle lamella is mainly composed of calcium pectate. Calcium is deposited in plant cell walls during their formation—it is required for the stability and function of cell membranes and acts as a type of “cementing agent” in the cell walls in the form of calcium pectate.

Question 123.

Given below is a schematic break-up of the phases / stages of cell cycle:

Which one of the following is the correct indication of the stage/phase in the cell cycle?

[4 Marks] Diagram 58 – NEET-UG 2009 Question Paper Solutions
  • (A) C – Karyokinesis
  • (B) D – Synthetic phase
  • (C) B – Metaphase
  • (D) A – Cytokinesis
Explanation:

In schematic break-up of the phases/ stages of cell cycle, D synthetic phase is the correct indication of the stage/phase in the cell cycle.

Question 124.

Synapsis occurs between:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) mRNA and ribosomes
  • (B) two homologous chromosomes
  • (C) a male and a female gamete
  • (D) spindle fibres and centromere
Explanation:

Synapsis is the pairing of two homologous chromosomes that occurs during prophase I (zygotene stage) of meiosis. The two chromosomes move together and pair corresponding along their lengths as they lie side to side. The resulting structure is called a bivalent.

Question 125.

Guard cells help in:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) protection against grazing
  • (B) fighting against infection
  • (C) transpiration
  • (D) guttation
Explanation:

Guard cells help in transpiration. Transpiration is the evaporation of water from the aerial parts of plants, especially leaves but also stems, flowers and roots. Stomatal opening allows the diffusion of carbon dioxide and oxygen during photosynthesis.

Question 126.

Manganese is required in:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) photolysis of water during photosynthesis
  • (B) plant cell wall formation
  • (C) chlorophyll synthesis
  • (D) nucleic acid synthesis
Explanation:

Manganese is essential for many plant functions.

Some of them are:

• The assimilation of carbon dioxide in photosynthesis.

• It is involved in the Hill Reaction where water is split during photosynthesis.

• It aids in the synthesis of chlorophyll and in nitrate assimilation.

• Manganese activates fat forming enzymes.

• It functions in the formation of riboflavin, ascorbic acid, and carotene.

• It functions in electron transport during photosynthesis.

Question 127.

Which of the following is a symbiotic nitrogen fixer?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Azotobacter
  • (B) Frankia
  • (C) Azolla
  • (D) Glomus
Explanation:

Frankia is a symbiotic nitrogen fixer in root nodules of several non-legume plants like Casuarina and Alnus.

Question 128.

Oxygenic photosynthesis occurs in:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Chromatium
  • (B) Chlorobium
  • (C) Rhodospirillum
  • (D) Oscillatoria
Explanation:

Oxygenic photosynthesis occurs in Oscillatoria. It is a genus of filamentous cyanobacteria which is named for the oscillation in its movement.

Question 129.

Cyclic photophosphorylation results in the formation of

[4 Marks]
  • (A) ATP
  • (B) ATP, NADPH and O₂
  • (C) ATP and NADPH
  • (D) NADPH
Explanation:

Cyclic photophosphorylation results in the formation of ATP. This process is called photophosphorylation, which occurs in two different ways. Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is considered by biologists to be the energy currency of life.

Question 130.

Aerobic respiratory pathway is appropriately termed:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) amphibolic
  • (B) parabolic
  • (C) catabolic
  • (D) anabolic
Explanation:

All energy-releasing pathways whether aerobic (requiring oxygen) or anaerobic (not requiring oxygen) begin with a pathway called glycolysis, which occurs in the cytoplasm (cytosol). Aerobic respiratory pathway is thus appropriately termed as amphibolic.

Question 131.

One of the synthetic auxin is:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) NAA
  • (B) IBA
  • (C) GA
  • (D) IAA
Explanation:

NAA is a synthetic auxin. Some of the most widely used weed killers are synthetic auxins. Synthetic auxin analogs include 1–naphthaleneacetic acid (NAA), 2,4–dichlorophenoxy acetic acid (2,4-D) and 2,4,5-trichlorophenoxy acetic acid (2,4,5-T).

Question 132.

Which one of the following acids is a derivative of carotenoids?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Abscisic acid
  • (B) Indole butyric acid
  • (C) Gibberellic acid
  • (D) Indole-3-acetic acid
Explanation:

Abscisic acid (ABA), also known as abscisin II and dormin, is a plant hormone. It functions in many plant developmental processes, including bud dormancy. Abscisic acid is a derivative of carotenoids. It was called “abscisin II” originally because it was thought to play a major role in abscission of fruits. At about the same time another group was calling it “dormin” because they thought it had a major role in bud dormancy. The name abscisic acid (ABA) was coined as a compromise between the two groups.

Question 133.

Synapsis occurs between:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) mRNA and ribosomes
  • (B) two homologous chromosomes
  • (C) spindle fibres and centromere
  • (D) a male and a female gamete
Explanation:

Synapsis is the pairing of two homologous chromosomes that occurs during prophase I (zygotene stage) of meiosis. The two chromosomes move together and pair corresponding along their lengths as they lie side to side. The resulting structure is called a bivalent.

Question 134.

A young infant may be feeding entirely on mothers milk which is white in colour but the stools which the infant passes out is quite yellowish. What is this yellow colour due to?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) bile pigments passed through bile juice
  • (B) undigested milk protein casein
  • (C) pancreatic juice poured into duodenum
  • (D) intestinal juice
Explanation:

Young infant may be feeding entirely on mother’s milk which is white in colour but the stools which the infant passes out is quite yellowish because of the bile pigments passed through bile juice. Bile pigments are any of several coloured compounds derived from porphyrin that are found in bile; principally bilirubin and biliverdin. Bile pigment is produced regularly when old red blood cells are broken down, mainly by the spleen. In some blood-disorders where the red cells are destroyed, more bile pigment is produced.

Question 135.

Which one of the following statements is true regarding digestion and absorption of food in humans?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Fructose and amino acids are absorbed through intestinal mucosa with the help of carrier ions like Na⁺.
  • (B) Chylomicrons are small lipoprotein particles that are transported from intestine into blood capillaries.
  • (C) Oxyntic cells in our stomach secrete the proenzyme pepsinogen.
  • (D) About 60% of starch is hydrolysed by salivary amylase in our mouth.
Explanation:

Fructose and amino acids are absorbed through intestinal mucosa with the help of carrier ions like Na⁺. Carbohydrates are absorbed as monosaccharides (simple sugars such as glucose, fructose, and galactose that cannot be further broken down by hydrolysis) or as disaccharides (such as sucrose, lactose, maltose, and dextrin that can be hydrolyzed to two monosaccharides). These simpler molecules, however, must be obtained by the breaking down of polysaccharides, complex carbohydrates that contain many monosaccharides. Chief among these is amylase, a starch that accounts for 20 percent of dietary carbohydrate.

Question 136.

Which one of the following pairs of food components in humans reaches the stomach totally undigested?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Starch and fat
  • (B) Fat and cellulose
  • (C) Starch and cellulose
  • (D) Protein and starch
Explanation:

Fat and cellulose is the pair of food components in human that reaches the stomach totally undigested.

Question 137.

When breast feeding is replaced by less nutritive food low in proteins and calories; the infants below the age of one year are likely to suffer from:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Rickets
  • (B) Kwashiorkor
  • (C) Pellagra
  • (D) Marasmus
Explanation:

If breast feeding is replaced by less nutritive food low in proteins and calories; the infants below the age of one year are likely to suffer from Marasmus. It is a form of malnutrition that occurs when there is not enough protein in the diet. This disease is more common in very poor countries. It often occurs during a drought or other natural calamities, or during political unrest. These conditions are responsible for a lack of food, which leads to malnutrition.

Question 138.

The most popularly known blood grouping is the ABO grouping. It is named ABO and not ABC, because “O” in it refers to having:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) overdominance of this type on the genes for A and B types.
  • (B) one antibody only - either anti-A or anti-B on the RBC.
  • (C) no antigens A and B on RBCs.
  • (D) other antigens besides A and B on RBCs.
Explanation:

The ABO blood group system is the most important blood type system (or blood group system) in human blood transfusion. It is named ABO and not ABC, because blood group O (or blood group zero in some countries) individuals do not have either A or B antigens on the surface of their RBCs, but their blood serum contains IgM anti-A antibodies and anti-B antibodies against the A and B blood group antigens. Therefore, a group O individual can receive blood only from a group O individual, but can donate blood to individuals of any ABO blood group (i.e. A, B, O or AB).

Question 139.

Compared to blood our lymph has:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) plasma without proteins
  • (B) more WBCs and no RBCs
  • (C) more RBCs and less WBCs
  • (D) no plasma
Explanation:

Lymph is a mobile connective tissue comprising lymph plasma and lymph corpuscles. Its composition is just like blood plasma except that it lacks RBCs and large plasma proteins.

Question 140.

There is no DNA in:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) mature RBCs
  • (B) a mature spermatozoan
  • (C) hair root
  • (D) an enucleated ovum
Explanation:

Red blood cells are the most common type of blood cell and delivering oxygen to the body tissues via the blood. There is no DNA in mature RBC. The reticulocyte which is the immediate precursor of the mature RBC evolves into mature RBC within 24 hours of release into the peripheral circulation.

Question 141.

Globulins contained in human blood plasma are primarily involved in:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) oxygen transport in the blood.
  • (B) osmotic balance of body fluids.
  • (C) clotting of blood.
  • (D) defence mechanisms of body.
Explanation:

Globulins contained in human blood plasma are primarily involved in defence mechanism of body. Globulin is one of the two types of serum proteins, the other being albumin. Globulins can be divided into three fractions based on their electrophoretic mobility.

Question 142.

In a standard ECG which one of the following alphabets is the correct representation of the respective activity of the human heart?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) S - start of systole
  • (B) T - end of diastole
  • (C) R - repolarisation of ventricles
  • (D) P - depolarisation of the atria
Explanation:

In a standard ECG, the P-wave is a small upward wave that indicates the depolarisation of the atria. This is caused by the activation of SA node.

Question 143.

Uric acid is the chief nitrogenous component of the excretory products of:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) earthworm
  • (B) cockroach
  • (C) frog
  • (D) man
Explanation:

Uric acid is the chief nitrogenous component of the excretory product of cockroach. Animals which live in dry conditions have to conserve water in their bodies. Therefore, they synthesise crystals of uric acid from ammonia. Uric acid crystals are non-toxic and can be retained in the body for a considerable time. Uricotelic animals include insects, reptiles and birds.

Question 144.

What will happen if the stretch receptors of the urinary bladder wall are totally removed?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Urine will continue to collect normally in the bladder
  • (B) Urine will not collect in the bladder
  • (C) Micturition will continue
  • (D) There will be no micturition
Explanation:

Sensory stretch receptors are responsible for the stretch reflex. If these are removed then autonomic nervous system control will not be there and micturition will continue. Micturition is the expulsion of urine from the urinary bladder.

Question 145.

Which one of the following is the correct matching of three items and their grouping category?

Option

Items

Group

(a)

ilium, ischium, pubis

coxal bones of pelvic girdle

(b)

actin, myosin, rhodopsin

muscle proteins

(c)

cytosine, uracil, thiamine

pyrimidines

(d)

malleus, incus, cochlea

ear ossicles

[4 Marks]
  • (A) cytosine, uracil, thiamine – pyrimidines
  • (B) actin, myosin, rhodopsin – muscle proteins
  • (C) malleus, incus, cochlea – ear ossicles
  • (D) ilium, ischium, pubis – coxal bones of pelvic girdle
Explanation:

The pelvic girdle is formed by two innominate bones consists of three separate bones ilium, ischium and the pubis.

Question 146.

Elbow joint is an example of:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) hinge joint
  • (B) gliding joint
  • (C) ball and socket joint
  • (D) pivot joint
Explanation:

Elbow joint is an example of hinge joint. The elbow is a hinge joint; it can open and close like a door. Hinge joint is a form of diarthrosis (freely movable joint) that allows angular movement in one plane only, increasing or decreasing the angle between the bones e.g. elbow joint, knee joint etc.

Question 147.

Which part of human brain is concerned with the regulation of body temperature?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Cerebrum
  • (B) Cerebellum
  • (C) Hypothalamus
  • (D) Medulla Oblongata
Explanation:

Hypothalamus part of human brain is concerned with the regulation of body temperature. The hypothalamus is a portion of the brain that contains a number of small nuclei with a variety of functions. The hypothalamus is small cone-shaped structure, projects downward, ending in the pituitary.

Question 148.

Alzheimer disease in humans is associated with the deficiency of:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) acetylcholine
  • (B) glutamic acid
  • (C) dopamine
  • (D) gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA)
Explanation:

Alzheimer disease in humans is associated with the deficiency of acetylcholine. Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter produced by neurons referred to as cholinergic neurons. Acetylcholine plays a role in skeletal muscle movement, as well as in the regulation of smooth muscle and cardiac muscle. Acetylcholine is synthesised from choline and acetyl coenzyme-A through the action of the enzyme choline acetyltransferase and becomes packaged into membrane-bound vesicles.

Question 149.

A health disorder that results from the deficiency of thyroxine in adults and characterised by (i) a low metabolic rate, (ii) increase in body weight and (iii) tendency to retain water in tissues is:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) simple goitre
  • (B) myxoedema
  • (C) cretinism
  • (D) hypothyroidism
Explanation:

Myxoedema is caused by deficiency of thyroid hormone or thyroxine in adults. It is characterised by increase in body weight, puffy appearance, low metabolic rate, and tendency to retain water in tissues.

Question 150.

Vegetative propagation in mint occurs by:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) offset
  • (B) rhizome
  • (C) sucker
  • (D) runner
Explanation:

Vegetative propagation in mint occurs through sucker. Vegetative reproduction is a type of asexual reproduction for plants, and is also called vegetative propagation, vegetative multiplication, or vegetative cloning. It is a process by which new plant “individuals” arise and are obtained without production of seeds or spores.

Question 151.

A fruit developed from hypanthodium inflorescence is called

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Sorosis
  • (B) Syconus
  • (C) Caryopsis
  • (D) Hesperidium
Explanation:

The fig (*Syconus*) is an aggregate fruit, consisting of numerous seed-like pericarps enclosed within a hollow, fleshy receptacle where the flowers were attached. This fruit developed from hypanthodium inflorescence.

Question 152.

Cotyledons and testa respectively are edible parts in

[4 Marks]
  • (A) walnut and tamarind
  • (B) french bean and coconut
  • (C) cashew nut and litchi
  • (D) groundnut and pomegranate
Explanation:

Cotyledons and testa respectively are edible parts in groundnut and pomegranate. A cotyledon is a significant part of the embryo within the seed of a plant. Upon germination, the cotyledon may become the embryonic first leaves of a seedling. Testa is often thick or hard outer coat of a seed.

Question 153.

An example of a seed with endosperm, perisperm, and caruncle is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) coffee
  • (B) lily
  • (C) cotton
  • (D) castor
Explanation:

An example of a seed with endosperm, perisperm, and caruncle is castor. Castor seed is the source of castor oil, which has a wide variety of uses. The seeds contain between 40% and 60% oil that is rich in triglycerides.

Question 154.

Seminal plasma in humans is rich in

[4 Marks]
  • (A) fructose and calcium but has no enzymes
  • (B) glucose and certain enzymes but has no calcium
  • (C) fructose and certain enzymes but poor in calcium
  • (D) fructose, calcium and certain enzymes
Explanation:

Human seminal plasma is a complex mixture of proteins, glycoproteins, peptides, glycolipids, and prostaglandins secreted by organs of the male reproductive tract. The components of this fluid have been implicated in the suppression of immune response, agonistic effects on sperm-egg binding, and promotion of successful implantation of the human embryo. Seminal plasma in humans is rich in fructose, calcium and certain enzymes.

Question 155.

Given below is a diagrammatic sketch of a portion of human male reproductive system. Select the correct set of the names of the parts labelled A, B, C, D.

[4 Marks] Diagram 59 – NEET-UG 2009 Question Paper Solutions
  • (A) ureter (A); seminal vesicle (B); prostate (C); bulbourethral gland (D).
  • (B) ureter (A); prostate (B); seminal vesicle (C); bulbourethral gland (D).
  • (C) vas deferens (A); seminal vesicle (B); bulbourethral gland (C); prostate (D).
  • (D) vas deferens (A); seminal vesicle (B); prostate (C); bulbourethral gland (D).
Explanation:

The human male reproductive system consists of a number of sex organs that are a part of the human reproductive process. In diagram of human, the point indicated by A, B, C, D are vas deferens, seminal vesicle, prostate and bulbourethral gland.

Question 156.

Which one of the following is the correct matching of the events occurring during menstrual cycle?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Ovulation: LH and FSH attain peak level and sharp fall in the secretion of progesterone.
  • (B) Menstruation: Breakdown of myometrium and ovum not fertilised.
  • (C) Development of corpus luteum : Secretory phase and increased secretion of progesterone.
  • (D) Proliferative phase: Rapid regeneration of myometrium and maturation of Graafian follicle.
Explanation:

The corpus luteum is essential for establishing and maintaining pregnancy in females. In the ovary, the corpus luteum secretes estrogens and progesterone, which are steroid hormones responsible for the thickening of the endometrium and its development and maintenance, respectively.

Question 157.

Which one of the following is the most likely root cause why menstruation is not taking place in regularly cycling human female?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) maintenance of the hypertrophical endometrial lining
  • (B) fertilisation of the ovum
  • (C) retention of well-developed corpus luteum
  • (D) maintenance of high concentration of sex hormones in the blood stream
Explanation:

Fertilization of ovum is the most likely root cause when menstruation is not taking place in regularly cycling human female. In order for fertilization to occur, one of these sperm must attach itself to the ovum and penetrate its outer surface. The fertilized ovum will then continue travelling down the fallopian tube, taking several days until it reaches the uterus. When it arrives, it attaches itself to the lining of the uterus and continues to grow. If the ovum is not fertilized it will die and the progesterone and estrogen hormone levels will drop. Without these hormones the prepared uterus lining breaks up and is released through the vagina. This is known as a “period”.

Question 158.

Foetal ejection reflex in human female is induced by

[4 Marks]
  • (A) release oxytocin from pituitary
  • (B) fully developed foetus and placenta
  • (C) differentiation of mammary glands
  • (D) pressure exerted by amniotic fluid
Explanation:

Foetal ejection reflex in human female is induced by fully developed foetus and placenta. When a woman is in a lithotomy or semi-sitting position, The Foetal Ejection Reflex is impaired and the increased vascularity caused by the sacrum's inability to move as the baby descends can be intolerable.

Question 159.

A change in the amount of yolk and its distribution in the egg will affect

[4 Marks]
  • (A) pattern of cleavage
  • (B) number of blastomeres produced
  • (C) formation of zygote
  • (D) fertilization
Explanation:

A change in the amount of yolk and its distribution in the egg will affect pattern of cleavage. The pattern of cleavage is influenced by the amount of yolk in the egg. In eggs with less yolk, cleavages are equal, and the resulting blastomeres are cells of similar size. If the yolk is localized, such as in frog eggs, then cleavages are unequal; the cells derived from the yolky region (the vegetal pole) are larger than those derived from the region without yolk (the animal pole).

Question 160.

Study the pedigree chart given below:

What does it show?

[4 Marks] Diagram 60 – NEET-UG 2009 Question Paper Solutions
  • (A) The pedigree chart is wrong as this is not possible
  • (B) Inheritance of a condition like phenylketonuria as an autosomal recessive trait
  • (C) Inheritance of a recessive sex-linked disease like haemophilia
  • (D) Inheritance of a sex-linked inborn error of metabolism like phenylketonuria
Explanation:

The chart shows the inheritance of a condition like phenylketonuria as an autosomal recessive trait. Parents need to be heterozygous as two of their children are known to be sufferer of the disease. It cannot be recessive sex linked inheritance because then the male parent would also be sufferer.

Question 161.

The genetic defect - Adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency may be cured permanently by:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) introducing bone marrow cells producing ADA into cells at early embryonic stages.
  • (B) enzyme replacement therapy.
  • (C) periodic infusion of genetically engineered lymphocytes having functional ADA cDNA.
  • (D) administering adenosine deaminase activators.
Explanation:

By introducing bone marrow cells producing ADA into cells at early embryonic stages, the genetic defect adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency may be cured permanently. It is due to mutation.

Question 162.

Sickle cell anaemia is:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) caused by a change in a single base pair of DNA
  • (B) caused by substitution of valine by glutamic acid in the beta globin chain of haemoglobin
  • (C) characterized by elongated sickle like RBCs with a nucleus
  • (D) an autosomal linked dominant trait
Explanation:

Sickle cell anaemia is caused by a change in a single base pair of DNA. Sickle cell anaemia is controlled by a single pair of alleles, Hbᴬ and Hbˢ and the genotype HbˢHbˢ show the diseased phenotype. Sickle cell disease or sickle cell anaemia (or drepanocytosis), is a life-long blood disorder characterised by red blood cells that assume an abnormal, rigid, sickle shape. Sickling decreases the cells flexibility and results in a risk of various complications.

Question 163.

Select the incorrect statement from the following:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Small population size results in random genetic drift in a population
  • (B) Galactosemia is an inborn error of metabolism
  • (C) Baldness is a sex-limited trait
  • (D) Linkage is an exception to the principle of independent assortment in heredity
Explanation:

Baldness is a sex influenced trait. The dominance of alleles may differ in heterozygotes of the two sexes.

Question 164.

Point mutation involves:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) duplication
  • (B) change in single base pair
  • (C) insertion
  • (D) deletion
Explanation:

A point mutation is a simple change in one base of the gene sequence. This is equivalent to changing one letter in a sentence, such as in this example, where we change the ‘c’ in cat to an ‘h’.

Original: The fat cat ate the wee rat.

Point Mutation: The fat hat ate the wee rat.

Question 165.

T.O. Diener discovered a:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) bacteriophage
  • (B) infectious protein
  • (C) free infectious DNA
  • (D) free infectious RNA
Explanation:

Theodor O. Diener discovered the Potato Spindle Tuber Viroid (“PSTVd”), the first viroid ever identified, in 1971. PSTVd is a small, circular RNA molecule. Dr. Diener discovered that the pathogen causing potato spindle tuber disease is not a virus, as previously believed, but a much smaller, free RNA molecule.

Question 166.

What is not true for genetic code?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) It is degenerate
  • (B) It is nearly universal
  • (C) It is unambiguous
  • (D) A codon in mRNA is read in a non contiguous fashion
Explanation:

The genetic code consists of 64 triplets of nucleotides. These triplets are called codons. With three exceptions, each codon encodes for one of the 20 amino acids used in the synthesis of proteins. That produces some redundancy in the code. Most of the amino acids being encoded by more than one codon. The genetic code can be expressed as either RNA codons or DNA codons.

Question 167.

Removal of introns and joining the exons in a defined order in a transcription unit is called:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) tailing
  • (B) transformation
  • (C) capping
  • (D) splicing
Explanation:

Splicing is the removal of introns and joining the exons in a defined order in a transcription unit. In molecular biology, splicing is a modification of RNA after transcription, in which introns are removed and exons are joined.

Question 168.

Whose experiments cracked the DNA and discovered unequivocally that a genetic code is a ‘triplet’.

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Hershey and Chase
  • (B) Morgan and Sturtevant
  • (C) Nirenberg and Matthaei
  • (D) Beadle and Tatum
Explanation:

Nirenberg and Matthaei (1961) experimentally proved that a single amino acid is determined by a sequence of three nitrogen bases. The sequence of three nitrogen bases determining a single amino acid is called a triplet code. Nirenberg and Matthaei experiments cracked the DNA and discovered unequivocally that a genetic code is a triplet.

Question 169.

Semi-conservative replication of DNA was first demonstrated in:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Escherichia coli
  • (B) Streptococcus pneumoniae
  • (C) Salmonella typhimurium
  • (D) Drosophila melanogaster
Explanation:

Semiconservative replication of DNA was first demonstrated in Escherichia coli. E. coli is a common type of bacteria that can get into food, like beef and vegetables. The strange thing about these bacteria is that they are not always harmful to you. E. coli normally lives inside your intestines, where it helps your body breakdown and digest the food you eat.

Question 170.

Peripatus is a connecting link between:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Mollusca and Echinodermata
  • (B) Annelida and Arthropoda
  • (C) Coelenterata and Porifera
  • (D) Ctenophora and Platyhelminthes
Explanation:

Peripatus is a genus of Onychophora (Velvet worms). It is said to be a living fossil because it has been unchanged for approximately 570 million years. Peripatus is a nocturnal carnivore. Peripatus is a connecting link between Annelida and Arthropoda. It feeds by trapping its prey (mostly small insects) in a white, sticky fluid it ejects from two antennae near its head. The fluid hardens on contact with the air and then the prey becomes immobilized.

Question 171.

In the case of peppered moth (Biston betularia) the black-coloured form became dominant over the light-coloured form in England during industrial revolution. This is an example of:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) appearance of the darker coloured individuals due to very poor sunlight
  • (B) protective mimicry
  • (C) inheritance of darker colour character acquired due to the darker environment
  • (D) natural selection whereby the darker forms were selected
Explanation:

In the case of peppered moth (Biston betularia) the black coloured form became dominant over the light coloured form in England during industrial revolution. This is an example of natural selection. This group is about species that gain protection from predators due to selection caused by nature.

Question 172.

A person likely to develop tetanus is immunised by administering

[4 Marks]
  • (A) preformed antibodies
  • (B) wide spectrum antibiotics
  • (C) dead germs
  • (D) weakened germs
Explanation:

Tetanus toxoid is a vaccine consisting of growth products of Clostridium tetani treated with formaldehyde serving as an active immunising agent. Hence it is weakened germs. The first tetanus toxoid (inactivated toxin) was produced in 1924 and was used successfully to prevent tetanus in the armed services during World War II. In the mid-1940s, tetanus vaccine was combined with diphtheria toxoid and inactivated pertussis vaccine to make the combination DTP vaccine for routine childhood immunization.

Question 173.

The letter T in T-lymphocyte refers to

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Thalamus
  • (B) Tonsil
  • (C) Thymus
  • (D) Thyroid
Explanation:

The letter T in T-lymphocyte refers to thymus. In human anatomy, the thymus is an organ located in the upper anterior portion of the chest cavity just behind the sternum. The thymus gland is a pink-grey organ that lies underneath the top of the breast bone.

Question 174.

Use of anti-histamines and steroids give a quick relief from

[4 Marks]
  • (A) nausea
  • (B) cough
  • (C) headache
  • (D) allergy
Explanation:

The use of anti-histamines and steroids gives a quick relief from headache. Antihistamines are drugs that block the action of histamine (a compound released in allergic inflammatory reactions) at the H₁ receptor sites, responsible for immediate hypersensitivity reactions such as sneezing and itching.

Question 175.

Which of the following is a pair of viral diseases?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Dysentery, common cold
  • (B) Common cold, AIDS
  • (C) yphoid, tuberculosis
  • (D) Ringworm, AIDS
Explanation:

Common Cold, AIDS is a pair of viral diseases. Viruses are a very common type of infectious disease. Viruses are the smallest life-form existing, since they are not even a single cell. It is almost like they are not alive at all. They are small strands of DNA-like cell material. A virus consists mostly of RNA and cannot survive without host cells.

Question 176.

Which one of the following statements is correct?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Heroin accelerates body functions.
  • (B) Benign tumours show the property of metastasis.
  • (C) Malignant tumours occurs may exhibit metastasis.
  • (D) Patients who have undergone surgery are given cannabinoids to relieve pain.
Explanation:

Malignant tumours may exhibit metastasis. Cancer (medical term: malignant neoplasm) is a class of diseases in which a group of cells display uncontrolled growth (division beyond the normal limits), invasion (intrusion on and destruction of adjacent tissues), and sometimes metastasis spread to other locations in the body via lymph or blood.

Question 177.

Which of the following is not used as a biopesticide?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Trichoderma harzianum
  • (B) Nuclear Polyhedrosis Virus (NPV)
  • (C) Xanthomonas campestris
  • (D) Bacillus thuringiensis
Explanation:

Xanthomonas campestris is not used as a biopesticide. Xanthomonas campestris is a plant pathogen that causes black rot in cotton plants.

Question 178.

Which of the following plant species you would select for the production of bioethanol?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Brassica
  • (B) Jatropha
  • (C) Zea mays
  • (D) Pongamia
Explanation:

Jatropha is useful for production of bioethanol. Jatropha is a genus of approximately 175 succulent plants, shrubs and trees (some are deciduous, like Jatropha curcas L.), from the family Euphorbiaceae. The hardy Jatropha is resistant to drought and pests, and produces seeds containing 27–40% oil. Currently the oil from Jatropha curcas seeds is used for making biodiesel fuel in Philippines and in Brazil, where it grows naturally and in plantations in the southeast, and the north/northeast Brazil.

Question 179.

Somaclones are obtained by

[4 Marks]
  • (A) plant breeding
  • (B) irradiation
  • (C) tissue culture
  • (D) genetic engineering
Explanation:

Genetic variation present among plant cells during tissue culture is called somaclonal variation. The term somaclonal variation is also used for the genetic variation present in plants regenerated from a single culture. This variation has been used to develop several useful varieties against resistance to diseases and pests, better yield, better quality etc.

Question 180.

Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Alcohol – nitrogenase
  • (B) Fruit juice – pectinase
  • (C) Textile – amylase
  • (D) Detergents – lipase
Explanation:

Alcohol and nitrogenase pair is wrongly matched. Ethanol produces alcohol.

Question 181.

Polyethylene glycol method is used for

[4 Marks]
  • (A) biodiesel production
  • (B) seedless fruit production
  • (C) energy production from sewage
  • (D) gene transfer without a vector
Explanation:

gene transfer without a vector

Question 182.

Which one of the following is commonly used in transfer of foreign DNA into crop plants?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Trichoderma harzianum
  • (B) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
  • (C) Penicillium expansum
  • (D) Meloidogyne incognita
Explanation:

Agrobacterium tumefaciens is the causal agent of crown gall disease (the formation of tumours) in over 140 species of dicot. This disease is caused by a DNA plasmid (Ti plasmid) carried by bacterium and transferred to the plant cells. Ti plasmid has widely used in plant engineering as a vector in order to inject gene in host plant to form transgenic plant.

Question 183.

What is true about Bt toxin?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Bt protein exists as active toxin in the Bacillus
  • (B) The activated toxin enters the ovaries of the pest to sterilise it and thus prevent its multiplication.
  • (C) The concerned Bacillus has antitoxins.
  • (D) The inactive protoxin gets converted into active form in the insect gut.
Explanation:

The inactive protoxin gets converted into active form in the insect gut.

Question 184.

The bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis is widely used in contemporary biotechnology as

[4 Marks]
  • (A) indicator of water pollution
  • (B) agent for production of dairy products
  • (C) source of industrial enzyme
  • (D) insecticide
Explanation:

The bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis is widely used in contemporary biology as insecticide. Bacillus thuringiensis (also known as Bt) is a Gram-positive, soil dwelling bacterium of the genus Bacillus. Bacillus thuringiensis produces a parasporal insecticidal crystal protein.

Question 185.

Transgenic plants are the ones:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) generated by introducing foreign DNA into a cell and regenerating a plant from that cell.
  • (B) produced after protoplast fusion in artificial medium.
  • (C) produced by a somatic embryo in artificial medium.
  • (D) grown in artificial medium after hybridization in the field.
Explanation:

Transgenic plants are the ones generated by introducing foreign DNA into a cell and regenerating a plant from that cell.

Question 186.

A country with a high rate of population growth took measures to reduce it. The Figure below shows age-sex pyramids of populations A and B twenty years apart.

Select the correct interpretation about them: Interpretations:

[4 Marks] Diagram 61 – NEET-UG 2009 Question Paper Solutions
  • (A) “B” is earlier pyramid and shows stabilised growth rate.
  • (B) “B” is more recent showing that population is very young.
  • (C) “A” is the earlier pyramid and no change has occurred in the growth rate.
  • (D) “A” is more recent and shows slight reduction in the growth rate.
Explanation:

‘A’ is more recent and shows slight reduction in growth rate.

Question 187.

The correct sequence of plants in a hydrosere is:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Volvox → Hydrilla → Pistia → Scirpus → Lantana → Oak
  • (B) Pistia → Volvox → Scirpus → Hydrilla → Oak → Lantana
  • (C) Oak → Lantana → Volvox → Hydrilla → Pistia → Scirpus
  • (D) Oak → Lantana → Scirpus → Pistia → Hydrilla → Volvox
Explanation:

Volvox → Hydrilla → Pistia → Scirpus → Lantana → Oak

Question 188.

Which one of the following types of organisms occupy more than one trophic level in a pond ecosystem?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Zooplankton
  • (B) Fish
  • (C) Frog
  • (D) Phytoplankton
Explanation:

Fish

Question 189.

Which one of the following has maximum genetic diversity in India?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Mango
  • (B) Wheat
  • (C) Tea
  • (D) Teak
Explanation:

Wheat

Question 190.

Steps taken by the Government of India to control air pollution include:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) compulsory PUC (Pollution Under Control) certification of petrol driven vehicles which tests for carbon monoxide and hydrocarbons.
  • (B) permission to use only pure diesel with a maximum of 500 ppm sulphur as fuel for vehicles.
  • (C) compulsory mixing of 20% ethyl alcohol with petrol and 20% biodiesel with diesel.
  • (D) use of non-polluting Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) only as fuel by all buses and trucks.
Explanation:

compulsory PUC (Pollution Under Control) certification of petrol driven vehicles which tests for carbon monoxide and hydrocarbons.

Question 191.

Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) in a river water

[4 Marks]
  • (A) has no relationship with concentration of oxygen in the water.
  • (B) gives a measure of Salmonella in the water.
  • (C) remains unchanged when algal bloom occurs.
  • (D) increases when sewage gets mixed with river water.
Explanation:

Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) in a river water increases when sewage gets mixed with river water. Bio - chemical oxygen demand or biological oxygen demand (BOD) is a chemical procedure for determining how fast biological organisms use up oxygen in a body of water.

It is used in water quality management and assessment, ecology and environmental science.

Question 192.

DDT residues are rapidly passed through food chain causing biomagnification because DDT is

[4 Marks]
  • (A) moderately toxic
  • (B) non-toxic to aquatic animals
  • (C) water soluble
  • (D) lipo soluble
Explanation:

lipo soluble

Question 193.

Global agreement in specific control strategies to reduce the release of ozone depleting substances, was adopted by

[4 Marks]
  • (A) The Montreal Protocol
  • (B) The Kyoto Protocol
  • (C) The Vienna Convention
  • (D) Rio de Janeiro Conference
Explanation:

The Montreal Protocol

Question 194.

Montreal protocol aims at

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Control of water pollution
  • (B) Biodiversity conservation
  • (C) Control of CO₂ emission
  • (D) Reduction of ozone depleting substances
Explanation:

The aim of Montreal protocol was to protect the ozone layer in the stratosphere by decreasing and eventually eliminating the use of ozone depleting substances like CFCs.

Question 195.

Chipko movement was launched for the protection of

[4 Marks]
  • (A) forests
  • (B) livestock
  • (C) wet lands
  • (D) grasslands
Explanation:

forests

Question 196.

Tiger is not a resident in which one of the following national park?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Sunderbans
  • (B) Gir
  • (C) Jim Corbett
  • (D) Ranthambhor
Explanation:

Gir

Question 197.

The correct sequence of spermatogenetic stages leading to the formation of sperms in a mature human testis is:

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Spermatogonia → spermatid → spermatocyte → sperms
  • (B) Spermatocyte → spermatogonia → spermatid → sperms
  • (C) Spermatid → spermatocyte → spermatogonia → sperms
  • (D) Spermatogonia → spermatocyte → spermatid → sperms
Explanation:

Spermatogonia → spermatocyte → spermatid → sperms

Question 198.

Which one of the following is considered important in the development of seed habit?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Free-living gametophyte
  • (B) Dependent sporophyte
  • (C) Heterospory
  • (D) Haplontic life cycle
Explanation:

Development of heterospory or formation of two types of spores is important for the development of seed habit. The two types of spores are smaller male ormicrospmesmdl larger female or megaspores. Two types of spores form two. different types of gametophytes, male and female.

Question 199.

Which of the following is a symbiotic nitrogen fixer?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Azolla
  • (B) Azotobacter
  • (C) Glomus
  • (D) Frankia
Explanation:

Frankia

Question 200.

Which one of the following has maximum genetic diversity in India?

[4 Marks]
  • (A) Tea
  • (B) Teak
  • (C) Mango
  • (D) Wheat
Explanation:

Genetic diversity is the diversity in the number and types of genes as well as chromosomes present in different species and the variation in the genes and their alleles in the same species. India has more than 50,000 geneficflny diverse varieties of rice and 1000 varieties of mango.