SOLUTIONS
2025 BOARD EXAM
CBSE CLASS 12-HUMANITIES GEOGRAPHY Board Paper 2025 — Set 6
2025
GEOGRAPHY
CLASS 12-HUMANITIES
CBSE EXAMINATION PAPER-2025
GEOGRAPHY
(Solved)
General Instructions :
Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :
- This question paper contains 36 questions. All questions are compulsory.
- This question paper is divided into 4 sections.
- Section A – questions number 1 to 8 are case based questions
- Section B – questions number 9 to 23 are multiple choice questions
- Section C – questions number 24 to 27 are short answer
- Section D – questions number 28 to 36 are long answer
- There is no overall choice given in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions.
- Use of calculator is NOT allowed.
Section A
Question 1.
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow :
Promoting Gender Sensitivity through
'Beti Bachao Beti Padhao' Social Campaign
The division of the society into male, female and transgender is believed to be natural and biological. But, in reality, there are social constructs and roles assigned to individuals which are reinforced by social institutions. Consequently, these biological differences become the basis of social differentiations, discriminations and exclusions. The exclusion of over half of the population becomes a serious handicap to any developing and civilised society. It is a global challenge, which has been acknowledged by the UNDP when it mentioned that, "If development is not engendered it is endangered" (HDR UNDP 1995). Discrimination, in general, and gender discrimination, in particular, is a crime against humanity.
All efforts need to be made to address the denial of opportunities of education, employment, political representation, low wages for similar types of work, disregard to their entitlement to live a dignified life, etc. A society, which fails to acknowledge and take effective measures to remove such discriminations, cannot be treated as a civilised one. The Government of India has duly acknowleged the adverse impacts of these discriminations and launched a nationwide campaign called 'Beti Bachao Beti Padhao'.
(1) Describe any one ill-effect of gender discrimination on a society.
Answer: One significant ill-effect of gender discrimination on a society is the exclusion of a considerable segment of the population, which hampers overall development and progress. When over half of the population, particularly women and transgender individuals, are denied equal opportunities in education, employment, and political representation, society suffers from a lack of diverse perspectives and talents. This exclusion creates an imbalance that hinders economic growth and social cohesion, as evidenced by the United Nations Development Programme's assertion that 'if development is not engendered, it is endangered.' Thus, gender discrimination not only violates human rights but also poses a critical challenge to building a civilized and progressive society.
Key Points: exclusion of half the population-hampers development-violates human rights-critical challenge to progress
(2) Explain the main objective of 'Beti Bachao — Beti Padhao' campaign.
Answer: The main objective of the 'Beti Bachao — Beti Padhao' campaign launched by the Government of India is to address the declining child sex ratio in the country and to promote the importance of educating and empowering girls. The campaign aims to raise awareness about the importance of girls in society, combat gender-based discrimination, and eliminate societal biases that contribute to the exclusion and disadvantage of girls. By encouraging communities to value the girl child, the campaign helps in creating a more equitable environment that supports women's rights and opportunities for growth and development, ultimately leading to a more meaningful life for girls.
Key Points: Address declining child sex ratio - Promote education and empowerment of girls - Raise awareness about gender discrimination - Eliminate societal biases - Support women’s rights and opportunities
(3) "If development is not engendered it is endangered." Explain the statement.
Answer: The statement 'If development is not engendered, it is endangered' emphasizes the critical role of gender inclusion in the development process. Development that neglects gender issues risks perpetuating inequalities and inhibiting growth. Gender discrimination leads to the exclusion of over half the population from meaningful participation in society, which poses a significant obstacle to overall progress. When women and marginalized groups do not have equal access to education, employment, and political representation, their potential contributions to society and the economy are lost. Thus, for a society to be truly developed and civilized, it must address these inequalities—ensuring that all individuals have equal opportunities and rights. Campaigns like 'Beti Bachao Beti Padhao' aim to rectify these injustices by empowering girls and promoting gender sensitivity, thereby fostering a more inclusive society where development is sustainable and equitable.
Key Points: importance of gender inclusion in development-role of discrimination in hindering progress-impact of exclusion on society-need for equal opportunities and empowerment
Question 2.
Study the given figure carefully and answer the questions that follow :
(1) Mention the methods of mining given in the picture.
Answer: The methods of mining depicted in the context of oil drilling operations in the Gulf of Mexico can be classified into two primary types: surface mining and underground mining. Surface mining involves extracting minerals that are near the surface, utilizing techniques such as open-cast mining, which is cost-effective and straightforward. On the other hand, underground mining entails sinking vertical shafts to access minerals buried deeper. This method requires advanced equipment like lifts, drills, and a ventilation system to ensure safety and efficiency during extraction.
Key Points: Surface mining-Open-cast mining-Underground mining
(2) Which mining method is more life threatening ?
Answer: The underground mining method, also known as the shaft method, is generally more life-threatening compared to surface mining. This increased risk is due to several hazards associated with underground mining operations. For instance, miners are exposed to dangerous conditions such as the presence of poisonous gases, the risk of fires, potential flooding, and the possibility of cave-ins. These factors can lead to fatal accidents, highlighting the dangers that accompany mining deep below the surface. The ventilation system, while designed to enhance safety and efficiency, does not eliminate these risks, making underground mining significantly more perilous than surface mining.
Key Points: underground mining is riskier-poisonous gases, fires, floods, caving in-potential for fatal accidents
(3) Differentiate between the two methods of mining given in the picture.
Answer: The two methods of mining illustrated are surface mining and underground mining, each having distinct characteristics. Surface mining, also known as open-cast mining, involves the extraction of minerals that are located close to the Earth’s surface. This method is often favored due to its cost-effectiveness, as it incurs lower overhead costs and allows for rapid and large-scale production. In contrast, underground mining, often referred to as the shaft method, is employed when ore deposits are located at significant depths. This method requires the creation of vertical shafts and subterranean galleries, necessitating specialized equipment like lifts, drills, and ventilation systems to ensure safety and efficiency. Thus, while surface mining is simpler and cheaper, underground mining is vital for accessing deeper mineral deposits that surface mining cannot reach.
Key Points: Surface mining is cost-effective and quick; Underground mining is necessary for deep mineral deposits; Surface mining has lower safety equipment needs; Underground mining requires specialized systems for safety and transport
Question 3.
Answer the following :
(1) Define the term mining.
Answer: Mining is an economic activity that involves the excavation of minerals from the earth, specifically targeting commercially valuable materials such as coal, iron-ore, and precious stones. This process typically occurs underground, although it can also involve open-pit mining techniques where soil and surface cover are removed to extract minerals that are closer to the earth's surface. Overall, mining is essential for obtaining raw materials that play a crucial role in various industries and the economy as a whole.
Key Points: Definition of mining; Economic activity; Extraction of minerals; Underground and surface mining methods; Importance of mining in industry.
(2) Why are developed countries avoiding mining in their own countries ?
Answer: Developed countries are avoiding mining in their own regions primarily due to several economic and environmental factors. Firstly, high labor costs in developed nations make mining operations less economically viable compared to developing countries where labor is cheaper and more abundant. Moreover, there is a growing emphasis on sustainable development, pushing for the conservation of mineral resources to prevent environmental degradation. This has led to a shift towards reducing the export of strategic and scarce minerals to extend the lifespan of existing reserves. In contrast, developing nations are increasingly important in the global mining landscape, as many of them rely heavily on mineral earnings, which can account for over fifty percent of their total income. Consequently, developed nations prefer to source minerals from these countries and invest in sustainable practices rather than exploit their own resources irresponsibly.
Key Points: High labor costs in developed countries - Preference for sourcing minerals from cheaper labor countries - Emphasis on sustainable development and conservation of resources - Environmental concerns regarding traditional mining practices - Economic dependency of developing countries on mineral exports
(3) Mention two methods of mining.
Answer: Two primary methods of mining are surface mining and underground mining. Surface mining, also known as open-cast mining, involves extracting minerals that are close to the earth's surface. It is typically the easier and more cost-effective method, allowing for a large and rapid output. In contrast, underground mining is employed when minerals are found at greater depths. This method, often referred to as the shaft method, involves creating deep excavations to reach the ore, making it more complex and costly than surface mining.
Key Points: Surface mining-open-cast mining-extraction of minerals close to surface-underground mining-shaft method-extraction of minerals deep below the surface
Question 4.
Study the following table carefully and answer the questions that follow.
(1) With reference to 1951, how much change has taken place in the percentage of total population in 1991 ?
Answer: The change in the percentage of the total population from 1951 to 1991 can be understood by examining the data provided in the table. According to the decadal growth rates, the population percentage reflects a significant increase over the decades. Specifically, in 1951, India's population was approximately 361 million, whereas by 1991, it had increased to about 846 million. This represents a change in population size of nearly 485 million people over the forty years, leading to a percentage growth of approximately 134.6%. This substantial growth can be attributed to various factors, including improvements in healthcare, decrease in mortality rates, and increased birth rates, especially during the mid-20th century. Overall, the data indicates a major demographic transition in India during this period, highlighting the dynamic changes in population dynamics and growth patterns.
Key Points: Population increase from 361 million in 1951 to 846 million in 1991-134.6% growth rate-contributing factors include improved healthcare and decreasing mortality rates
(2) Explain the reason of increasing trend of number of towns/UAs from 1961 to 2001.
Answer: The increasing trend of the number of towns and urban agglomerations (UAs) from 1961 to 2001 can be attributed to several interrelated factors. Firstly, there has been a significant growth in urbanization, which refers to the migration of people from rural areas to cities in search of better employment opportunities and living conditions. This trend is driven by the development of socio-economic conditions in urban areas, as improved infrastructure and services attract people. Secondly, urban centers have expanded due to the establishment of new towns along major transportation routes, facilitating easier access to markets and services. Additionally, the overall economic development of the country during this period has led to an increase in activities such as trade, transport, and manufacturing, further promoting urbanization. In conclusion, the combination of rural-urban migration, enhanced economic opportunities, and infrastructural development significantly contributed to the rising number of towns and UAs between 1961 and 2001.
Key Points: rural-urban migration-economic development-infrastructure growth
(3) Describe the trend of urban population in the given table.
Answer: The trend of urban population in India, as indicated in the data from 1901 to 2011, showcases a steady increase that reflects significant socio-economic changes. The urban population, which constituted only 31.16% of the total population in the earlier years, has shown a remarkable growth rate over the decades, particularly during the twentieth century. This urban growth can be attributed to various factors, including enhanced economic development, improvements in health and hygiene, and a notable increase in rural-urban migration. The total urban population has increased eleven-fold, indicating the enlargement of existing urban centers and the establishment of new towns. Additionally, this trend is observed across almost all states and Union Territories, emphasizing a broader development of urban areas. The growth is particularly pronounced in regions linked by major roads, indicating that infrastructural development has facilitated this urbanization process. Overall, the data reflects a dynamic shift towards urban living in India, propelled by economic opportunities and better living conditions.
Key Points: Increased urban population; accelerated growth rate; economic development; health and hygienic improvements; eleven-fold increase; rural-urban migration; emergence of new towns; socio-economic development.
Question 5.
On the given political outline map of the world , seven geographical features have been marked as A, B, C, D, E, F and G. Identify any five with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them :
(1) A. A major sea port
Answer: A major sea port identified as 'Port of Los Angeles' is located on the west coast of the United States. It is known for being one of the busiest ports in the world, crucial for international trade and commerce. Other notable ports include Rotterdam in the Netherlands and Shanghai in China. These ports handle significant cargo volumes and facilitate major maritime routes.
Key Points: Port of Los Angeles - Major sea port in USA - Important for international trade - One of the busiest ports globally
(2) F. An area of nomadic herding
Answer: The area marked as F on the outline map represents the regions where nomadic herding is prevalent. Such areas are primarily found in arid and semi-arid regions, where pastoral nomads move according to the seasons in search of grazing pastures for their livestock. Examples of places characterized by nomadic herding include the steppes of Central Asia, the tundra regions in the Arctic, and parts of the Sahel in Africa. Furthermore, the decline of pastoral nomadic populations can be linked to various factors such as the establishment of political boundaries, changing land use policies, and environmental degradation. Hence, it is crucial to acknowledge these regions' significance in terms of cultural heritage and ecological balance.
Key Points: Nomadic herding areas - Central Asia, tundra regions - Sahel; decline due to political boundaries and land use policies - importance of cultural heritage.
(3) B. A major airport
Answer: One major airport that is widely recognized is London Heathrow Airport, located in the United Kingdom. It stands as one of the busiest airports in the world, serving millions of international passengers each year. The airport features five terminals and offers direct flights to numerous global destinations, making it a central hub for both domestic and international travel.
Key Points: Identify the major airport - London Heathrow Airport; Mention its location - United Kingdom; Discuss its significance - one of the busiest airports; Highlight its features - five terminals, major international connections.
(4) E. An area of commercial livestock rearing
Answer: The area marked as E represents the important regions known for commercial livestock rearing, which includes countries such as New Zealand, Australia, Argentina, Uruguay, and the United States of America. These countries have established a significant practice of livestock farming, particularly suited to their climatic conditions and expansive grazing lands.
Key Points: Commercial livestock rearing-Countries involved-New Zealand, Australia, Argentina, Uruguay, USA-Grazing lands-expenditure in livestock farming
(5) D. An inland waterway
Answer: The correct answer for D, an inland waterway, is the Danube Waterway. The Danube River is one of the most significant rivers in Europe, rising in the Black Forest of Germany and flowing eastward through several countries before emptying into the Black Sea. It serves as a critical trade route for Eastern Europe, facilitating the transport of various goods such as wheat, maize, timber, and machinery, thereby enhancing the economic connectivity of the region.
Key Points: Danube Waterway - flows through Eastern Europe - navigable up to Taurna Severin - aids in transportation of goods - significant for trade
(6) C. A terminal station of Trans-Siberian Railway
Answer: The terminal station of the Trans-Siberian Railway is Vladivostok. Located on the Pacific Coast of Russia, Vladivostok serves as the eastern endpoint of this major railway, which spans from St. Petersburg in the west. This city plays a critical role in connecting the Russian Federation's Asian territories with maritime routes and trade.
Key Points: Vladivostok - Terminal station - Trans-Siberian Railway - Connects Asia with Europe - Major trade route
(7) G. A major sea port of South America
Answer: The major sea port of South America marked as 'G' is the Port of Santos, located in Brazil. It is the largest port in Latin America, handling a vast amount of cargo, including coffee and other exports.
Key Points: Port of Santos- Largest port in Latin America- Located in Brazil- Major export hub including coffee- Well connected sea routes
Question 6.
Answer any five questions out of the following :
(1) 1) Name a major sea port of England.
Answer: A major sea port of England is Liverpool. This port has historically played a significant role in international trade and commerce, especially during the time of the British Empire. It is known for handling a large volume of cargo and has extensive facilities for shipping and logistics.
Key Points: Liverpool is a major sea port - historical significance in international trade - extensive shipping and logistics facilities
(2) 2) Name a place in South Africa where an international airport is located.
Answer: One notable location in South Africa that is home to an international airport is Johannesburg. The O.R. Tambo International Airport, situated near Johannesburg, serves as the main international gateway to the country and is one of the largest and busiest airports in Africa.
Key Points: O.R. Tambo International Airport - located in Johannesburg - major international gateway - one of Africa's busiest airports
(3) 4) Name the major inland waterway of North America.
Answer: The major inland waterway of North America is the Great Lakes – St. Lawrence Seaway. This extensive inland waterway connects the Great Lakes of Superior, Huron, Erie, and Ontario through canals such as the Soo Canal and Welland Canal, facilitating significant commercial shipping. It allows ocean-going vessels to navigate up the St. Lawrence River to Montreal, though trans-shipment to smaller vessels is necessary at certain points due to rapids.
Key Points: Great Lakes – St. Lawrence Seaway; connection of Superior, Huron, Erie, Ontario; Soo Canal and Welland Canal; trans-shipment at Montreal; commercial waterway.
(4) 3) Write the name of the easternmost terminal station of Trans-Siberian Railway.
Answer: The easternmost terminal station of the Trans-Siberian Railway is Vladivostok.
Key Points: Vladivostok-Trans-Siberian Railway-easternmost terminal
(5) 6) Write the name of an area of nomadic herding in northern parts of Europe and Asia.
Answer: An area of nomadic herding in the northern parts of Europe and Asia is the tundra region, where reindeer are the most important animals.
Key Points: tundra region-reindeer-northern Europe and Asia
(6) 7) Write the name of a place in Brazil where an international airport is located.
Answer: One of the notable places in Brazil that has an international airport is São Paulo. The São Paulo/Guarulhos–Governador André Franco Montoro International Airport is the major international gateway to Brazil and serves numerous international flights.
Key Points: São Paulo - Location in Brazil - International Airport - São Paulo/Guarulhos International Airport
(7) 5) Name an area of extensive commercial grain farming in Australia.
Answer: An area of extensive commercial grain farming in Australia is the Australian Downs. This region is characterized by its large farm sizes and mechanized farming practices that focus on crops like wheat, corn, and barley. The Australian Downs provides favorable conditions for grain cultivation due to its semi-arid climate and extensive land area suitable for agriculture.
Key Points: Australian Downs-Extensive grain farming-Wheat and other crops-Mechanized agriculture
Question 7.
On the given political outline map of India, locate and label any five of the following seven geographical features with appropriate symbols :
(1) 1) The state with the highest population density
Answer: The state with the highest population density in India is Uttar Pradesh. It is located in the northern part of the country and is characterized by a large population exceeding 200 million people. The population density in Uttar Pradesh is significantly higher than in other states, making it a crucial area for demographic studies and urban planning. Due to its vast agrarian economy and urban centers, it experiences immense pressure on resources and infrastructure. This makes Uttar Pradesh an essential focus for policies aimed at managing high population density.
Key Points: Uttar Pradesh has the highest population density-Over 200 million population-Significant demographic focus-Pressure on resources and infrastructure-Important for urban planning
(2) 4) Important coal mines located in Tamil Nadu
Answer: In Tamil Nadu, the prominent coal mines primarily consist of lignite coal, which is found in the coastal regions. Two significant locations are the Neyveli Lignite Corporation (NLC) in Neyveli and the nearby mine at Mettur. These mines are crucial for the state’s energy generation, contributing significantly to the electricity supply through thermal power plants. On the map, label 'Neyveli Mine' and 'Mettur Mine' using suitable symbols for coal mines.
Key Points: Neyveli Lignite Corporation; Lignite coal; Mettur Mine; Energy generation; Coastal regions
(3) 2) The leading rice producing state
Answer: The leading rice-producing state in India is West Bengal. It is one of the top states contributing significantly to the overall rice production in the country. When marking this on the map, use a symbol such as a grain of rice or a designated color to indicate this region clearly.
Key Points: West Bengal is the leading rice-producing state-India contributes 22.07% of global rice production-Punjab, Uttar Pradesh are also key states.
(4) 3) Important iron ore mines located in coastal Maharashtra
Answer: In coastal Maharashtra, one of the prominent iron ore mines is located near the area of Ratnagiri. This region is known for its iron ore deposits which are part of the rich mineral resources found in the Indian peninsular region. The iron ore mines in this area cater to the demands of the steel industry and contribute significantly to the economy. To label this on the political map, a symbol such as a black circle can be used with the label 'Iron Ore Mine' next to the specific location.
Key Points: Location: Ratnagiri; Importance: Supplies for steel industry; Symbol: Black circle; Economic significance; Part of peninsular mineral wealth
(5) 5) A major sea port in Gujarat
Answer: The major sea port in Gujarat is Kandla Port (also known as Deendayal Port). It is located in the Kutch district of Gujarat and serves as one of the most important ports for maritime trade in India, facilitating the movement of goods and resources both nationally and internationally.
Key Points: Kandla Port; located in Gujarat; significant for maritime trade; important economic hub; symbol for major sea port
(6) 6) An international airport in Punjab
Answer: The international airport in Punjab is the Sri Guru Ram Dass Jee International Airport, located in Amritsar. It serves as a significant hub for both domestic and international flights, facilitating travel for passengers across different parts of India and the globe. Amritsar is famous for the Golden Temple, which attracts millions of tourists, making this airport crucial for the region's connectivity. To accurately label it on the map, use an appropriate international airport symbol and place it near the city of Amritsar.
Key Points: Sri Guru Ram Dass Jee International Airport-Amritsar-significance of connectivity-tourism factor
(7) 7) An oil refinery in Uttar Pradesh
Answer: To locate and label the oil refinery in Uttar Pradesh on the political outline map of India, identify the state of Uttar Pradesh, which is situated in the northern part of India. Mark a symbol such as a drop of oil or an industrial factory icon to represent the oil refinery. The major oil refinery in Uttar Pradesh is located at Mathura. Place the symbol at the approximate geographical location of Mathura on the map, ensuring it is clear and identifiable.
Key Points: Identify Uttar Pradesh; Locate Mathura; Use appropriate symbol (oil drop/ factory); Ensure clarity on the map
Question 8.
Answer any five questions out of the following :
(1) 1) Name the state with the highest population density.
Answer: The state with the highest population density in India is Uttar Pradesh, which shows a significantly high concentration of population compared to other states. In 2011, Uttar Pradesh had a population density of over 1,100 persons per square kilometer, which is notably higher than the overall national average of 382 persons per square kilometer. This high density indicates the state's larger population in relation to its land area.
Key Points: Uttar Pradesh has the highest population density-2011 census data-1,100 persons per sq km-Contrast with national average-382 persons per sq km
(2) 2) Name the leading rice producing state.
Answer: The leading rice producing states in India are West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh, and Punjab. Among these, West Bengal is often regarded as the top rice producer in terms of total output. The cultivation practices in these states are supported by favorable climatic conditions, making them significant contributors to India’s rice production.
Key Points: West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh, Punjab - leading rice producing states; West Bengal often regarded as the top producer; favorable climatic conditions for rice cultivation
(3) 4) Name the place where important coal mines are located in Tamil Nadu.
Answer: In Tamil Nadu, important coal mines are primarily located in Neyveli, which is known for its lignite coal deposits. Neyveli Lignite Corporation operates these mines, making it a significant site for coal extraction in the region.
Key Points: Neyveli-Lignite Coal Mines-Government Corporation
(4) 5) Name the place where a major sea port is located in Gujarat.
Answer: A major sea port located in Gujarat is the Deendayal Port, also known as Kandla Port. It is situated at the head of the Gulf of Kutch and serves as a crucial gateway for maritime trade in the region. The port has been developed to cater to the needs of the western and northwestern parts of India and plays a significant role in reducing the pressure on other ports in the area.
Key Points: Deendayal Port (Kandla Port)-located at Gulf of Kutch-serves western and northwestern India-reduces pressure on other ports
(5) 3) Name the place where important iron ore mines are located in coastal Maharashtra.
Answer: In coastal Maharashtra, important iron ore mines are located in the Kolaba district. This region contributes to the mining of iron ore, which is essential for the iron and steel industry. The proximity to other mineral resources and its strategic location further enhance its significance in the mineral extraction industry.
Key Points: Kolaba district-importance of iron ore-mining relevance in iron and steel industry
(6) 6) Name the place where an international airport is located in Punjab.
Answer: The city in Punjab where an international airport is located is Chandigarh. Chandigarh International Airport serves as the primary aerial gateway for the region and connects Punjab to various domestic and international destinations.
Key Points: Chandigarh International Airport - Punjab - Primary international airport - Connects to domestic and international destinations
(7) 7) Name the place where an oil refinery is situated in Uttar Pradesh.
Answer: One prominent oil refinery situated in Uttar Pradesh is the Barauni Oil Refinery. This refinery is known for being one of the key market-based refineries in India. It plays a significant role in processing crude oil that is sourced from various fields across the country, contributing to the energy supply in the region.
Key Points: Barauni Oil Refinery-Uttar Pradesh-market-based refinery-significant role in oil processing
Section B
Question 9.
[1 Marks]
Which of the following are branches of Dravidian language in India? Choose the correct option.
I. Central Dravidian
II. East Dravidian
III. South Dravidian
IV. North Dravidian
Explanation: The correct answer is 'Only I, II and III'. According to the provided context, the branches of the Dravidian language family are South Dravidian and Central Dravidian. However, East Dravidian is not mentioned as a branch, making only I (Central Dravidian), II (East Dravidian), and III (South Dravidian) a valid combination based on classifications provided.
Question 10.
[1 Marks]
Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): There is an inverse relationship between quality and quantity of minerals.
Reason (R): Good quality minerals are less in quantity as compared to low quality minerals.
Explanation: Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). The context states that there is indeed an inverse relationship between the quality and quantity of minerals, confirming that good quality minerals are less abundant compared to lower quality ones, which directly supports the assertion.
Question 11.
The road between Chandigarh and Manali was constructed by which of the following?
[1 Marks]
Explanation: The correct answer is 'Border Roads Organisation' because the context states that this organization has constructed roads in high altitude mountainous terrain, specifically mentioning the road that joins Chandigarh with Manali and Leh, indicating their role in this project.
Question 12.
Identify the practical measure from the following to control air pollution in the metropolitan cities in India. Choose the most appropriate option.
[1 Marks]
Explanation: The correct option is 'Metro Rail with CNG Buses.' This combination is effective for controlling air pollution as the Metro Rail provides a mass rapid transit solution that reduces the number of vehicles on the road, thereby minimizing emissions. Additionally, CNG buses are a cleaner alternative to diesel or petrol vehicles, further contributing to lower air pollution levels.
Question 13.
[1 Marks]
In which one of the following approaches of human development are human beings the targets of all developmental activities? Choose the most appropriate option.
Explanation: The correct option is 'Welfare Approach'. This approach views human beings as beneficiaries or targets of all development activities, emphasizing the role of government in increasing human development through welfare expenditures.
Question 14.
Identify the type of agriculture predominantly practised in the Australian Downs.
[1 Marks]
Explanation: The correct answer is 'Extensive Commercial Grain Cultivation' because this type of agriculture is explicitly mentioned in the context as being well-developed in the Australian Downs. It is characterized by large farm sizes and the mechanized cultivation of crops such as wheat, which aligns with the description provided in the context.
Question 15.
Identify the sector concerned with the work of converting raw materials into finished products.
[1 Marks]
Explanation: The correct answer is 'Secondary' because secondary activities are specifically concerned with manufacturing, processing, and construction industries, which transform raw materials into finished products. This is noted in the context that states secondary activities add value to natural resources by transforming them into valuable products.
Question 16.
Automatic vending machines and the internet are examples of which of the following types of trade?
[1 Marks]
Explanation: The correct answer is 'Retail Trading.' This is because retail trading involves the sale of goods directly to consumers, and automatic vending machines and internet sales are forms of non-store retail trading, where purchases are made directly by the consumer without a physical store.
Question 17.
Which one of the following is correct about growth and development?
[1 Marks]
Explanation: Growth may be positive or negative, but development is always positive. This is because growth refers to quantitative changes that can show increases or decreases, while development signifies a qualitative change that inherently requires a positive enhancement in conditions and cannot occur without positive growth.
Question 18.
[1 Marks]
Read the following characteristics of tertiary activities carefully and choose the correct option.
I. Tertiary activities include all types of services.
II. Trade, transport and communication are parts of tertiary activities.
III. Raw material is transformed into finished goods under tertiary activities.
IV. Reachers, lawyers and traders are some of the examples of tertiary activities.
Explanation: The correct answer is 'Only I, II and IV are correct.' because tertiary activities involve all types of services (I), include trade, transport, and communication (II), and examples consist of various service providers like teachers and lawyers (IV). Statement III is incorrect as tertiary activities do not involve the transformation of raw materials into finished goods; this is characteristic of secondary activities.
Question 19.
[1 Marks]
Case for Free Trade
The act of opening up economies for trading is known as free trade or trade liberalisation. This is done by bringing down trade barriers like tariffs. Trade liberalisation allows goods and services from everywhere to compete with domestic products and services. Globalisation along with free trade can adversely affect the economies of developing countries by not giving equal playing field by imposing conditions which are unfavourable. With the development of transport and communication systems, goods and services can travel faster and farther than ever before. But free trade should not only let rich countries enter the markets, but allow the developed countries to keep their own markets protected from foreign products. Countries also need to be cautious about dumped goods; as along with free trade dumped goods of cheaper prices can harm the domestic producers.
Which one of the following is the impact of the development of transport and communication on trade?
Explanation: The correct option is 'Goods and services travel faster and move farther.' This is supported by the context which states, 'With the development of transport and communication systems, goods and services can travel faster and farther than ever before,' highlighting the impact of these systems on the efficiency and reach of trade.
Question 20.
[1 Marks]
Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Readboth the statements carefully and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) : India has highly uneven pattern of population distribution.
Reason (R) : Population distribution is highly associated with physical, socio-economic and historical factors.
Explanation: Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) because the context explains that India's population distribution varies significantly due to various factors such as geography, socio-economic conditions, and historical influences, which supports the assertion of uneven population distribution.
Question 21.
[1 Marks]
Which one of the following is an example of 'Gold Collar' professional ?
Explanation: The correct answer is 'Policy Formulator.' Gold Collar professionals are highly skilled individuals who hold senior positions and possess specialized knowledge, such as business executives and consultants. In the context provided, these include roles involving significant responsibilities and advanced expertise, which aligns with the nature of a Policy Formulator.
Question 22.
[1 Marks]
Case for Free Trade
The act of opening up economies for trading is known as free trade or trade liberalisation. This is done by bringing down trade barriers like tariffs. Trade liberalisation allows goods and services from everywhere to compete with domestic products and services. Globalisation along with free trade can adversely affect the economies of developing countries by not giving equal playing field by imposing conditions which are unfavourable. With the development of transport and communication systems, goods and services can travel faster and farther than ever before. But free trade should not only let rich countries enter the markets, but allow the developed countries to keep their own markets protected from foreign products. Countries also need to be cautious about dumped goods; as along with free trade dumped goods of cheaper prices can harm the domestic producers.
Which one of the following is called 'free trade' ?
Explanation: The correct option is 'Trade liberalisation' because the context states that free trade is defined as the act of opening up economies for trading, which is referred to as trade liberalisation. It emphasizes reducing trade barriers like tariffs to allow goods and services to compete in the market.
Question 23.
[1 Marks]
Case for Free Trade
The act of opening up economies for trading is known as free trade or trade liberalisation. This is done by bringing down trade barriers like tariffs. Trade liberalisation allows goods and services from everywhere to compete with domestic products and services. Globalisation along with free trade can adversely affect the economies of developing countries by not giving equal playing field by imposing conditions which are unfavourable. With the development of transport and communication systems, goods and services can travel faster and farther than ever before. But free trade should not only let rich countries enter the markets, but allow the developed countries to keep their own markets protected from foreign products. Countries also need to be cautious about dumped goods; as along with free trade dumped goods of cheaper prices can harm the domestic producers.
The most adverse effect of free trade' is observed with which one of the
following ?
Explanation: The correct answer is 'Developing countries'. The context highlights that globalization and free trade can adversely affect the economies of developing countries by imposing unfavorable conditions and not providing an equal playing field. This leads to challenges such as competition from richer countries and potential harm to domestic producers due to cheaper, dumped goods.
Section C
Question 24.
Explain the main reasons for uneven distribution of modern manufacturing industries in the world.
[3 Marks]
Answer: The uneven distribution of modern manufacturing industries globally can be attributed to several key factors. Firstly, geographical advantages play a significant role, with industries often located near resources like raw materials and energy sources, leading to cost efficiency. Secondly, historical development has led to the concentration of industries in developed regions, particularly in North America and Europe, where a skilled workforce and advanced infrastructure already exist. Additionally, advances in technology and capital investment are more pronounced in economically developed areas, allowing for the establishment of large-scale manufacturing units. Lastly, the urbanization trend facilitates access to labor markets and transport facilities, further skewing industrial distribution toward urban centers. These factors collectively create a scenario where manufacturing is concentrated in specific regions rather than being evenly distributed across the globe.
Question 25.
Classify the industries based on product and explain their characteristics.
[3 Marks]
Answer: Industries can be classified based on their products into two main categories: basic industries and consumer goods industries. Basic industries, such as iron and steel, produce raw materials that are utilized in manufacturing other goods. These industries are essential for the production processes of various sectors. On the other hand, consumer goods industries focus on producing items directly consumed by the end-users, like food products (breads, biscuits) and electronics (televisions). Basic industries typically require heavier investments and are foundational to an economy, while consumer goods industries are more diverse and cater to daily needs.
Question 26.
[3 Marks]
Humans are directly dependent on natural resources to sustain them. Explain the statement with examples.
Answer: Humans rely on natural resources for survival and well-being, exemplified by food, clothing, and shelter. Primitive societies depended on their immediate environments, gathering edible plants and hunting animals. As societies advanced, they learned to cultivate crops and rear livestock, utilizing land, soil, and water as essential resources. Additionally, forests provide timber and medicinal plants, while water bodies supply fish and support agriculture. Our cultural practices, such as clothing suited to weather conditions, further illustrate this dependency on nature's bounty.
Question 27.
Define water quality. Explain the reasons for deteriorating surface water quality in India.
[3 Marks]
Answer: Water quality refers to the physical, chemical, and biological characteristics of water, determining its suitability for various uses including drinking, recreation, and irrigation. In India, surface water quality is deteriorating due to various factors. Firstly, indiscriminate usage of water for agricultural and industrial purposes results in contamination. The discharge of pollutants from factories, along with untreated sewage, significantly increases the levels of harmful substances. Additionally, agricultural runoff containing fertilizers raises nitrate concentrations. Cultural activities further elevate pollution levels, impacting health and ecosystems. Therefore, most surface water bodies in India are not safe for consumption.
Section D
Question 28.
[5 Marks]
"Urban centres in India are more differentiated in terms of the socio-economic, politico-cultural and other indicators Of development." Evaluate the statement with examples.
Answer: The statement that urban centres in India are more differentiated in terms of socio-economic, politico-cultural, and other development indicators is indeed valid. Urban centres like Mumbai and Delhi showcase stark contrasts in wealth, infrastructure, and cultural representation. For instance, while affluent localities in Mumbai, such as South Mumbai, boast high-rise apartments and modern amenities, areas like Dharavi highlight socio-economic struggles. Politically, urban settings experience diverse party representations, influencing their socio-cultural landscape. Additionally, urban centres attract a booming rural-urban migration due to enhanced employment opportunities and improved living conditions. In contrast, most rural areas largely depend on agriculture with limited economic diversity. The differentiation within urban centres illustrates the complexities of urban development, where some areas thrive while others lag, influenced by socio-economic factors and urban planning initiatives. Furthermore, this variation showcases the socio-political dynamics at play, where urban centres act as engines of growth while still reflecting disparities and inequalities.
Question 29.
[5 Marks]
The land degradation due to man-made processes has greater concern than natural. Evaluate the statement with examples.
Answer: Land degradation is predominantly driven by human activities rather than natural processes, making it a more pressing concern. Human actions like deforestation for plantation crops, overgrazing of pastures, and mining contribute significantly to land degradation. For instance, the clearing of forests for agriculture not only destroys habitats but also leads to soil erosion and loss of fertility, exemplified by regions in India facing severe deforestation. Moreover, industrial wastelands often arise due to improper waste management and land use, further exacerbating land quality issues. Faulty irrigation practices cause problems such as salinisation and waterlogging, which severely affect agricultural productivity. Research indicates that while natural processes contribute to land degradation, the scale and severity of human-induced degradation overshadow them, making sustainable land management essential to prevent the conversion of fertile lands into wastelands. Therefore, it is critical to address human factors in land degradation to preserve agricultural productivity and environmental integrity.
Question 30.
Classify Indian farming practices based on the source of moisture and describe them.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Indian farming practices can primarily be classified into two categories based on the source of moisture: irrigated farming and rainfed farming (barani). Irrigated farming aims to provide sufficient soil moisture during the cropping season to achieve high productivity and is subdivided into protective irrigation, which safeguards crops against adverse weather conditions, and productive irrigation, which focuses on maximizing yields. Protective irrigation is utilized in areas where annual rainfall is less than 75 cm, enabling the cultivation of hardy crops like ragi, bajra, moong, and gram, using techniques such as soil moisture conservation and rainwater harvesting. In contrast, rainfed farming depends entirely on rainfall, and is further divided into dryland and wetland farming. Dryland farming occurs in arid regions with limited rainfall, while wetland farming thrives in areas with excess moisture during the rainy season, often resulting in floods. This method supports water-intensive crops like rice, jute, and sugarcane and may involve aquaculture practices in freshwater bodies. Ultimately, these classifications underscore the diversity of agricultural methods in India shaped by climatic conditions.
Question 31.
[5 Marks]
Define 'Common Property Resources'. How do they help in providing livelihood to the landless and marginal farmers? Explain
Answer: Common Property Resources (CPRs) are natural resources owned collectively by a community, allowing access and usage rights to all members without individual ownership. Examples include community forests, pasture lands, and village water bodies. CPRs play a vital role in the livelihoods of landless and marginal farmers, who depend on these resources for fodder and fuel. With limited land access, many families rely on their livestock for income derived from these shared resources. Moreover, women often bear the responsibility of collecting fuel and fodder from CPRs, engaging in labor that supports household needs. The sustainable management of CPRs ensures not only the availability of essential resources but also strengthens community ties and economic resilience among the most vulnerable sections of society. Overall, CPRs provide a safety net, supporting food security and maintaining local livelihoods, thus sustaining the rural economy.
Question 32.
Explain the factors affecting population distribution in the world.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Population distribution across the world is influenced by various factors that determine how people are spread over the Earth’s surface. Geographic factors, such as climate, landforms, and natural resources, significantly impact where populations settle. Areas with fertile land and favorable climates, such as river valleys, tend to be densely populated. Economic opportunities also play a key role, with urban centers attracting people for jobs. Additionally, cultural aspects, such as historical migration patterns and community ties, affect population density. Political stability and government policies shape migration trends, leading to variations in population distribution. Regions with conflict or instability often experience lower populations, while peaceful areas attract more residents. Therefore, the intricate interplay of environmental, economic, cultural, and political factors leads to the uneven distribution of the global population, emphasizing the importance of these elements in understanding demographic patterns.
Question 33.
[5 Marks]
Define 'migration,. Differentiate between pull and push factors of population migration.
Answer: Migration is the process by which people relocate from one place to another, driven by various factors in search of improved living conditions, economic opportunities, or safety. It can be permanent, temporary, or seasonal and involves a movement from a place of origin to a place of destination. Push factors, such as unemployment, political instability, and poor living conditions in the place of origin, make it less attractive for residents. Conversely, pull factors, like better job prospects, security, and a favorable climate at the destination, attract migrants, resulting in population growth in the new location. Understanding these factors helps to explain population dynamics and migration patterns.
Question 34.
[5 Marks]
Explain the changing patterns Of the composition of India's import.
Answer: The composition of India's imports has witnessed significant changes from 2015 to 2022. Historically, India has relied heavily on imports of crude petroleum, precious stones, and metals. However, the trend indicates a gradual decline in the share of capital goods and food products. The import of crude petroleum remains a prominent contributor, reflecting the energy needs of an expanding economy. The steady growth in non-ferrous metals and precious commodities highlights India's shift towards higher-value imports. This change is also influenced by the country's industrial policies and the rising demand for technology and machinery in manufacturing. Meanwhile, the decline in agriculture and food imports showcases improvements in domestic production capabilities. Additionally, the overall volume of imports has increased, outpacing exports, further indicating a growing trade deficit. Consequently, policy focus must address the implications of these trends on India's economy and strive to enhance export competitiveness alongside managing import dependency.
Question 35.
[5 Marks]
Explain the characteristics Of 'Trans-Canadian Railway'.
Answer: The Trans-Canadian Railway, completed in 1886, is a monumental 7,050 km rail line that runs from Halifax in the east to Vancouver on the west coast of Canada. This railway was primarily constructed to facilitate the joining of British Columbia to the Canadian Confederation, addressing both political and economic needs. As the economic artery of Canada, it connects major cities including Montreal, Ottawa, Winnipeg, and Calgary, enabling the efficient transport of goods, notably wheat and meat. Additionally, the railway features a vital loop line from Winnipeg to Thunder Bay, which connects to important waterways. Remarkably, the Trans-Canadian Railway is one of the longest double-tracked, electrified rail lines in the world, enhancing its efficiency and capacity. Its role in opening up Canada’s vast regions to trade has been significant, fostering economic development and integration across the continental area. Overall, this railway is not just a transportation route but a crucial lifeline for Canada’s economy, linking diverse regions and enabling the trade of essential commodities.
Question 36.
[5 Marks]
Explain the characteristics of 'Trans-Siberian Railway'.
Answer: The Trans-Siberian Railway is a vital rail route that connects St. Petersburg in the west to Vladivostok in the east, stretching approximately 9,332 kilometers, making it the longest railway line in the world. This double-tracked and electrified line passes through significant cities like Moscow, Ufa, Novosibirsk, Irkutsk, Chita, and Khabarovsk. It has played a crucial role in facilitating trade and opening up the Asian region to West European markets. The railway crosses the Ural Mountains and significant rivers, including the Ob and Yenisei. The line connects with other important routes, extending to cities in Ukraine, Uzbekistan, Mongolia, and China, enhancing regional and international connectivity. In Russia, rail transport is paramount, covering about 90% of the country's land transport, with Moscow serving as the central hub.
Other Years — GEOGRAPHY