geography/
previous-year-question-paper-2024-set-4

SOLUTIONS

2024 BOARD EXAM

CBSE CLASS 12-HUMANITIES GEOGRAPHY Board Paper 2024 — Set 4

2024

GEOGRAPHY

CLASS 12-HUMANITIES

CBSE EXAMINATION SOLVED PAPER-2024 GEOGRAPHY

CBSE EXAMINATION PAPER-2024

GEOGRAPHY

(Solved)

Time allowed : 3 hours

Maximum Marks : 74

General Instructions :

Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :

  1. This question paper contains 34 questions. All questions are compulsory.
  2. This question paper is divided into 4 sections.
  3. Section A – questions number 1 to 4 are case based questions
  4. Section B – questions number 5 to 20 are multiple choice questions
  5. Section C – questions number 21 to 26 are short answer
  6. Section D – questions number 27 to 34 are long answer
  7. There is no overall choice given in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions.
  8. Use of calculator is NOT allowed.

Section A

Question 1.

Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow :

Tertiary Sector

When you fall ill you go to your family doctor or you call a doctor. Sometimes your parents take you to a hospital for treatment. While in school, you are taught by your teachers. In the event of any dispute, legal opinion is obtained from a lawyer. Likewise, there are many professionals who provide their services against payment of their fee. Thus, all types of services are special skills provided in exchange of payments. Health, education, law, governance and recreation etc. require professional skills. These services require other theoretical knowledge and practical training. Tertiary activities are related to the service sector. Manpower is an important component of the service sector as most of the tertiary activities are performed by skilled labour, professionally trained experts and consultants.

In the initial stages of economic development, larger proportion of people worked in the primary sector. In a developed economy, the majority of workers get employment in tertiary activity and a moderate proportion is employed in the secondary sector.

(1) Why is ‘manpower’ an important factor of service sector? Explain.

[1 Marks]
Answer: Manpower is a critical factor in the service sector as it comprises skilled labor and professionally trained experts who deliver various services. These professionals, including doctors, teachers, and legal advisors, possess specific knowledge and practical training essential for their roles. For instance, when someone falls ill, they rely on doctors for appropriate treatment, which demonstrates the importance of skilled manpower in health services. Moreover, the service sector also includes professions such as trade, transport, and communication, all of which necessitate trained individuals to operate effectively. As economies develop, the demand for these services increases, relying heavily on a competent workforce to ensure efficiency and quality in service delivery. Therefore, the contribution of manpower to the service sector is paramount for economic growth and development.
Key Points: 1. Skilled labor and trained professionals are essential for service delivery. 2. Services in health, education, law require specialized knowledge. 3. A competent workforce drives efficiency and supports economic development.

(2) Explain the difference between the activities of secondary and tertiary sectors.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The secondary sector is primarily concerned with manufacturing and production activities. It involves the transformation of raw materials into finished goods through processes that often require machinery, tools, and labor, such as in factories. In contrast, the tertiary sector is focused on providing services rather than goods. This includes professions that require specialized skills, such as healthcare, education, legal services, and other forms of professional expertise. Tertiary activities do not produce physical products but instead offer intangible services, with their value being measured through wages and salaries given to skilled professionals. Therefore, while the secondary sector emphasizes production techniques and machinery, the tertiary sector relies more on advanced knowledge and specialized skills to deliver services to consumers.
Key Points: Secondary sector involves manufacturing and production; Tertiary sector involves services; Secondary relies on machinery and production techniques; Tertiary relies on skilled labor and expertise; Tertiary sector's output is measured in wages and salaries.

(3) “Tertiary activities include both production and exchange.” Support the statement.

[1 Marks]
Answer: Tertiary activities indeed encompass both production and exchange, as illustrated in the given passage. Production in the tertiary sector refers to the provision of services that are directly consumed by individuals or businesses, such as healthcare from doctors, education from teachers, and legal advice from lawyers. Unlike primary and secondary sectors, the output in tertiary activities is measured in terms of wages and salaries, indicating the economic contribution of these services to the economy. On the other hand, exchange involves the facilitation of trade, transport, and communication, which enable the flow of goods and services. Transportation services, for instance, allow for the movement of products from producers to consumers, while communication services foster connectivity. Both components are vital for a well-functioning service sector and are essential for economic growth and development in modern economies.
Key Points: Tertiary activities provide services for consumption, output measured in wages, facilitate trade and communication
Question 2.

Study the given diagram carefully and answer the questions that follow:

India - Occupational Structure, 2011

(1) Write the names of two states with highest percentage of cultivators.

[1 Marks]
Answer: According to the information derived from the 2011 Census on the occupational structure of India, the two states with the highest percentage of cultivators are Himachal Pradesh and Nagaland. These states have significant agricultural activities, which contribute to a large proportion of their workforce being engaged in cultivation.
Key Points: Himachal Pradesh - high percentage of cultivators; Nagaland - significant cultivator workforce; importance of agriculture in these states' economies

(2) Write the names of two Union Territories having the highest percentage of other workers.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The two Union Territories having the highest percentage of other workers, according to the 2011 Census, are Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu. These territories have demonstrated a significant participation rate in the category of other workers compared to others in India.
Key Points: Dadra and Nagar Haveli-Daman and Diu; highest percentage of other workers; 2011 Census data

(3) What is the approximate percentage of cultivators in Tripura?

[1 Marks]
Answer: According to the 2011 Census data on the occupational structure of India, the approximate percentage of cultivators in Tripura is found to be around 55%. This high percentage indicates that a significant portion of the workforce in Tripura is engaged in agricultural activities, particularly cultivation, which is a key economic activity in the state. This trend reflects the reliance on agriculture for livelihood among the population of Tripura.
Key Points: Percentage of cultivators in Tripura is around 55%-Agricultural activities are crucial for the economy of Tripura-Reflects reliance on cultivation for livelihood

(4)

“Spatial variation of work participation rate in different sectors in the country is very wide.” Support the statement.

[3 Marks]
Answer: The statement regarding the 'spatial variation of work participation rate in different sectors in the country being very wide' is well-supported by the data from the 2011 Census. Different states in India exhibit significant differences in work participation rates across various sectors. For instance, states like Himachal Pradesh and Nagaland have shown improvements in work participation particularly among women in the secondary and tertiary sectors, highlighting regional disparities. Additionally, while the agricultural workforce has decreased from 58.2% in 2001 to 54.6% in 2011, the increase in participation in secondary and tertiary sectors indicates a transition from primary agriculture-based occupations to more diverse economic activities. This shift in the occupational structure reflects not only a change in the economy but also variations in gender participation across sectors, where more female workers are engaged in agriculture compared to other sectors, and there is a gradual but notable increase in their participation in secondary and tertiary activities.
Key Points: Diverse participation rates across states-Shift from agriculture to non-agricultural sectors-Improvement in female participation in secondary and tertiary sectors-Decline in the agricultural worker percentage from 2001 to 2011
Question 3.

On the given political outline Map of the World, seven geographical features have been marked as A, B, C, D, E, F and G. Identify any FIVE correctly with the help of following information and write their correct names on the lines marked near them :

(1)

An area of extensive commercial grain farming

[1 Marks]
Answer: One of the prominent areas of extensive commercial grain farming is the American Corn Belt, located primarily in the Midwest of the United States. This region is known for its high productivity of corn and soybeans. Other significant areas include the Pampas of Argentina, characterized by fertile soil suitable for wheat and barley; the Canadian Prairies, which contribute to Canada's grain output; the Velds of South Africa, where grains like maize are cultivated; and the Australian Downs, known for producing wheat and other cereals. Each of these areas exemplifies extensive agriculture due to the large land area used for grain production.
Key Points: American Corn Belt- Pampas of Argentina - Canadian Prairies - Velds of South Africa - Australian Downs

(2)

Eastern most station of ‘Trans-Canadian Railways’

[1 Marks]
Answer: The easternmost station of the Trans-Canadian Railways is Halifax. This port city serves as the initial point of the 7,050 km long railway line, which plays an integral role in connecting the eastern and western parts of Canada while promoting economic activities along the route.
Key Points: Easternmost station-Halifax-Trans-Canadian Railways-7,050 km-long railway line-economic significance

(3)

An area of commercial livestock rearing

[1 Marks]
Answer: The area of commercial livestock rearing is predominantly found in countries such as New Zealand, Australia, Argentina, Uruguay, and the United States of America. These regions are characterized by vast grazing lands and suitable climatic conditions which support large-scale cattle and sheep farming operations. Specific areas in these countries have optimal resources for livestock farming, contributing significantly to both local and global meat and dairy production.
Key Points: Countries like New Zealand, Australia, Argentina, Uruguay, and USA; characteristics of grazing lands; significance of livestock farming in economy; climatic conditions supporting livestock rearing

(4)

A major international airport of Europe

[1 Marks]
Answer: A major international airport of Europe is Frankfurt Airport, located in Frankfurt, Germany. It is one of the busiest airports in Europe and serves as a major hub for international flights, connecting travelers to various destinations across the globe.
Key Points: Frankfurt Airport; located in Germany; one of the busiest in Europe; major international hub

(5)

A shipping canal

[1 Marks]
Answer: One of the prominent shipping canals in the world is the Suez Canal. This vital man-made waterway was completed in 1869 and connects the Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea, significantly facilitating maritime trade between Europe and Asia by providing a direct route. Another notable shipping canal is the Panama Canal, which connects the Atlantic and Pacific Oceans, allowing ships to avoid the lengthy and hazardous route around the southern tip of South America. These canals play a crucial role in international trade and are essential for efficient water transport.
Key Points: Suez Canal, Panama Canal, man-made navigation canals, facilitates maritime trade, connects major seas

(6)

An area of ‘Nomadic Herding’

[1 Marks]
Answer: The area of ‘Nomadic Herding’ is primarily found in regions characterized by sparse vegetation, arid climates, and large open spaces that support the movement of herds. One significant area is the Central Asian steppes, where pastoral nomads raise animals like sheep, goats, and camels. Other areas include parts of Mongolia, the Arctic and sub-Arctic regions inhabited by the Sami people as well as regions across the Middle East where Bedouins traditionally graze their livestock. These regions allow for the traditional lifestyle of nomadic herding, where communities migrate seasonally to find pasture for their animals.
Key Points: Central Asian steppes-Mongolia-Arctic and sub-Arctic regions-Middle East-Bedouins

(7)

A major seaport of Asia

[1 Marks]
Answer: One major seaport of Asia is Mumbai. It is renowned for being a natural harbor and the largest port in India, strategically located on major sea routes connecting it to the Middle East, North America, and other regions. As a comprehensive port, it handles both bulk and general cargo, making it a pivotal point for international trade in Asia.
Key Points: Mumbai-port of India-natural harbor-strategic location-comprehensive port

(8)

Name an area of commercial livestock rearing of South America.

[1 Marks]
Answer: One notable area of commercial livestock rearing in South America is the Pampas region of Argentina. This region is characterized by its vast plains and is highly suitable for raising cattle and sheep, making it one of the most important agricultural areas for livestock production in the continent.
Key Points: Pampas region, Argentina, commercial livestock rearing, cattle, sheep

(9)

Name a major international airport of France.

[1 Marks]
Answer: A major international airport of France is Charles de Gaulle Airport, located near Paris. It is one of the busiest airports in Europe and serves as a major hub for international flights.
Key Points: Charles de Gaulle Airport, located in Paris, major international hub, serves numerous international destinations

(10)

Name a major area of extensive commercial grain farming of New

Zealand.

[1 Marks]
Answer: A major area of extensive commercial grain farming in New Zealand is the Canterbury Plains. This region is known for its fertile soil and favorable climate, making it suitable for large-scale grain cultivation.
Key Points: Canterbury Plains-Extensive grain farming-Fertile soil-Favorable climate

(11)

Name the major seaport of Japan.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The major seaport of Japan is Yokohama. It is one of the busiest and most significant ports in the country, handling extensive cargo traffic, and serves as a vital hub for both commercial and industrial activities.
Key Points: Yokohama is Japan's major seaport-Important for commerce and industry-Busy port handling significant cargo-Reflects significance in international trade

(12)

Name the canal linking Red sea with Mediterranean sea.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The canal linking the Red Sea with the Mediterranean Sea is the Suez Canal. Constructed in 1869, it connects Port Said in the north to Port Suez in the south and serves as a crucial maritime route for trade between Europe and Asia.
Key Points: Suez Canal-constructed in 1869- links Red Sea and Mediterranean Sea- connects Port Said and Port Suez- important for trade

(13)

Name the easternmost station of ‘Trans-Canadian Railways’.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The easternmost station of the Trans-Canadian Railways is Halifax. Located on the eastern coast of Canada, Halifax serves as the terminal point from which the railway extends across the country to Vancouver on the Pacific coast. This railway line is vital for connecting different regions and facilitating trade and transportation across Canada.
Key Points: Easternmost station is Halifax-Connected to Vancouver-Important for trade in Canada

(14)

Name the major area of extensive commercial grain farming of

Argentina.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The major area of extensive commercial grain farming in Argentina is known as the Pampas. This region is recognized for its fertile soil and extensive flatlands, making it ideal for large-scale grain production, particularly wheat and maize.
Key Points: Pampas-fertile soil-Argentina-commercial grain farming
Question 4.

Locate and label any five of the following geographical features on the

given political outline Map of India with appropriate symbols :

(1)

Astate with highest population density

[1 Marks]
Answer: The state with the highest population density in India is Uttar Pradesh. According to the density distribution shown in the map, Uttar Pradesh has a significant share of the country's total population, leading it to have the highest population density measured as persons per square kilometer. This density indicates how crowded the state is relative to its land area, setting it apart from other states.
Key Points: Uttar Pradesh-highest population density-population distribution

(2)

State leading in the production of coffee

[1 Marks]
Answer: The leading state in the production of coffee in India is Karnataka. According to the data, Karnataka alone accounts for more than two-thirds of the total coffee production in the country, making it the foremost state for coffee cultivation. The coffee is primarily grown in the highlands of the Western Ghats, and the region is known for producing superior quality arabica coffee, which is highly demanded in the international market.
Key Points: Karnataka is the leading state for coffee production; accounts for over two-thirds of India's coffee output; coffee is cultivated in the Western Ghats; primarily produces arabica variety; India ranks eighth in global coffee production.

(3)

Ratnagiri : Iron ore mines

[1 Marks]
Answer: Ratnagiri is renowned for its rich iron ore deposits, contributing to the state's mineral wealth. It is located in the state of Maharashtra, and the iron ore mines in this region benefit from proximity to the coastal areas, facilitating export activities. On the political outline map, Ratnagiri can be located in the southwestern part of Maharashtra, marked with a symbol for iron ore mines, which could be represented as a small pickaxe icon or a mine symbol. Additionally, Ratnagiri's location can be identified near significant transport routes, linking it to larger industrial hubs in the region, enhancing its economic significance.
Key Points: Ratnagiri location in Maharashtra-iron ore mining symbol-proximity to coast and transport routes-economic significance

(4)

Hazaribagh : Copper mines

[1 Marks]
Answer: Hazaribagh, located in Jharkhand, is known for its copper mines which are part of the North-Eastern Plateau region. To accurately label Hazaribagh on the political outline map, mark it with a specific symbol representing mining activities. Use a mining symbol (a pickaxe or a mine cart) to indicate the presence of copper mines in this region. Additionally, include a brief note explaining that Hazaribagh is part of the mineral-rich Chhotanagpur Plateau, which contributes to its significance in copper mining activities.
Key Points: Hazaribagh location - Copper mines presence - Mark with mining symbol - Part of Chhotanagpur Plateau - Importance in mineral resources

(5)

Haldia : Major seaport

[1 Marks]
Answer: Haldia is a major seaport located on the banks of the Hugli river, approximately 105 km downstream from Kolkata. It was developed to alleviate congestion at Kolkata Port and plays a crucial role in handling considerable bulk cargo including iron ore, coal, petroleum, fertilizers, jute, and cotton products. When labeling Haldia on the political outline map of India, it is important to use an appropriate symbol (such as a star or anchor) to represent its significance as a major shipping port and to indicate its strategic location within the state of West Bengal.
Key Points: Location on Hugli river, 105 km downstream from Kolkata - Developed to reduce congestion at Kolkata - Handles bulk cargo - Important for trade and commerce - Use appropriate symbol for labeling

(6)

Name the state with highest population density.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The state with the highest population density in India is Uttar Pradesh. This state exhibits a significant population concentration due to several factors, including its large area and fertile land, which support agricultural activities and attract a large workforce. Additionally, the historical and cultural significance of Uttar Pradesh, along with urbanization in cities such as Lucknow and Kanpur, contributes to its high population density.
Key Points: Uttar Pradesh-highest population density-agricultural activities-urbanization

(7)

Name the leading state in production of coffee.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The leading state in the production of coffee in India is Karnataka. It accounts for over two-thirds of the total coffee production in the country, primarily due to its suitable climatic conditions in the highlands of the Western Ghats.
Key Points: Karnataka is the leading coffee producer in India - accounts for more than two-thirds of total production - highlands of Western Ghats provide ideal cultivation conditions.

(8)

In which state, Hazaribagh copper mines are located ?

[1 Marks]
Answer: The Hazaribagh copper mines are located in the state of Jharkhand. This area is part of the Chhotanagpur plateau region, which is rich in various minerals including copper, iron, and coal. The significance of these mines lies in their contribution to India's mineral resources and the economy of the region.
Key Points: Hazaribagh copper mines-Jharkhand-Chhotanagpur plateau-region-rich in minerals

(9)

Neyveli: Coal mines

[1 Marks]
Answer: Neyveli is located in the state of Tamil Nadu and is known for its lignite coal mines. On the political outline map of India, Neyveli can be marked in the southern region close to the coastal areas. The appropriate symbol to represent coal mines is a black square or circle. To illustrate this, draw a small black square on the map at the location of Neyveli to indicate the presence of coal mines.
Key Points: Location: Tamil Nadu, Symbols: Black square/circle for coal mines, Significance: Lignite mining, Southern region of India, Map-marking Instructions

(10)

Ahmedabad : Major international airport

[1 Marks]
Answer: Ahmedabad is located in the western part of India, in the state of Gujarat. The city is marked on the map as a major international airport, represented by a triangular symbol. It serves as an important hub for air travel, connecting various domestic and international destinations. The airport facilitates significant travel for business and tourism, making it crucial for the region’s economy.
Key Points: Ahmedabad location; Major international airport symbol; Importance of air travel; Economic significance

(11)

In which state, Ahmedabad international airport is located ?

[1 Marks]
Answer: Ahmedabad International Airport is located in the state of Gujarat. It serves as a major hub for both domestic and international flights, reflecting the city's significance in trade and commerce. The airport is strategically situated to facilitate connections across India and to various countries, enhancing transportation for both passengers and cargo.
Key Points: Ahmedabad International Airport; located in Gujarat; major hub for domestic/international flights; significant for trade and commerce; enhances connectivity

(12)

Name the state, where Ratnagiri iron-ore mines are located.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The Ratnagiri iron-ore mines are located in the state of Maharashtra. This region is known for its mineral wealth, and the iron ore extracted here is significant for supporting the country's iron and steel industry.
Key Points: Ratnagiri is in Maharashtra-Important for iron ore mining- Supports steel industry

(13)

In which state, Haldia seaport is located ?

[1 Marks]
Answer: Haldia seaport is located in the state of West Bengal. It is situated approximately 105 km downstream from Kolkata and is designed to alleviate congestion at the Kolkata port. Haldia handles various bulk cargo including iron ore, coal, petroleum products, and fertilizers, making it a vital port for the region's trade.
Key Points: Haldia seaport-West Bengal-105 km downstream from Kolkata-port for bulk cargo

(14)

In which state, Neyveli coal mines are located ?

[1 Marks]
Answer: The Neyveli coal mines are located in the state of Tamil Nadu. They are primarily known for lignite production, which is a type of brown coal. These mines have played a significant role in providing energy resources for the region and country. The Neyveli Lignite Corporation operates the mines, contributing to the overall energy supply in India.
Key Points: Neyveli coal mines-located in Tamil Nadu-lignite production-energy resources-Neyveli Lignite Corporation

Section B

Question 5.

Read the following characteristics of wholesale trading carefully and choose the correct option:

I. It is constituted by numerous intermediaries, merchants and supply houses.

II. Wholesalers often extend credit to retail stores.

III. Generally, retailers operate very largely on the wholesaler's capital.

IV. Mall mode, automatic vending machines, and trot vendors are some of its examples.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Only I, III and IV are correct.
  • (B) Only I, II and IV are correct.
  • (C) Only I, II and III are correct.
  • (D) Only III and IV are correct.
Explanation: The correct option is 'Only I, II and III are correct.' because characteristics I, II, and III accurately describe wholesale trading as it involves numerous intermediaries, wholesalers extend credit to retail stores, and retailers often operate on the capital provided by wholesalers. Characteristic IV is incorrect as it pertains more to retail trading rather than wholesale trading.
Question 6. Which one of the following is the headquarter of the ‘World Trade Organization’?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) New York
  • (B) Geneva
  • (C) Delhi
  • (D) London
Explanation: The correct answer is 'Geneva' because the WTO Headquarters are located in Geneva, Switzerland, as stated in the provided context.
Question 7.

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A): Industries based on ores are located close to the sources of raw material.

Reason (R): Industries maximize profits by reducing transportation costs.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) (A) is correct and (R) is false.
  • (B) (A) is false and (R) is correct.
  • (C) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (D) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Explanation: Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). The assertion is true because industries that rely on ores, like steel, are indeed located near their raw materials to minimize transportation costs, leading to higher profits. The reason reinforces this by stating that minimizing transportation costs helps in maximizing profits.
Question 8.

Which one of the following is the false reason for the high growth rate of urban population in India?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Higher economic development in cities
  • (B) Rapid expansion of urban areas
  • (C) Availability of employment opportunities in cities
  • (D) Improvement in health conditions in cities
Explanation: The option 'Improvement in health conditions in cities' is correct because, according to the context, the accelerated growth of urban population is indeed due to the enhancement in health and hygienic conditions. The other options—higher economic development in cities, rapid expansion of urban areas, and availability of employment opportunities in cities—are true reasons contributing to urban growth, whereas the statement regarding health conditions is misleading since it is mentioned as a contributing factor.
Question 9. Which one of the following states has the highest percentage of urban population?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Maharashtra
  • (B) Kerala
  • (C) Gujarat
  • (D) Goa
Explanation: Goa has the highest percentage of urban population among the options given, as the context indicates that states like Goa have a population with slightly over half residing in urban areas, making it more urbanized compared to Maharashtra, Kerala, and Gujarat.
Question 10.

The characteristics of an agricultural crop in India are given below. Read the following characteristics carefully and identify the crop:

I. It is a crop of tropical humid area.

II. West Bengal farmers grow it three crops in a year.

III. It is grown as a Kharif crop in north-western parts.

IV. West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh and Punjab are major producing states.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Gram
  • (B) Wheat
  • (C) Bajra
  • (D) Rice
Explanation: The correct answer is 'Rice'. The characteristics listed align with the attributes of rice cultivation in India. Rice is predominantly a tropical humid crop, and farmers in West Bengal grow three varieties of rice throughout the year. Additionally, rice is also a Kharif crop in northwest India, with major production in states like West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh, and Punjab.
Question 11.

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A): The economic development of a region depends upon its resources.

Reason (R): Economic development requires technologies as well as investment.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (C) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (D) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.
Explanation: The correct option is 'To mitigate the risk of loan default.' Lenders require collateral to secure the loan, as it acts as a safety net in case the borrower fails to repay. This reduces the lender's risk of loss.
Question 12.

Match the Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) a - (iii), b - (iv), c - (ii), d - (i)
  • (B) a - (iv), b - (iii), c - (ii), d - (ii)
  • (C) a - (iii), b - (iv), c - (i), d - (ii)
  • (D) a - (iv), b - (iii), c - (i), d - (ii)
Explanation: The correct option is a - (iii), b - (iv), c - (ii), d - (i). This is because the pairs correctly align based on the climatic classifications provided in the context. For instance, B - Dry Climates match with (iii), and Cold Climates match with the correct climatic characteristics in Column-II.
Question 13.

Which of the following is an example of a ‘Modern City’ ?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Hyderabad
  • (B) Surat
  • (C) Nagpur
  • (D) Madurai
Explanation: Hyderabad is considered a modern city due to its rapid development in technology and industry, aligning with the context that cites the evolution of towns based on modern industries after 1850. It has emerged as an important administrative and industrial hub, distinguishing it from the other options.
Question 14.

Choose the correct option related to Garrison towns in India

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Modinagar, Jamshedpur and Bhilai
  • (B) Itarsi, Katni and Kandla
  • (C) Mhow, Babina and Udhampur
  • (D) Raniganj, Digboi and Jharia
Explanation: The correct option is 'Mhow, Babina and Udhampur' because these towns are specifically identified as garrison cantonment towns in the provided context. The context lists Ambala, Jalandhar, Mhow, Babina, and Udhampur as examples of garrison towns, which are military stations established by the British.
Question 15.

Read the following characteristics of settlements carefully and identify its

type :

  1. It is seen in the form of isolated huts in the forest.

  2. It is visible on the slopes of small hills.

  3. This kind of settlements are found in different parts of Meghalaya,

Uttarakhand and Himachal Pradesh.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Nucleated
  • (B) Dispersed
  • (C) Hamleted
  • (D) Fragmented
Explanation: The correct answer is 'Dispersed'. This settlement type is characterized by isolated huts or hamlets in forests or on hill slopes, which matches the described characteristics. The context confirms that dispersed settlements appear in such forms, particularly in regions like Meghalaya, Uttarakhand, and Himachal Pradesh.
Question 16.

Choose the correct option to fill the blanks :

Indian Railway was introduced in 1853 and a railway line was

constructed from ..............to................. covering a distance of 34 km.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Mumbai (Bombay), Thane
  • (B) Kolkata (Calcutta), Hugli
  • (C) Chennai (Madras), Madurai
  • (D) Bengaluru (Bangalore), Calicut
Explanation: The correct option is 'Mumbai (Bombay), Thane'. The first passenger railway in India was inaugurated on April 16, 1853, and it ran from Mumbai (then known as Bombay) to Thane, covering a distance of approximately 34 km.
Question 17.

Which one of the following human body system gets affected the most by

water pollution ?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Nervous system
  • (B) Circulatory system
  • (C) Digestive system
  • (D) Respiratory system
Explanation: The correct answer is the Digestive system. Water pollution introduces various contaminants, such as bacteria and heavy metals, which can lead to water-borne diseases like diarrhoea and intestinal infections. These diseases primarily affect the digestive tract, making this system the most impacted by water pollution.
Question 18.

Which of the following tribes is in majority in Jhabua district of Madhya

Pradesh ?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Bhil
  • (B) Gaddi
  • (C) Tharu
  • (D) Bakarwal
Explanation: The correct answer is 'Bhil' because the context states that Jhabua district is characterized by a high concentration of tribal population, mostly Bhils. The other tribes listed (Gaddi, Tharu, and Bakarwal) are not relevant to the majority population in this specific district.
Question 19.

Demographic Transition Theory

The first stage has high fertility and high mortality because people reproduce more to compensate for the deaths due to epidemics and variable food supply. The population growth is slow and most of the people are engaged in agriculture where large families are an asset. Life expectancy is low, people are mostly illiterate and have low levels of technology. Two hundred years ago all the countries of the world were in this stage.

Fertility remains high in the beginning of second stage but it declines with time. This is accompanied by reduced mortality rate. Improvements in sanitation and health conditions lead to decline in mortality. Because of this gap the net addition to population is high.

In the last stage, both fertility and mortality decline considerably. The population is either stable or grows slowly. The population becomes urbanished, literate and has high technical know-how and deliberately controls the family size.

This shows that human beings are extremely flexible and are able to adjust their fertility.

  • In which of the following stage/stages, the death rate declined the most ?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Only I and II
  • (B) Only I and Last
  • (C) Only II
  • (D) Only I
Explanation: The death rate declined the most in the second stage due to significant improvements in sanitation and health conditions, leading to a notable reduction in mortality rates, while in the last stage, both fertility and mortality decline, but the context emphasizes the most substantial decline occurring in the second stage.
Question 20.

Demographic Transition Theory

The first stage has high fertility and high mortality because people reproduce more to compensate for the deaths due to epidemics and variable food supply. The population growth is slow and most of the people are engaged in agriculture where large families are an asset. Life expectancy is low, people are mostly illiterate and have low levels of technology. Two hundred years ago all the countries of the world were in this stage.

Fertility remains high in the beginning of second stage but it declines with time. This is accompanied by reduced mortality rate. Improvements in sanitation and health conditions lead to decline in mortality. Because of this gap the net addition to population is high.

In the last stage, both fertility and mortality decline considerably. The population is either stable or grows slowly. The population becomes urbanished, literate and has high technical know-how and deliberately controls the family size.

This shows that human beings are extremely flexible and are able to adjust their fertility.

  • Which one among the following countries is an example of second stage?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Kenya
  • (B) Bangladesh
  • (C) Japan
  • (D) Canada
Explanation: Kenya is an example of the second stage of the Demographic Transition Theory because it experiences high fertility rates initially along with a decline in mortality due to improvements in sanitation and health, which leads to significant population growth. In contrast, Japan and Canada are in the later stages with lower fertility and mortality rates.

Section C

Question 21. How do differences in national resources become the basis of international trade? Explain with examples.
[3 Marks]
Answer: Differences in national resources play a crucial role in shaping international trade. Due to geographical variations, countries possess different natural resources, leading to specialization in production. For instance, a country rich in oil, like Saudi Arabia, can export petroleum while importing agricultural products from countries like India, which has fertile land for farming. This specialization benefits all countries involved, as they trade based on their comparative advantages. Thus, varying resource endowments encourage trade relationships that enhance global economic interdependence.
Question 22. Explain the differences between the inland and out-ports with examples.
[3 Marks]
Answer: Inland ports and out-ports differ primarily in their locations and accessibility. Inland ports are situated away from the sea coast and are connected to the ocean through rivers or canals. They are typically accessible to smaller vessels, such as flat-bottom ships or barges. Examples include Manchester, which is linked via a canal, and Memphis on the Mississippi River. In contrast, out-ports are directly located along the coastline, making them accessible to larger sea-going vessels, facilitating international trade efficiently. Notable examples of out-ports include Dover in England, which faces Calais in France across the English Channel. The main distinction lies in their geographical positioning and the types of vessels that can access them, affecting their operational functions.
Question 23. Analyse any three objectives of ‘Jal Kranti Abhiyan’ in India.
[3 Marks]
Answer: The Jal Kranti Abhiyan, launched in 2015, aims to ensure water security in India through various objectives. Firstly, it seeks to involve local bodies, NGOs, and citizens by raising awareness about water conservation methods. Outreach activities include workshops, competitions, and the use of social media to promote the significance of water management. Secondly, the initiative identifies and develops 'Jal Grams,' which are water-stressed villages, to implement sustainable practices for water conservation. Lastly, the program focuses on abating pollution in water bodies to enhance water quality, ensuring safe and sufficient water for all. These objectives collectively strive to manage water resources effectively for food and livelihood security.
Question 24. Analyse any three key features of ‘Indian National Water Policy’.
[3 Marks]
Answer: The Indian National Water Policy of 2012 emphasizes the need for a unified approach to water resource management. Firstly, it highlights the necessity for a national water framework law to ensure effective governance and regulation across states. Secondly, it advocates for the optimal development and management of inter-state rivers and river valleys, addressing the challenges posed by water scarcity and regional disputes. Lastly, the policy underscores the importance of pricing water appropriately to promote conservation and efficient use, thereby balancing individual and community needs.
Question 25. Explain the concept of ‘Humanisation of Nature’ by giving examples.
[3 Marks]
Answer: The concept of ‘Humanisation of Nature’ refers to the ways in which human beings modify natural landscapes and ecosystems to suit their needs. This transformation can be seen through the creation of flower beds, gardens, and urban areas where nature is shaped for aesthetic and functional purposes. For instance, parks in cities bring together natural elements with human design, facilitating leisure and recreation. Additionally, agriculture exemplifies humanisation, transforming wild terrains into productive lands. Overall, this interaction reflects the collaboration between humans and nature, showcasing human ingenuity and the adaptability of ecosystems.
Question 26. Suggest any three measures to solve the problem of ‘Urban Waste Disposal in India’ and explain them.
[3 Marks]
Answer: To tackle the issue of urban waste disposal in India, three effective measures can be implemented: first, enhancing segregation and recycling at the source. This involves educating citizens about separating biodegradable and non-biodegradable waste, thus facilitating better recycling processes. Second, improving waste management infrastructure is crucial. Adequate resources, such as composting facilities and recycling centers, should be established, especially in metropolitan areas. Lastly, promoting mass awareness through various media channels can foster responsible waste disposal behaviors among the public. By focusing on these aspects, we can significantly mitigate the urban waste disposal crisis.

Section D

Question 27. Which organisation publishes the ‘Human Development Report’ every year? Explain the four pillars of human development.
[5 Marks]
Answer: The Human Development Report is published annually by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) since 1990. This report provides insights into the level of human development across various countries. It assesses nations based on indices that measure health, education, and access to resources. The four pillars of human development are equity, sustainability, productivity, and empowerment. Equity ensures fairness in opportunity for all individuals, sustainability emphasizes the need to meet present needs without compromising future generations, productivity focuses on enhancing well-being and economic output, and empowerment aims to strengthen individuals' abilities to make choices and influence their lives positively. Together, these pillars create a comprehensive framework for assessing and advancing human development, ultimately striving for improved quality of life and dignity for every person.
Question 28. Which country has the highest rank in the world in Human Development Index in 2020? Explain four approaches of human development.
[5 Marks]
Answer: In 2020, Norway held the highest rank in the world according to the Human Development Index (HDI) due to its exemplary performance in health, education, and living standards. The HDI is scored from 0 to 1, with higher scores reflecting better living conditions. Four significant approaches to human development include:\n\n1. **Economic Growth**: Focusing on improving economic outputs, which helps provide better services and opportunities.\n2. **Social Inclusion**: Ensuring all groups have equal access to resources, enhancing social equity.\n3. **Sustainability**: Balancing economic growth with environmental protection for long-term viability.\n4. **Empowerment**: Facilitating individual capabilities by promoting education, healthcare, and participation in governance, leading to informed and engaged citizens.\n\nThese approaches collectively enhance quality of life and provide a comprehensive framework to drive human development.
Question 29. Describe any five features of commercial livestock rearing in the world.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Commercial livestock rearing is a highly organized and capital-intensive form of animal husbandry practiced mainly in countries like New Zealand, Australia, Argentina, Uruguay, and the USA. One key feature is its scientific approach, emphasizing breeding and genetic improvement to enhance productivity. Additionally, it focuses on a single type of animal, such as sheep or cattle, which allows for specialization. Commercial ranches cover vast areas, enabling regulated grazing through fenced parcels. Advanced machinery and veterinary services are integral to operations, ensuring animal health and productivity. Lastly, products from commercial livestock, like meat and wool, are processed scientifically for export, tapping into global markets.
Question 30. Explain with examples the importance of ‘Satellite Communication’ in the world.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Satellite communication plays a vital role in connecting the world, facilitating various forms of communication, including telephony, television broadcasting, and internet access. For instance, satellite communication enables users in remote areas to access mobile networks and the internet, making it essential for education and healthcare. Moreover, weather satellites provide essential data for forecasting, which is crucial for disaster management. India’s first satellite, Aryabhatt, marked a significant advancement in space technology and highlights the country's strides in this field. The ability of satellites to ensure consistent communication regardless of distance has revolutionized global connectivity and prominently impacted economic development and strategic planning across nations.
Question 31. Explain any five measures for the conservation of mineral resources in India.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Conservation of mineral resources in India is essential for sustainable development. Firstly, promoting recycling through the use of scrap metals, especially for scarce metals like copper, lead, and zinc, significantly reduces the need for new mining activities. Secondly, substituting scarce minerals with alternative materials can decrease the pressure on available reserves. Thirdly, it is critical to limit the export of strategic and scarce minerals, ensuring that we utilize our current reserves more effectively over time. Fourthly, abatement of pollution generated during mining and processing can minimize environmental harm and enhance the longevity of mineral deposits. Lastly, creating mass awareness through various channels, including social media and educational programs, is crucial in promoting the importance of mineral conservation among the public and fostering responsible consumption patterns. These measures collectively aim to safeguard India’s mineral wealth for future generations.
Question 32. Explain the importance of solar energy in the Indian context.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Solar energy plays a crucial role in India's energy landscape, primarily due to its abundance and sustainability. The country is endowed with a significant amount of sunlight throughout the year, making it a viable option for energy generation. Solar energy is 7% more efficient than coal or oil and even 10% more than nuclear energy, which highlights its superiority. In India, solar thermal technology and photovoltaics are the two effective methods of harnessing this energy. Regions like Gujarat and Rajasthan, with their favorable climates, are ideal for solar power development. Harnessing solar energy also aligns with India's commitment to environmental sustainability and reducing carbon emissions. It alleviates energy poverty in rural areas by providing decentralized power solutions. Furthermore, the shift towards solar energy contributes to energy security, reducing dependence on fossil fuels. In summary, solar energy is not only a cleaner energy source but also a crucial step towards achieving India's sustainable development goals.
Question 33. “Pipelines are the most convenient and efficient mode of transportation in India.” Examine the statement with examples.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Pipelines represent a highly efficient and convenient mode of transport, especially for liquids and gases over vast distances in India. They facilitate the uninterrupted flow of essential resources like petroleum and natural gas. For instance, Oil India Limited manages a significant pipeline network that ensures smooth transportation of crude oil from production sites to refineries across the country. Pipelines have distinct advantages, including lower operational costs and reduced environmental impact compared to road or rail transport. Additionally, pipelines can transport a variety of materials; for example, liquefied petroleum gas (LPG) is supplied through pipelines in urban areas, enhancing energy accessibility. Internationally, pipelines also showcase their efficacy, such as the Big Inch pipeline in the USA, which conveys petroleum from the Gulf of Mexico to the northeastern states. Therefore, given their cost-effectiveness, efficiency, and extensive application in transporting vital resources, pipelines emerge as a crucial element of India's transportation infrastructure.
Question 34. “India has the second largest road networks in the world.” Examine the statement with examples.
[5 Marks]
Answer: India's road network, stretching over approximately 62.16 lakh km, ranks as the second largest in the world, reflecting its extensive infrastructure. The network comprises various categories: National Highways (136,440 km), State Highways (17,681 km), and other roads, showcasing a robust framework to facilitate trade and transportation. National Highways connect major cities and facilitate inter-state travel, critical for economic growth. State Highways, with less traffic, enhance regional connectivity. Furthermore, the proliferation of heavy-duty vehicles indicates the increasing importance of road transport in India’s economy. However, challenges such as road maintenance and congestion persist, affecting road safety. Overall, this extensive network is crucial for India's economic framework, linking rural regions to urban centers, thereby fostering development.

Paper Details

CBSE Board Exam 2024

Class

CLASS 12-HUMANITIES

Subject

GEOGRAPHY

Year

2024

Set

Set 4

Other Years — GEOGRAPHY

2022 Set-1

2022 Set-2

2022 Set-3

2022 Set-4

2022 Set-5

2023 Set-1

2023 Set-2

2023 Set-3

2023 Set-4

2023 Set-5

2024 Set-1

2024 Set-2

2024 Set-3

2024 Set-4

2024 Set-5

2025 Set-1

2025 Set-2

2025 Set-3

2025 Set-4

2025 Set-5

2025 Set-6