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previous-year-question-paper-2025-set-4

QUESTION PAPER

2025 BOARD EXAM

CBSE CLASS 12-HUMANITIES GEOGRAPHY Board Paper 2025 — Set 4

2025

GEOGRAPHY

CLASS 12-HUMANITIES

CBSE EXAMINATION PAPER-2025 GEOGRAPHY

CBSE EXAMINATION PAPER-2025

GEOGRAPHY

(Solved)

Time allowed : 3 hours

Maximum Marks : 74

General Instructions :

Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :

  1. This question paper contains 37 questions. All questions are compulsory.
  2. This question paper is divided into 4 sections.
  3. Section A – questions number 1 to 7 are case based questions
  4. Section B – questions number 8 to 24 are multiple choice questions
  5. Section C – questions number 25 to 28 are short answer
  6. Section D – questions number 29 to 37 are long answer
  7. There is no overall choice given in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions.
  8. Use of calculator is NOT allowed.

Section A

Question 1.

Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:

There are many professionals who provide their services against payment of their fee. Thus, all types of services are special skills provided in exchange of payments. Health, education, law, governance and recreation, etc., require professional skills. These services require other theoretical knowledge and practical training. Tertiary activities are related to the service sector. Manpower is an important component of the service sector as most of the tertiary activities are performed by skilled labour, professionally trained experts and consultants. In the initial stages of economic development, larger proportion of people worked in the primary sector. In a developed economy, the majority of workers get employment in tertiary activity and a moderate proportion is employed in the secondary sector.

(1) Describe any one example of the relationship between primary and secondary sectors.

[1 Marks]

(2) How can a person avail services of a professional?

[1 Marks]

(3) Explain any one difference between secondary and tertiary sectors.

[1 Marks]
Question 2. Study the given map carefully and answer the questions that follow.

(1) Mention the names of the terminal stations of the given railway line.

[1 Marks]

(2) Explain the economic importance of this railway line.

[1 Marks]

(3) Mention the names of the oceans lying in the East and West directions of this railway line.

[1 Marks]
Question 3.

Study the following table carefully and answer the questions that follow :

(1)

Mention the increase in number Of towns/UAs in 1991 in

comparison to 1941.

[1 Marks]

(2)

In which decade is the minimum increase in the percentage of

urban population recorded ?

[1 Marks]

(3)

Describe the decennial growth of urbanisation.

[1 Marks]
Question 4.

On the given political outline map of India , locate and label any five of the following seven geographical features with appropriate symbols :

(1)

1) The state leading in the production of rice

[1 Marks]

(2)

2) An oil refinery in Uttar Pradesh

[1 Marks]

(3)

3) The sea port situated at the head of Vembanad Kayal

[1 Marks]

(4)

4) Important bauxite mines located in southern Odisha

[1 Marks]

(5)

6) Important iron ore mines located in southern Chhattisgarh

[1 Marks]

(6)

5) The international airport in Assam

[1 Marks]

(7)

7) Important copper mines located in southern Rajasthan

[1 Marks]
Question 5.

Answer any five questions out of the following

(1)

Name the state leading in the production of rice.

[1 Marks]

(2)

Name the place where an oil refinery is located in Uttar Pradesh.

[1 Marks]

(3)

Name the sea port situated at the head of Vembanad Kayal.

[1 Marks]

(4)

Name the place where important iron ore mines are located in southern Chhattisgarh.

[1 Marks]

(5)

Name the international airport in Assam.

[1 Marks]

(6)

Name the place where important copper mines are located in southern Rajasthan.

[1 Marks]

(7)

Name the place where important bauxite mines are located in southern Odisha.

[1 Marks]
Question 6.

On the given political outline map of the world (on page 25), seven geographical features have been marked as A, B, C, D, E, F and G. Identify any five with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them :

(1)

An area of nomadic herding

[1 Marks]

(2)

A major sea port

[1 Marks]

(3)

An area of extensive commercial grain farming

[1 Marks]

(4)

A major airport

[1 Marks]

(5)

An inland waterway

[1 Marks]

(6)

A terminal station of a trans-continental railway

[1 Marks]

(7)

A major airport

[1 Marks]
Question 7.

Answer any five questions out of the following :

(1)

Name the area of nomadic herding in Southern Africa.

[1 Marks]

(2)

Name a major sea port located in South-eastern part of Australia.

[1 Marks]

(3)

Name a major airport in Mexico.

[1 Marks]

(4)

Name an area of extensive commercial grain farming of SouthAmerica.

[1 Marks]

(5)

Name the major international airport of Japan.

[2 Marks]

(6)

Name the inland waterway of Egypt.

[1 Marks]

(7)

Name the terminal station of the western end of Trans-SiberianRailway.

[1 Marks]

Section B

Question 8.

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A): Industries based on cheap, bulky and weight-losing material are located close to the sources of raw materials.

Reason (R): It is followed to reduce the cost of products.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (B) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
  • (C) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (D) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
Question 9.

Read the following statements related to 'gathering' carefully and choose the correct option.

I. Generally gathering is practised in the regions with harsh climatic conditions.

II. In modern times, some gathering is market-oriented.

III. Denmark is a classical example Of gathering activities.

IV. Gathering is practised mostly by primitive societies.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) I, II and IV are correct.
  • (B) I, III and IV are correct.
  • (C) I, II and III are correct.
  • (D) II, III and IV are correct.
Question 10.

Choose the correct statement related to 'retail trading.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) It is concerned with the sale of goods directly to the consumers.
  • (B) Retail traders primarily direct the goods to be manufactured to their specifications.
  • (C) It takes place in urban centres only.
  • (D) Retail traders are the collection and distribution centres.
Question 11.

Which one of the following waterways uses the 'Panama Canal' ?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Between San Francisco and New York
  • (B) Between London and Aden
  • (C) Between Yokohama and Vancouver
  • (D) Between Auckland and Honolulu
Question 12.

The ports specialized in bulk cargo are called:

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Comprehensive Ports
  • (B) Inland Ports
  • (C) Out Ports
  • (D) Industrial Ports
Question 13.

Arrange the following states from the highest to the lowest order according to their production of Bauxite and choose the correct option.

I. Odisha

II. Gujarat

III. Chhattisgarh

IV. Madhya Pradesh

[1 Marks]
  • (A) IV, I, III, II
  • (B) III, IV, II, I
  • (C) III, II, I, IV
  • (D) I, III, II, IV
Question 14.

Choose the correct group of states utilizing their groundwater resource moderately.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Uttar Pradesh, Haryana, Rajasthan
  • (B) Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand
  • (C) Gujarat, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar
  • (D) Chhattisgarh, Kerala, Punjab
Question 15.

The world's longest highway tunnel, Atal Tunnel is constructed across which one Of the following ranges Of the Himalayas ?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Zaskar
  • (B) Pir Panjal
  • (C) Ladakh
  • (D) Karakoram
Question 16.

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A): International trade is mutually beneficial to nations.

Reason (R): It helps in getting the needed items from other countries.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (B) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
  • (C) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (D) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
Question 17. Which one of the following is the main polluter of Yamuna water in Delhi?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Flood water spreading
  • (B) Dumping of domestic waste
  • (C) Use of fertilizers
  • (D) Use of pesticides
Question 18. Identify the correct set of water-borne diseases.
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Asthma, Headache and Diarrhoea
  • (B) Intestinal worms, Headache and Blood pressure
  • (C) Hepatitis, Diarrhoea and Intestinal worms
  • (D) Hepatitis, Asthma and Blood pressure
Question 19.

Read the following factors of population migration in India from rural to urban areas carefully and choose the correct option of push factors.

I. Unemployment

II. Job opportunities

III. Economic backwardness

IV. Lack Of medical facilities

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Only I, III and IV are correct.
  • (B) Only I, II and III are correct.
  • (C) Only II, III and IV are correct.
  • (D) Only I, II and IV are correct.
Question 20.

The pressure on agricultural land increases not only due to the limited availability but also by deterioration of. In the context of this statement read the following reasons carefully and choose the correct option.

I. Soil erosion and waterlogging.

II. Salinisation and alkalinisation Of soil.

III. Rich land fertility and multiple cropping.

IV. Decline in land productivity.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Only I, III and IV are correct.
  • (B) Only I, II and IV are correct.
  • (C) Only II, III and IV are correct.
  • (D) Only I, II and III are correct.
Question 21.

Choose an objective of the Namami Gange Programme from the following:

[1 Marks]
  • (A) To develop the network of canals
  • (B) To monitor industrial effluents
  • (C) To construct dams for water management
  • (D) To develop 'Ganga Grams' in Assam
Question 22.

The maximum number of countries given in the table belong to which one of the following continents?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) South America
  • (B) Europe
  • (C) North America
  • (D) Asia
Question 23.

Arrange the following countries from low to high order of Human Development Index value and choose the correct option.

I. Singapore

II. Germany

III. Mexico

IV. Israel

[1 Marks]
  • (A) III, IV, I, II
  • (B) III, IV, II, I
  • (C) IV, III, I, II
  • (D) IV, III, II, I
Question 24.

Choose the correctly matched pair.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Mexico - South America
  • (B) Chile - Asia
  • (C) Austria - Europe
  • (D) Cuba - Africa

Section C

Question 25. Examine the concept of naturalisation of humans.
[3 Marks]
Question 26. Examine the humanistic approach of human geography.
[3 Marks]
Question 27. Explain the importance of international trade in modern times.
[3 Marks]
Question 28.

Why does 'solar thermal energy' have greater advantage over 'non-renewable energy' in India ? Explain.

[3 Marks]

Section D

Question 29. Analyse any five factors influencing the distribution of world population.
[5 Marks]
Question 30.

"Rearing of animals in ranches is organized on the scientific basis. Examine the statement.

[5 Marks]
Question 31.

Mixed economies have public, private and joint sector industries. Examine the statement.

[5 Marks]
Question 32.

How does personal communication system enable the user to establish direct contact with the world of knowledge and information ? Analyse.

[5 Marks]
Question 33.

Analyse the changing pattern of imports in India.

[5 Marks]
Question 34.

Define the concept of 'Common Property Resource'. Explain any four characteristics of common property resources in India.

[5 Marks]
Question 35.

Distinguish between 'irrigated' and 'rainfed agriculture' in India

with examples.

[5 Marks]
Question 36.

Spatial variation in population density is found in India. Explain the statement with examples.

[5 Marks]
Question 37.

Population distribution pattern in India is highly uneven. Explain the statement with examples.

[5 Marks]

Paper Details

CBSE Board Exam 2025

Class

CLASS 12-HUMANITIES

Subject

GEOGRAPHY

Year

2025

Set

Set 4

Other Years — GEOGRAPHY

2022 Set-1

2022 Set-2

2022 Set-3

2022 Set-4

2022 Set-5

2023 Set-1

2023 Set-2

2023 Set-3

2023 Set-4

2023 Set-5

2024 Set-1

2024 Set-2

2024 Set-3

2024 Set-4

2024 Set-5

2025 Set-1

2025 Set-2

2025 Set-3

2025 Set-4

2025 Set-5

2025 Set-6