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SOLUTIONS

2025 BOARD EXAM

CBSE CLASS 12-HUMANITIES GEOGRAPHY Board Paper 2025 — Set 5

2025

GEOGRAPHY

CLASS 12-HUMANITIES

CBSE EXAMINATION SOLVED PAPER-2025 GEOGRAPHY

CBSE EXAMINATION PAPER-2025

GEOGRAPHY

(Solved)

Time allowed : 3 hours

Maximum Marks : 76

General Instructions :

Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :

  1. This question paper contains 37 questions. All questions are compulsory.
  2. This question paper is divided into 4 sections.
  3. Section A – questions number 1 to 7 are case based questions
  4. Section B – questions number 8 to 23 are multiple choice questions
  5. Section C – questions number 24 to 28 are short answer
  6. Section D – questions number 29 to 37 are long answer
  7. There is no overall choice given in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions.
  8. Use of calculator is NOT allowed.

Section A

Question 1.

Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Human Development

Access to resources, health and education are the key areas in human development. Suitable indicators have been developed to measure each of these aspects.

Very often, people do not have the capability and freedom to make even basic choices. This may be due to their inability to acquire knowledge, their material poverty, social discrimination, inefficiency of institutions and other reasons. This prevents them from leading healthy lives, being able to get educated or to have the means to live a decent life.

Building people's capabilities in the areas of health, education and access to resources is therefore, important in enlarging their choices. If people do not have capabilities in these areas, their choices also get limited.

For example, an uneducated child cannot make the choice to be a doctor because her choice has got limited by her lack of education. Similarly, very often poor people cannot choose to take medical treatment for disease because their choice is limited by their lack of resources.

(1) Name any two areas of human development.

[1 Marks]
Answer: Two key areas of human development are health and education. Access to health services enables individuals to lead healthier lives, while education is essential for acquiring knowledge and skills, thereby increasing one's capabilities and choices in life.
Key Points: health-education

(2) Explain the condition in which the choices of people are restricted.

[1 Marks]
Answer: Choices of people are often restricted due to a variety of interrelated factors. Primarily, a lack of access to education limits individuals' abilities to acquire knowledge and skills necessary for making informed decisions. For instance, an uneducated child cannot aspire to become a doctor, as education is a prerequisite for entering that profession. Additionally, material poverty severely restricts choices; people who cannot afford medical treatment due to their financial situation cannot make healthy living choices. Social discrimination further exacerbates these issues, as marginalized groups may face barriers in accessing education and resources. Inefficiencies within institutions can also hinder efforts to improve access to health, education, and resources. In summary, without capabilities in health, education, and access to resources, people's choices are significantly limited, trapping them in cycles of poverty and unfulfilled potential.
Key Points: Lack of education limits knowledge acquisition; Material poverty restricts access to resources; Social discrimination hinders opportunities; Institutional inefficiencies affect access to services.

(3) Mention any two reasons which lead to lack of capability and freedom to make even basic choices.

[1 Marks]
Answer: Two significant reasons that lead to a lack of capability and freedom to make basic choices are material poverty and social discrimination. Material poverty restricts individuals' access to essential resources, preventing them from pursuing education or healthcare options. Similarly, social discrimination limits the opportunities available to marginalized groups, further curtailing their ability to make informed choices and improve their circumstances.
Key Points: material poverty-social discrimination
Question 2. Study the given map carefully and answer the questions that follow.

(1) Name the ports marked (A) and (B) on the given map.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The ports marked on the map are significant maritime hubs. Port (A) is New York, which is recognized for its role as a major commercial port on the U.S. East Coast. Port (B) is Liverpool, a key comprehensive port in Western Europe, well-known historically for its connection to trade and shipping.
Key Points: Port A: New York - major commercial port; Port B: Liverpool - comprehensive port; link between U.S. and Western Europe

(2) Explain the economic significance of the river as an inland waterway.

[1 Marks]
Answer: Inland waterways, particularly rivers, play a crucial economic role by facilitating both domestic and international transport and trade. Historically, rivers served as major transportation routes before the rise of railways and have continued to be vital for moving goods, especially in regions where road and rail infrastructure may be less developed. The modification of rivers through dredging, bank stabilization, and the construction of dams has enhanced their navigability, enabling large vessels to transport cargo efficiently. For instance, rivers like the Danube and Rhine have been pivotal in connecting various countries, thereby fostering economic interactions. The ability to transport heavy cargo—such as agricultural products, timber, and machinery—by river significantly reduces costs compared to road transport. Furthermore, the vast inland waterway network in countries like India, which spans approximately 14,500 km, supports local economies by providing an inexpensive and sustainable means of transport. Therefore, rivers as inland waterways represent a vital economic asset for trade and transport, contributing substantially to national and regional economies.
Key Points: Economic transport route-historical significance-adjusted for navigability-cost-effective for cargo trade

(3) Name the waterway given in the map.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The waterway given in the map is the Rhine Waterway. It is one of the important inland waterways in Europe, facilitating navigation and trade. The Rhine River flows through several countries and is crucial for transporting goods across the regions it connects.
Key Points: Rhine Waterway-Important inland waterway-Europe-Transports goods-Navigable river
Question 3.

Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions that follow :

(1)

Explain the reason of high net population increase in stage II of demographic transition theory.

[1 Marks]
Answer: In stage II of the demographic transition theory, high net population increase is primarily attributed to a significant decline in mortality rates while fertility rates remain high. Improvements in sanitation and healthcare contribute to this decline in mortality, resulting in more individuals surviving into adulthood. The gap between high birth rates and low death rates during this stage leads to a substantial net addition to the population. Over time, although fertility rates start to decline, the effects of reduced mortality create a population boom, evidenced by the demographic characteristics of the population at this stage. As societies transition from agrarian to more urban and industrial environments, these demographic changes are commonly observed.
Key Points: High birth rates; low mortality rates; improvements in sanitation and health; significant net population addition; transition from agrarian to urban society

(2)

Differentiate between stage I and III of demographic transition theory.

[1 Marks]
Answer: Stage I of the demographic transition theory is characterized by high birth and death rates, resulting in a stable population with minimal growth. This stage is typically associated with pre-industrial societies that rely on agriculture and have limited access to healthcare and sanitation. In contrast, Stage III experiences a decline in birth rates along with continued low death rates, leading to a more stable or slowly growing population. This stage reflects an urban, literate society that has better healthcare and sanitation, allowing for family size control and lower fertility rates. Overall, Stage I is marked by high fluctuations in population, while Stage III shows stability and gradual growth due to reduced fertility rates.
Key Points: Stage I: high birth and death rates, stable population; Stage III: declining birth rates, low death rates; Stage I: agrarian societies with poor healthcare; Stage III: urbanised, literate societies with family planning; Stage I: population fluctuations; Stage III: population stability.

(3)

Describe the socio-economic conditions of countries under stage III of demographic transition theory.

[1 Marks]
Answer: Countries in stage III of the demographic transition theory exhibit distinct socio-economic characteristics. In this stage, birth rates decline significantly while death rates remain low, leading to a more stable and slowly growing population. This transition typically arises as societies move from agrarian economies to urban and industrialized settings. Education levels, particularly among women, rise as they have greater access to educational opportunities and improved literacy rates. Consequently, families begin to control their family size consciously, opting for smaller units. The economy becomes more diversified, with labor shifting from agriculture to manufacturing and services. Additionally, urbanization increases rapidly, as individuals migrate to cities in search of better employment prospects and living conditions. Overall, stage III countries showcase a higher standard of living, improved healthcare, and greater technological advancements, all contributing to enhanced socio-economic conditions.
Key Points: Declining birth rate - Low death rate - Stable population growth - Urbanization - Increased education and literacy, especially for women - Family size control - Economic diversification - Improved living standards
Question 4.

On the given political outline map of the world , seven geographical features have been marked as A, B, C, D, E, F and G. Identify any five with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them :

(1)

A. An area of extensive commercial grain farming

[1 Marks]
Answer: The area marked as A represents regions of extensive commercial grain farming, notably recognized as the 'American Corn Belt'. This region is characterized by its high productivity and the cultivation of major crops such as corn and soybeans, contributing significantly to global grain supply.
Key Points: American Corn Belt - extensive grain farming - significant crop production - economic power centers

(2)

B. An area of subsistence gathering

[1 Marks]
Answer: The area marked as B on the map represents a region characterized by subsistence gathering. This type of area typically involves communities that rely on the collection of wild resources such as fruits, nuts, and other edible plants, as well as hunting and fishing, for their livelihood. Such regions are often found in forested areas, grasslands, or near water bodies, and they highlight the traditional practices of indigenous populations who maintain their cultural heritage through these subsistence methods.
Key Points: Subsistence gathering involves collection of wild resources-Community reliance on natural resources for food-Populations often maintain traditional cultural practices

(3)

C. A major sea port

[1 Marks]
Answer: C represents the major sea port of Rotterdam. Located in the Netherlands, Rotterdam is one of the largest and busiest ports in the world, serving as a significant gateway for goods entering and leaving Europe through the North Sea.
Key Points: Rotterdam is located in the Netherlands; it is one of the largest ports in the world; it serves as a major gateway for European trade.

(4)

D. A major airport

[1 Marks]
Answer: D, the major airport indicated on the map, could represent a significant airport such as 'Heathrow Airport' in London, which is one of the busiest airports in the world, or 'John F. Kennedy International Airport' in New York. Given its extensive international connections and large passenger traffic, it serves as a central hub for global air travel.
Key Points: Can identify major airports; mention specific examples like Heathrow or JFK; discuss their significance in global air travel.

(5)

E. A major sea port

[1 Marks]
Answer: E is identified as the port of Rotterdam, one of the largest and busiest sea ports in the world, located in the Netherlands. This port serves as a major shipping and logistical hub in Europe, handling a significant amount of container traffic and cargo operations.
Key Points: Identify the port of Rotterdam - significance as a major sea port - located in the Netherlands - handles container traffic

(6)

G. An inland waterway

[1 Marks]
Answer: The correct name for the inland waterway marked as 'G' is the 'Danube Waterway'. It is one of the most significant inland waterways in Europe, flowing through various countries and known for its role in trade and transportation of goods such as wheat and timber.
Key Points: Danube Waterway - navigable inland waterway - serves Eastern Europe - flows from Black Forest - key for transportation of goods

(7)

F. A major area of nomadic herding

[1 Marks]
Answer: The area marked 'F' represents a major region of nomadic herding, which is primarily located in the tundra region of Eurasia, extending from the Atlantic shores of North Africa through the Arabian peninsula into Mongolia and Central China. This region showcases a distinct practice of pastoral nomadism where communities rely on herding of animals such as reindeer.
Key Points: Tundra region of Eurasia-nomadic herding-reliance on reindeer-pastoral nomadism
Question 5.

Answer any five questions out of the following :

(1)

1) Name an area of extensive commercial grain farming in North America

[1 Marks]
Answer: An area of extensive commercial grain farming in North America is the American Prairies, specifically in regions like the Great Plains. This area is known for its large-scale wheat production and mechanised farming practices, which allow for efficient cultivation and harvesting of grains.
Key Points: American Prairies - extensive commercial grain farming area - semi-arid lands - mechanised farming - principal crop wheat

(2)

3) Write the name of a major sea port in northern Europe.

[1 Marks]
Answer: A major sea port in northern Europe is Rotterdam. It is one of the largest and most important ports in the world, facilitating significant commercial shipping and cargo handling.
Key Points: Rotterdam - largest port in Europe - handles general and bulk cargo - key commercial hub

(3)

2) Name a major area of subsistence gathering in Africa.

[1 Marks]
Answer: A major area of subsistence gathering in Africa is in the regions with harsh climatic conditions where primitive societies practice gathering. These areas often include parts of the Central African rainforest and the deserts, where communities rely on foraging both plants and small animals to meet their basic needs for food, shelter, and clothing.
Key Points: Common regions for subsistence gathering in Africa-harsh climatic conditions reliance on natural resources-practice of hunting and gathering

(4)

4) Name a major airport in the southern part of North America.

[1 Marks]
Answer: A major airport in the southern part of North America is Hartsfield-Jackson Atlanta International Airport, located in Atlanta, Georgia. It is one of the busiest airports in the world and serves as a major hub for domestic and international flights.
Key Points: Hartsfield-Jackson Atlanta International Airport- Atlanta, Georgia- busiest airport in North America- major hub for domestic/international flights

(5)

5) Name a major sea port of South Africa.

[1 Marks]
Answer: A major sea port of South Africa is Cape Town. It serves as a crucial point for maritime trade, connecting various international routes and facilitating commerce between South Africa and other regions.
Key Points: Cape Town is a major sea port - important for trade - connects international routes - plays a key role in South African economy

(6)

6) Name a major area of nomadic herding of northern Asia.

[1 Marks]
Answer: A major area of nomadic herding in northern Asia is the tundra region of Eurasia, where reindeer are the most important animals for the nomadic communities.
Key Points: Tundra region of Eurasia-Reindeer as key livestock-Nomadic herding practices

(7)

7) Write the name of an inland waterway of Egypt.

[1 Marks]
Answer: One of the key inland waterways of Egypt is the Suez Canal. This canal is significant as it connects the Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea, serving as a vital passage for international maritime trade.
Key Points: Suez Canal - connects Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea - important for international trade
Question 6.

On the given political outline map of India , locate and label any five of the following seven geographical features with appropriate symbols :

(1)

1) The state leading in the production of cotton

[1 Marks]
Answer: The state leading in the production of cotton in India is Gujarat. Gujarat is known for its extensive cotton cultivation due to favorable climatic conditions and irrigation facilities. It contributes significantly to India's overall cotton production, ranked second globally, after China. Other states involved in cotton production include Maharashtra and Telangana; however, Gujarat remains the foremost in yield and area under cotton cultivation.
Key Points: Gujarat is the leading state in cotton production-India is the second largest producer after China-cotton is grown in three main regions: northwest (Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan), west (Gujarat, Maharashtra), and south (Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu)-irrigation increases yield in the northwest while Maharashtra faces lower yields due to rainfed conditions

(2)

3) Copper mines located in northern part of Jharkhand

[1 Marks]
Answer: To locate the copper mines in the northern part of Jharkhand on the political outline map of India, I will first identify Jharkhand on the map. Then, I will mark the Chhotanagpur Plateau region in this area, which is known for its copper deposits. Appropriate symbols will be used to indicate the locations of the copper mines. This will typically include using a small triangle or a specific symbol designated for minerals. Moreover, I will ensure the location is clearly labeled 'Copper Mines' for better clarity.
Key Points: Jharkhand is located in eastern India - Chhotanagpur plateau is the region with copper deposits - Use appropriate symbols to mark copper mines - Label the location clearly on the map

(3)

2) Iron ore mines located in southern part of Chhattisgarh

[1 Marks]
Answer: The iron ore mines in the southern part of Chhattisgarh can be identified on the political outline map of India by marking the locations of important mines such as Dalli-Rajhara and Bailadila. These mines are represented with appropriate symbols such as a black square or circle to indicate mining areas. Chhattisgarh is part of the important iron ore-producing region of India, strategically located near coal fields, thus supporting the iron and steel industry.
Key Points: Southern Chhattisgarh - Dalli-Rajhara - Bailadila - Iron ore production - Symbols for mines

(4)

6) A sea port built to relieve the pressure of Kolkata sea port

[1 Marks]
Answer: The sea port built to relieve the pressure of Kolkata port is Haldia. It is strategically located on the banks of the Hugli River, approximately 100 km from Kolkata. Haldia serves as a satellite port to Kolkata and helps in handling the overflow of cargo that Kolkata port can no longer manage efficiently. The establishment of Haldia port has been instrumental in facilitating trade and has made the maritime activities in the eastern region of India more efficient. The port is connected to various inland waterways and roads, making it easily accessible for goods transportation.
Key Points: Haldia-Relief to Kolkata port-Strategic location on Hugli river-Satellite port-Cargo handling and trade facilitation

(5)

5) An international airport in Gujarat

[1 Marks]
Answer: The international airport located in Gujarat is the Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel International Airport, situated in Ahmedabad. It serves as a major hub for international flights and connects Gujarat to various countries. On the political map of India, this airport can be marked using the symbol '✈️' representing an airport.
Key Points: Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel International Airport-Location: Ahmedabad-Symbol: ✈️-Importance: Major hub for international flights

(6)

4) A major sea port of Goa

[1 Marks]
Answer: The major sea port of Goa is Marmagao Port. It is located in the southern part of Goa and serves as a vital hub for cargo and shipping activities. The port is well-connected by road and rail and plays a significant role in the economy of the region, facilitating trade and tourism.
Key Points: Marmagao Port is the major port of Goa- located in the southern part of Goa- serves as a hub for cargo and shipping- important for trade and tourism

(7)

7) The state leading in the production of tea

[1 Marks]
Answer: The state leading in the production of tea in India is Assam. Assam is a major tea-growing region that has been the center of tea cultivation since the 1840s. It produces a significant portion of India's total tea output and is one of the largest tea-producing areas in the world, making it a vital contributor to the country's economy.
Key Points: Assam-tea production-history-1840s-major tea-growing region
Question 7.

Answer any five questions out of the following :

(1)

Name the state leading in the production of cotton.

[1 Marks]
Answer: Gujarat is the leading state in the production of cotton in India. It is known for its favorable climatic conditions and extensive irrigation facilities that contribute to high cotton yields. Other significant cotton-producing states include Maharashtra and Telangana, but Gujarat remains at the forefront of cotton production in the country.
Key Points: Gujarat leading producer-cotton favorable climate-high yield- Maharashtra and Telangana also significant

(2)

Name the place where iron ore mines are located in southern part of Chhattisgarh.

[1 Marks]
Answer: In the southern part of Chhattisgarh, one of the notable places where iron ore mines are located is the Bastar region. This area is among the iron-rich zones in the state, benefiting from its proximity to coal fields which enhances the development of iron and steel industries.
Key Points: Southern part of Chhattisgarh-Bastar region-iron ore mines-proximity to coal fields-industrial development

(3)

Name the place where copper mines are located in northern part of Jharkhand.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The copper mines in the northern part of Jharkhand are primarily located in the Singhbhum district. This region is known for its rich deposits of copper, which are essential for various industrial applications such as motors, transformers, and generators.
Key Points: Singhbhum district - location of copper mines in Jharkhand - rich copper deposits - industrial applications

(4)

Write the name of a sea port built to relieve the pressure of Kolkata sea port.

[1 Marks]
Answer: One of the sea ports built to relieve the pressure of Kolkata sea port is Haldia Port. It is located 105 km downstream from Kolkata and was constructed specifically to reduce congestion at the Kolkata port. Haldia Port handles a variety of bulk cargo, including iron ore, coal, and petroleum products.
Key Points: Haldia Port; built to reduce congestion; located 105 km downstream from Kolkata; handles bulk cargo like iron ore, coal, and petroleum products.

(5)

Write the name of the place where a major sea port is located in Goa.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The major sea port located in Goa is Marmagao Port. It is situated at the entrance of the Zuari estuary and has gained significant importance after its remodeling in 1961, particularly for handling iron-ore exports to Japan.
Key Points: Marmagao Port-Natural harbour-Zuari estuary-Remodeled in 1961-Iron-ore exports to Japan

(6)

Name the state leading in tea production.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The state leading in tea production in India is Assam. Assam contributes more than half of the total tea production in the country, accounting for about 53.2 percent of the total cropped area dedicated to tea cultivation. This makes Assam the predominant region for tea production in India.
Key Points: Assam - leading tea producer - accounts for 53.2% of cropped area - contributes more than half of India's tea production

(7)

Name the place where an international airport is located in Gujarat.

[1 Marks]
Answer: One of the prominent places in Gujarat that has an international airport is Ahmedabad. The Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel International Airport, located in Ahmedabad, serves as a major gateway for international travel to and from the state. It is one of the busiest airports in India and provides connections to various domestic and international destinations.
Key Points: Ahmedabad- Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel International Airport- major gateway- busiest airport- international travel

Section B

Question 8. Who among the following considered an increase in freedom of the people as the main objective of human development?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Mahbub-ul-Haq
  • (B) Ehrlich
  • (C) Amartya Sen
  • (D) Meadows
Explanation: Amartya Sen is the correct answer because he identified an increase in freedom (or decrease in unfreedom) as the main objective of development, emphasizing the importance of freedoms in human development.
Question 9.

"The number of people would increase faster than the food supply ." This concept was given by which one Of the following
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Thomas Malthus
  • (B) Brundtland
  • (C) Griffith Taylor
  • (D) Walter Burley Griffin
Explanation: The correct answer is Thomas Malthus. He proposed in his theory (1798) that population growth would outpace food supply, leading to potential crises such as famine, disease, and war if unchecked.
Question 10.

Read the following characteristics of tertiary activities carefully and choose the correct option.

I. It is involved in processing of physical raw materials.

II. It is an output of services.

III. Many of the services are highly specialised.

IV. Electrician, doctor, lawyer, driver are some of its examples.
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Only I, III and IV are correct.
  • (B) Only II, III and IV are correct.
  • (C) Only I, II and III are correct.
  • (D) Only I, II and IV are correct.
Explanation: Only II, III and IV are correct because tertiary activities primarily involve the provision of services rather than the processing of physical raw materials, which is characteristic of secondary activities. The correct points highlight that tertiary activities output services (II), include many specialised services (III), and cite relevant examples (IV). Point I is incorrect as it describes secondary activities.
Question 11.

Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option.
[1 Marks]
  • (A) a ii, b iii, c iv, d i
  • (B) a iii, b ii, c i, d iv
  • (C) a ii, b iii, c i, d iv
  • (D) a iii, b ii, c iv, d i
Explanation: The correct option that matches the columns accurately is 'a ii, b iii, c iv, d i'. This means that the descriptions and terms in Column-I correspond to their definitions or explanations in Column-II. Each item is matched based on the context provided, ensuring each definition aligns with its corresponding concept.
Question 12.

Read the following characteristics of workforce carefully, where work is performed through outsourcing and choose the correct option.

I. Availability of cheap and skilled workers

II. Good English language skill of involved workforce

III. Highly-skilled well-paid professionals

IV. Facility of customer support and call centre services
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Only I, II and IV are correct.
  • (B) Only I, II and III are correct.
  • (C) Only I, III and IV are correct.
  • (D) Only II, III and IV are correct.
Explanation: The correct option is 'Only I, II and IV are correct.' This is because outsourcing generally involves cheap and skilled workers (I), good English language skills (II) which are essential for effective communication in call centers, and a focus on providing customer support and call center services (IV). However, 'III. Highly-skilled well-paid professionals' is not typically associated with the outsourcing context described, as outsourcing often leverages lower-cost labor rather than high-paying professional jobs.
Question 13.

Which one of the following is the disadvantage of 'free trade' for developing countries ?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Goods selling
  • (B) Goods purchasing
  • (C) Goods dumping
  • (D) Goods exchanging
Explanation: Goods dumping is a disadvantage of free trade for developing countries because dumped goods, which are often sold at lower prices, can harm local producers by undercutting their prices. This creates an uneven playing field where domestic industries struggle to compete against cheaper imported goods, leading to negative impacts on the economy.
Question 14.

The successful implementation of watershed management programme in Jhabua district of Madhya Pradesh was funded by which one of the following?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Central Government
  • (B) Madhya Pradesh Government
  • (C) Jhabua District Administration
  • (D) Non-Governmental Organisation
Explanation: The correct answer is 'Central Government' because the context specifies that the watershed management programmes in Jhabua district were funded by both the ministries of 'Rural Development' and 'Agriculture', Government of India. This indicates that the central government played a key role in financing these initiatives.
Question 15. Choose the correct option from the following related to World Trade Organisation (WTO).
[1 Marks]
  • (A) 149 countries were its members as of 2016
  • (B) The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) was its predecessor
  • (C) India became its member in 1984
  • (D) Its headquarters is located in New York
Explanation: The correct option is 'The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) was its predecessor.' This is correct because the context states that GATT was formed in 1948 and later transformed into the WTO in 1995 to promote free and fair trade among nations. Other options provided are incorrect regarding membership numbers, India's membership date, and the location of WTO headquarters.
Question 16.

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A): Lack of basic necessities such as housing, health and drinking water, etc. are found in slum settlements.

Reason (R): The Government of India launched the 'Swachh Bharat

Mission' to improve the quality of life in urban slums.
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (C) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
  • (D) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
Explanation: Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). Assertion (A) is true as slum settlements typically lack basic necessities. Reason (R) is also true as the Swachh Bharat Mission was launched to improve the quality of life in urban slums. However, the reason does not specifically explain why slum settlements lack necessities; rather, it is an initiative aimed at addressing those issues.
Question 17.

Which one of the following plans was introduced to improve the conditions of roads in India?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Nagpur Plan
  • (B) North-South Corridor Plan
  • (C) Golden Quadrilateral Plan
  • (D) Twenty-Year Road Plan
Explanation: The correct answer is the 'Golden Quadrilateral Plan'. This plan involves the construction of a 5,846-km long high-density traffic corridor that connects India's four major metropolitan cities: Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, and Kolkata. The purpose of this plan is to improve road conditions and minimize the time, distance, and cost of movement between these cities, thereby enhancing road infrastructure in India.
Question 18.

Arrange the following towns of India from the oldest to the newest on the basis of their evolution and choose the correct option.

I. Lucknow

II. Varanasi

III. Bhilai

IV. Jamshedpur
[1 Marks]
  • (A) I, IV, III, II
  • (B) II, I, III, IV
  • (C) I, IV, II, III
  • (D) II, I, IV, III
Explanation: The correct order from oldest to newest based on their evolution is Varanasi (II), Lucknow (I), Jamshedpur (IV), and Bhilai (III). Varanasi is one of the oldest towns with a history spanning over 2000 years, recognized as a significant religious and cultural center. Lucknow has a historical presence but is comparatively newer than Varanasi. Jamshedpur was established in the early 20th century (after 1850), making it newer than both Lucknow and Varanasi. Bhilai, an industrial town developed after independence, is even more recent than Jamshedpur.
Question 19. Which one of the following is an industrial town in India?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Salem
  • (B) Chandigarh
  • (C) Shillong
  • (D) Nainital
Explanation: The correct answer is Salem. The relevant context identifies Salem as an industrial town, specifically mentioning that it, along with cities like Mumbai and Coimbatore, constitutes a prime motive force of industrial activity, unlike the other options, which are primarily recognized as administrative towns.
Question 20. Choose the correctly matched pair.
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Garrison - Kandla
  • (B) Mining - Singrauli
  • (C) Transport - Modinagar
  • (D) Administrative - Pilani
Explanation: The correct option is 'Mining - Singrauli'. According to the provided context, mining towns have developed in mineral-rich areas such as Singrauli. The other options do not match correctly with their respective categories.
Question 21.

Relation Between Humans and their Physical Environment You are already aware of the fact that the core concern of geography as a discipline is to understand the earth as home of human beings and to study all those elements, which have sustained them. Thus, emphasis is on study of nature and human beings. You will realise that geography got subjected to dualism and the wide-ranging debates started whether geography as a discipline should be a law making/theorising (nomothetic) or descriptive (idiographic). Human beings interact with their physical environment with the help of technology. It is not important what human beings produce and create but it is extremely important 'with the help Of what tools and techniques do they produce and create'.

Technology indicates the level of cultural development of society. Human beings were able to develop technology after they developed better understanding of natural laws.

Q.15 To understand the earth surface in geography, which one of the following is inseparable ?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Regional and Systematic
  • (B) Regional and Systematic
  • (C) Determinism and Possibilism
  • (D) Nature and Human
  • (E) Possibilism and Neo-determinism
  • (F) Nature and Human
  • (G) Possibilism and Neo-determinism
  • (H) Determinism and Possibilism
Explanation:

The correct option is 'Nature and Human' because the context emphasizes the integrated study of the physical environment and human activities. It states that human beings are an integral part of nature and that their interactions shape both the environment and cultural development. Therefore, understanding geography requires an inseparable relationship between 'Nature and Human'.

Question 22.

Relation Between Humans and their Physical Environment You are already aware of the fact that the core concern of geography as a discipline is to understand the earth as home of human beings and to study all those elements, which have sustained them. Thus, emphasis is on study of nature and human beings. You will realise that geography got subjected to dualism and the wide-ranging debates started whether geography as a discipline should be a law making/theorising (nomothetic) or descriptive (idiographic). Human beings interact with their physical environment with the help of technology. It is not important what human beings produce and create but it is extremely important 'with the help Of what tools and techniques do they produce and create'. Technology indicates the level of cultural development of society. Human beings were able to develop technology after they developed better understanding of natural laws.

Q 16. The core concern of geography as a discipline is which one of the following ? Choose the most appropriate option.
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Earth as home of plant kingdom
  • (B) Earth as home of landforms
  • (C) Earth as home of animal world
  • (D) Earth as home of human beings
Explanation:

The correct option is 'Earth as home of human beings' because the context explicitly states that the core concern of geography is to understand the earth as the home of human beings and to study all elements that sustain them. This highlights the relationship between human beings and their physical environment.

Question 23.

Relation Between Humans and their Physical Environment You are already aware of the fact that the core concern of geography as a discipline is to understand the earth as home of human beings and to study all those elements, which have sustained them. Thus, emphasis is on study of nature and human beings. You will realise that geography got subjected to dualism and the wide-ranging debates started whether geography as a discipline should be a law making/theorising (nomothetic) or descriptive (idiographic). Human beings interact with their physical environment with the help of technology. It is not important what human beings produce and create but it is extremely important 'with the help Of what tools and techniques do they produce and create'. Technology indicates the level of cultural development of society. Human beings were able to develop technology after they developed better understanding of natural laws.

Q 17. Which one of the following helped human beings to develop high order of technology ? Choose the most appropriate option.
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Better understanding of natural laws
  • (B) Invention of fire
  • (C) Invention of wheel
  • (D) Better interaction with nature by advanced technology
Explanation:

The correct option is 'Better understanding of natural laws' because the context emphasizes that human beings developed technology after they gained a better understanding of natural laws. This understanding was crucial for the advancement of technology, which is integral to cultural development and the interaction between humans and their physical environment.

Section C

Question 24.

Suggest the measures to overcome the problem of water pollution in India.
[3 Marks]
Answer: To address water pollution in India, several measures need to be implemented effectively. First, there should be strict enforcement of laws and policies to prevent industrial discharge into water bodies. Awareness campaigns utilizing social media, TV, and print can educate the public about the impacts of pollution. Promoting watershed development, rainwater harvesting, and water recycling would enhance water quality and availability. Additionally, initiatives like the Namami Gange Programme aim to rejuvenate polluted rivers through cleanup efforts and community involvement. Through these combined strategies, the battle against water pollution can be significantly strengthened.
Question 25.

Explain the main features Of the 'Bharatmala Project' for road Connectivity.
[3 Marks]
Answer: The Bharatmala Project is a comprehensive initiative aimed at enhancing road connectivity across India. It focuses on the development of state roads along coastal and border areas, improving access to non-major ports. Key features include the connectivity program for backward areas and religious tourist locations, the Setubharatam Pariyojana, which plans to construct about 1,500 major bridges and 200 rail over and under bridges. Additionally, Bharatmala emphasizes the District Headquarters connectivity scheme, targeting the development of approximately 9,000 km of newly declared National Highways, and incorporates the Golden Quadrilateral and North-South/East-West corridors to boost intercity travel efficiency.
Question 26.

Explain the main characteristics of demographic transition theory.
[3 Marks]
Answer: Demographic Transition Theory (DTT) outlines the transition of a population from high birth and death rates to low birth and death rates as it develops. This process occurs in four stages: 1) pre-transition with high rates, 2) mortality decline with rising births, 3) population growth as death rates drop significantly, and 4) post-transition where both rates stabilize at low levels. Modern societies, characterized by urbanization and literacy, emphasize family planning, contributing to reduced fertility rates. As different countries experience these stages variably, DTT serves as a valuable tool for understanding population dynamics and predicting future growth.
Question 27.

Explain the main characteristics of Kolkata sea port and its hinterland.
[3 Marks]
Answer: Kolkata Port, situated on the Hugli River and 128 km from the Bay of Bengal, is one of the oldest ports in India, developed during the British era. It has faced significant challenges, such as silt accumulation in the Hugli River, which affects its accessibility. The port serves as a crucial link to several states, including Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Sikkim, and the northeastern states. Additionally, it extends its services to landlocked countries like Nepal and Bhutan, enhancing regional trade. Due to competition from other ports like Vishakhapatnam and Paradip, Kolkata’s significance has declined, prompting the establishment of Haldia Port to alleviate congestion.
Question 28.

Explain the main characteristics of Mumbai sea port and its hinterland.
[3 Marks]
Answer: Mumbai Sea Port, the largest port in India, is strategically located near key international shipping routes from regions including the Middle East and North Africa. It features a natural harbor that is approximately 20 km long and 6-10 km wide, boasting 54 berths and the country's largest oil terminal. Its hinterland is expansive, covering parts of Maharashtra, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, and Rajasthan, although the boundaries of this hinterland can overlap with those of other ports, such as Jawaharlal Nehru Port at Nhava Sheva, which functions as a satellite port designed to alleviate congestion at the Mumbai port. This makes Mumbai an integral hub for trade and commerce in India, serving as the main conduit for overseas trade.

Section D

Question 29. Explain any five problems faced by the agricultural sector in India.
[5 Marks]
Answer: The agricultural sector in India faces numerous challenges that hinder its growth and development, stemming from both physical and institutional constraints. Firstly, land degradation and fragmentation are significant problems, as overexploitation and urbanization reduce arable land availability. Secondly, water scarcity, exacerbated by erratic rainfall and poor irrigation facilities, affects crop production. Thirdly, underemployment is prevalent, especially in unirrigated regions, leading to seasonal unemployment and insufficient labor opportunities. Fourthly, lack of commercialisation restricts many farmers to subsistence farming, failing to generate sufficient income. Lastly, weak institutional support, including inadequate access to credit and technology, further impedes agricultural productivity. These problems collectively reflect the urgent need for sustainable agricultural policies to ensure food security and enhance the livelihood of millions dependent on agriculture.
Question 30. Analyse the main features of plantation agriculture in the world.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Plantation agriculture is characterized by large-scale production of specific crops, primarily in tropical regions. It involves extensive landholding known as estates, where single crop specialization is the norm. Key features include significant capital investment and scientific cultivation methods that enhance productivity. Additionally, plantation agriculture relies on cheap labor and efficient transportation systems for the export of goods. Historically, it was established by European colonizers seeking profit, which has shaped economies in many tropical countries. Important crops include tea, coffee, cocoa, and rubber, among others. The model is often likened to factory production due to its methodical approach, making it a staple in global agriculture.
Question 31. Analyse the main features of nomadic herding in the world.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Nomadic herding, also known as pastoral nomadism, is a subsistence lifestyle where communities rely on livestock for their primary needs, including food, clothing, shelter, and transport. This practice is characterized by the seasonal movement of herders and their animals to find adequate pastures and water sources. Different regions practice nomadic herding based on their environmental conditions. For instance, in tropical Africa, cattle are key livestock, while sheep, goats, and camels thrive in the Sahara and desert areas. Communities such as the Gujjars and Bakarwals in the Himalayas practice transhumance, moving between the plains and mountains according to seasonal changes. Furthermore, nomadic herding is prominent in areas like Mongolia and Central China, the tundra region of Eurasia, and also the Arctic where reindeer herding prevails. This lifestyle is deeply rooted in tradition, as each community maintains its territory and practices, and the number of pastoral nomads has been declining due to modernization and environmental changes, threatening the survival of this unique way of life.
Question 32. Explain the classification of industries on the basis of raw materials with examples.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Industries can be classified based on the raw materials used to produce goods. One category is agro-based industries, which rely on agricultural products, such as sugar and cotton industries. Another classification is mineral-based industries that utilize minerals; for instance, the iron and steel industries, which use ferrous minerals, or the cement industry, which employs non-metallic minerals. Chemical-based industries use various chemicals as inputs, like the petrochemical industry that relies on petroleum, while the forest-based industries focus on wood products, such as timber and paper. Lastly, animal-based industries involve products derived from animal sources, like dairy or leather industries. Each of these industries plays a vital role in the economy, contributing to different sectors and employment opportunities.
Question 33. Explain the main objectives of Jal Kranti Abhiyan in India.
[5 Marks]
Answer: The Jal Kranti Abhiyan, launched in 2015-16 by the Government of India, aims primarily at ensuring water security across the nation. One major objective is to involve local bodies, NGOs, and citizens in raising awareness about water conservation. The initiative focuses on creating Jal Grams in water-stressed villages, identifying model command areas to enhance water management, and promoting sustainable practices. Another key aspect is pollution abatement in water bodies. The campaign also emphasizes the utilization of mass media for awareness, thereby encouraging community participation in achieving overall water security, which significantly impacts food and livelihood security.
Question 34. Explain the different methods of rainwater harvesting in India.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Rainwater harvesting in India incorporates various traditional and modern methods aimed at capturing and utilizing rainwater effectively. One method involves watershed management, where rainwater is collected in natural or artificial reservoirs, enhancing groundwater recharge. Another method utilizes lakes (known as Eris), which serve as effective storage for harvested rainwater. Recharge wells are also popular, designed to direct rainwater into aquifers directly, promoting groundwater replenishment. Services wells, found in coastal areas, can also be used for aquifer recharge. In rural regions, particularly in Rajasthan, structures like Kund or Tanka are built to store water, representing local adaptations of rainwater harvesting. Overall, these methods help conserve water resources, reduce dependency on groundwater, and ensure sustainable water availability for communities.
Question 35. Analyse the regional variation in population growth in India.
[5 Marks]
Answer: The population growth in India from 1991 to 2001 reveals significant regional variations across different states and union territories. States like Kerala, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu exhibited low growth rates, with Kerala having the lowest at 9.4%. In contrast, states with higher growth rates were typically those experiencing urbanization and economic growth. Urban areas, which constituted only 31.16% of the population, have seen faster growth due to improvements in health, hygiene, and economic opportunities. Furthermore, migration patterns also influenced regional population changes, with many rural individuals moving to urban areas for better prospects. Social factors, such as education and healthcare access, further contributed to these disparities in growth rates. Examining the data from 2001 to 2011 would show whether these trends continued or shifted, revealing the dynamic nature of India's demographic landscape.
Question 36. Analyse any five factors responsible for uneven population distribution in India.
[5 Marks]
Answer: India's population distribution is notably uneven due to several interrelated factors. Firstly, physical geography plays a crucial role; regions with fertile soil and favorable climate, such as the Gangetic plains, attract denser populations, while arid areas, like the Thar Desert, have sparse populations. Secondly, socio-economic factors contribute significantly; urban areas provide better job opportunities and amenities, resulting in migration from rural to urban settings. Thirdly, historical factors like colonial settlement patterns have influenced regional development, leading to population concentration in developed areas. Additionally, political stability and infrastructure development attract populations; states with better governance and transport facilities, such as Maharashtra and Gujarat, experience growth. Finally, cultural factors such as religious sentiments and social structures lead to population clustering in specific regions, as seen in areas with significant religious significance. Each of these factors intertwines, resulting in the complex demographic landscape of India.
Question 37.

Industries maximise profits by reducing costs. Explain the statement with examples.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Industries seek to maximize profits by minimizing production costs, which can be achieved through strategic location choices. For instance, a cement factory often locates near limestone quarries to reduce transportation costs associated with raw materials. Similarly, dairy processing plants are situated close to milk supply sources to preserve freshness and minimize logistics expenses. By situating industries closer to raw material sources, labor supply, and markets, businesses can efficiently manage their operation, maintain low overhead costs, and efficiently respond to consumer demands. Moreover, industries employing mass production techniques can scale efficiently, as seen in the electronics sector, where factories benefit from specialized labor skilled in repetitive tasks, further driving down costs. Hence, the strategic location and efficient production methods not only enhance profitability but also foster sustainable industrial practices.

Paper Details

CBSE Board Exam 2025

Class

CLASS 12-HUMANITIES

Subject

GEOGRAPHY

Year

2025

Set

Set 5

Other Years — GEOGRAPHY

2022 Set-1

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2022 Set-2

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2022 Set-3

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2022 Set-4

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2022 Set-5

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2023 Set-1

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2023 Set-2

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2023 Set-3

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2023 Set-4

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2023 Set-5

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2024 Set-1

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2024 Set-2

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2024 Set-3

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2024 Set-4

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2024 Set-5

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2025 Set-1

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2025 Set-2

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2025 Set-3

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2025 Set-4

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2025 Set-5

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2025 Set-6

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