geography/
previous-year-question-paper-2025-set-2

QUESTION PAPER

2025 BOARD EXAM

CBSE CLASS 12-HUMANITIES GEOGRAPHY Board Paper 2025 — Set 2

2025

GEOGRAPHY

CLASS 12-HUMANITIES

CBSE EXAMINATION PAPER-2025 GEOGRAPHY

CBSE EXAMINATION PAPER-2025

GEOGRAPHY

(Solved)

Time allowed : 3 hours

Maximum Marks : 74

General Instructions :

Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :

  1. This question paper contains 38 questions. All questions are compulsory.
  2. This question paper is divided into 4 sections.
  3. Section A – questions number 1 to 8 are case based questions
  4. Section B – questions number 9 to 25 are multiple choice questions
  5. Section C – questions number 26 to 29 are short answer
  6. Section D – questions number 30 to 38 are long answer
  7. There is no overall choice given in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions.
  8. Use of calculator is NOT allowed.

Section A

Question 1.

Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Hunting and Food Gathering. The earliest human beings depended on their immediate environment for their sustenance. They subsisted on: (a) animals which they hunted; and (b) the edible plants which they gathered from forests in the vicinity. Primitive societies depended on wild animals. People located in very cold and extremely hot climates survived on hunting. The people in the coastal areas still catch fish though fishing has experienced modernisation due to technological development. Many species have now become extinct or endangered due to illegal hunting (poaching). The early hunters used primitive tools made of stones, twigs, or arrows so the number of animals killed was limited. Gathering and hunting are the oldest economic activity known. These are carried out at different levels with different orientations. Gathering is practised in regions with harsh climatic conditions. It Often involves primitive societies, who extract, both plants and animals to satisfy their needs for shelter and clothing. This type Of activity requires a small amount of capital investment and operates at very low level of technology. The yield per person is very low and little or no surplus is produced.

(1)

Examine the impact of poaching on wild animals.

[1 Marks]

(2)

Why was hunting of animals limited in early times ? Explain.

[1 Marks]

(3)

Why did early man depend upon his immediate natural

environment ? Explain.

[1 Marks]
Question 2.

Study the following table carefully and answer the questions that follow :

(1)

Mention the reason for the decrease in cultivable waste land in 2014-15 as compared to 1950-51.

[1 Marks]

(2)

Mention the reason for the increase in current fallow during 2014-15 as compared to 1950-51.

[1 Marks]

(3)

Explain the reason of increase in net area sown.

[1 Marks]
Question 3.

Study the map of Rhine waterways and answer the questions that follow

(1)

Name the country in which most of Rhine river lies.

[1 Marks]

(2)

Why is river Rhine world's most heavily used waterway ?

[1 Marks]

(3)

Name two countries whose industrial areas are connected by river

Rhine.

[1 Marks]
Question 4.

The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Questions :

(1)

Mention the name of the country from where the Rhine waterway begins in the upstream.

[1 Marks]

(2)

Name the major sea port where river Rhine falls into North Sea.

[1 Marks]

(3)

Explain the significance of river Rhine as a water highway of commerce.

[1 Marks]
Question 5.

On the outline political map of the world, seven geographical features have been marked as A, B, C, D, E, F and G. Identify any FIVE of them and write their names on the lines drawn near them :

(1)

A. Major sea port in Germany.

[1 Marks]

(2)

B. Terminal station of Trans-Siberian Railway.

[1 Marks]

(3)

F. An area of 'Nomadic Herding'.

[1 Marks]

(4)

E. An important waterway.

[1 Marks]

(5)

D. An area of subsistence gathering.

[1 Marks]

(6)

C. An international airport.

[1 Marks]

(7)

G. An area of extensive commercial grain farming

[1 Marks]
Question 6.

Note : Answer any five

(1)

Name the major seaport in Germany.

[1 Marks]

(2)

Mention an international airport in South Africa.

[1 Marks]

(3)

Name the easternmost terminal station of Trans-Siberian Railway.

[1 Marks]

(4)

Mention an area of subsistence gathering in Canada.

[1 Marks]

(5)

Name an important waterway of Egypt.

[1 Marks]

(6)

Mention an area of nomadic herding in Africa.

[1 Marks]

(7)

Mention an area of extensive commercial grain farming of

Australia.

[1 Marks]
Question 7.

On the given political outline map of India, locate and label any five of

the following geographical features with appropriate symbols.

(1)

Important iron ore mines in Odisha.

[1 Marks]

(2)

An important seaport in Kerala.

[1 Marks]

(3)

A copper mine in Rajasthan.

[1 Marks]

(4)

An oil refinery in Bihar.

[1 Marks]

(5)

A state with highest density of population.

[1 Marks]

(6)

An international airport in Punjab.

[1 Marks]

(7)

A state leading in the production of jute.

[1 Marks]
Question 8.

Attempt any five :

(1)

Name an important iron ore mining area in Odisha.

[1 Marks]

(2)

Name the maln sea port of Kerala.

[1 Marks]

(3)

Name the place of an oil refinery in Bihar.

[1 Marks]

(4)

Mention the name of a copper mining area of Rajasthan.

[1 Marks]

(5)

Mention the name of a place where an international airport is

located in Punjab.

[1 Marks]

(6)

Name the state with highest density of population.

[1 Marks]

(7)

Which is the leading state in the production of jute ?

[1 Marks]

Section B

Question 9. “Human geography is the synthetic study of relationship between human societies and earth's surface.” This definition of human geography is given by
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Vidal-de-la-Blache
  • (B) Richard Hartshorne
  • (C) Paul Vidal
  • (D) Ritter
Question 10.

Which one of the following is the core concern of geography as a discipline?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) To understand the relationship between resource distribution and its utilisation.
  • (B) To understand the earth as the home of natural resources and their estimation.
  • (C) To understand the earth as the home of human beings and its sustainability.
  • (D) To understand population distribution and the factors affecting the
Question 11. The concept of ‘Neodeterminism’ was introduced by
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Ehrlich
  • (B) C. Semple
  • (C) Humboldt
  • (D) Griffith Taylor
Question 12.

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option:

Assertion (A): World Trade Organisation (WTO) is widening the gulf between rich and poor by making rich countries richer.

Reason (R): ‘The influential nations in the WTO focus on their own commercial interests.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (C) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
  • (D) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
Question 13.

Choose the correct option to fill the blank:

The act of opening up economies for trading is known as

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Balanced trade
  • (B) Bilateral trade
  • (C) Unilateral trade
  • (D) Free trade
Question 14.

Arrange the following towns of India from the oldest to the newest order based on their historical evolution and choose the correct option:

(i) Jaipur

(ii) Chandigarh

(iii) Madurai

(iv) Jamshedpur

[1 Marks]
  • (A) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
  • (B) (iii), (i), (iv), (ii)
  • (C) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
  • (D) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
Question 15.

Read the following statements related to the objectives of smart city mission carefully and choose the correct option:

(i) To promote the city with clean and sustainable environment.

(ii) To provide decent quality of life to its citizens.

(iii) To provide employment to the job seekers.

(iv) To make the city less vulnerable to disasters.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Only (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
  • (B) Only (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
  • (C) Only (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct.
  • (D) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
Question 16. Local names like Panna, Para, Palli, Nagla, Dhani etc. are examples of which of the following types of rural settlements in India?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Semi-clustered settlement
  • (B) Hamleted settlement
  • (C) Dispersed settlement
  • (D) Clustered settlement
Question 17.

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R).

Read both the statements carefully and the correct option :

Assertion (A) : The agriculturally rich states of Punjab, Haryana and western Uttar Pradesh are facing the crisis of groundwater depletion.'

Reason (R) : 'More groundwater is utilised for irrigation than water- table recharge.'

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct reason of (A).
  • (B) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct.
  • (C) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct reason of (A).
  • (D) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct.
Question 18.

Read the following statements related to Indira Gandhi Canal Project carefully and the correct option :

(i) Indira Gandhi Canal project was conceived by Kanwar Sain in 1950 and it was launched in 1961.

(ii) Introduction of canal irrigation has brought perceptible changes in the agricultural economy of the command area.

(iii) Spread of canal irrigation has led to increase in cultivated area and crop intensity.

(iv) Traditional crops of jowar, bajra has been replaced by and wheat

[1 Marks]
  • (A) (i), (iii) and (iv) only are correct.
  • (B) (i) , (ii) and (iii) only are correct.
  • (C) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only are correct.
  • (D) (i), (ii) and (iv) only are correct.
Question 19.

Read the following statements related to international trade of India carefully and choose the correct option :

(i) India has a long coastline surrounded by ocean from three sides.

(ii) Indian coasts have large number of well-developed sea ports.

(iii) Kandla port exports huge amount of iron-ore.

(iv) The transportation cost by water is very cheap for voluminous items.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Only (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
  • (B) Only (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
  • (C) Only (i), (iii) an d (iv) are correct
  • (D) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
Question 20.

Why is it that slums are the areas of residence with least choice ? Choose the correct options

(i) They have dilapidated houses with poor ventilation.

(ii) The basic facilities like lights and toilets are difficult to get.

(iii) Hygienic conditions and drinking water are improper.

(iv) Better drainage facilities are available.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Only (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
  • (B) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
  • (C) Only (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct.
  • (D) Only (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
Question 21. The watershed management programme in Jhabua district of Madhya Pradesh is funded by which one of the following ministries?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Environment
  • (B) Rural Development
  • (C) Transport
  • (D) Irrigation
Question 22.

Under which one of the following category of commodities, increase in export is continuously observed?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Manufactured goods
  • (B) Other commodities
  • (C) Agriculture and allied products
  • (D) Ore and minerals
Question 23.

Under which one of the following category of commodities, maximum decline in export is recorded from 2015-16 to 2016-17?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Other commodities
  • (B) Agriculture and allied products
  • (C) Ore and minerals
  • (D) Crude and petroleum products
Question 24.

Under which one of the following categories of commodities, the increase in export is observed from 2010-11 to 2016-17?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Other commodities
  • (B) Ore and minerals
  • (C) Crude and petroleum products
  • (D) Agriculture and allied products
Question 25.

Read the following statements about ports carefully and choose the correct option:

(i) The ports provide the facilities of loading, unloading and storage of cargo.

(ii) The importance of ports is judged by the size of its hinterland.

(iii) The quantity of cargo handled by a port indicates the level of development of its hinterland.

(iv) Ports are the chief gateways of the world trade.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) only (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
  • (B) only (1), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
  • (C) only (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
  • (D) only (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct.

Section C

Question 26.

Examine the role of climate, water availability and soil fertility on the distribution of world population.

[3 Marks]
Question 27.

Examine three stages of demographic transition theory

[3 Marks]
Question 28.

Explain the main characteristics of rural roads in India.

[3 Marks]
Question 29.

Suggest the measures to achieve the objectives of 'Namami Gange Programme'.

[3 Marks]

Section D

Question 30. Explain the concept of ‘human development. Examine four approaches to human development.
[5 Marks]
Question 31. Explain the main features of large scale manufacturing industries in the world.
[5 Marks]
Question 32. Explain the main features of 'High Tech' industries in the world.
[5 Marks]
Question 33. Assess the growth and significance of the service sector in the development of the world economy.
[5 Marks]
Question 34. Assess the growth and significance of transport and communication services in the world economy.
[5 Marks]
Question 35. Analyse the rural-urban characteristics of Indian population.
[5 Marks]
Question 36. Analyse the main features of the composition of working population in India.
[5 Marks]
Question 37. Petroleum is an essential source of energy and many byproducts are associated with its refining. Explain this statement with examples.
[5 Marks]
Question 38. The generation of energy through non-conventional sources is the need of the hour for sustainable development. Explain the statement with examples.
[5 Marks]

Paper Details

CBSE Board Exam 2025

Class

CLASS 12-HUMANITIES

Subject

GEOGRAPHY

Year

2025

Set

Set 2

Other Years — GEOGRAPHY

2022 Set-1

2022 Set-2

2022 Set-3

2022 Set-4

2022 Set-5

2023 Set-1

2023 Set-2

2023 Set-3

2023 Set-4

2023 Set-5

2024 Set-1

2024 Set-2

2024 Set-3

2024 Set-4

2024 Set-5

2025 Set-1

2025 Set-2

2025 Set-3

2025 Set-4

2025 Set-5

2025 Set-6