geography/
previous-year-question-paper-2025-set-3

QUESTION PAPER

2025 BOARD EXAM

CBSE CLASS 12-HUMANITIES GEOGRAPHY Board Paper 2025 — Set 3

2025

GEOGRAPHY

CLASS 12-HUMANITIES

CBSE EXAMINATION PAPER-2025 GEOGRAPHY

CBSE EXAMINATION PAPER-2025

GEOGRAPHY

(Solved)

Time allowed : 3 hours

Maximum Marks : 75

General Instructions :

Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :

  1. This question paper contains 39 questions. All questions are compulsory.
  2. This question paper is divided into 4 sections.
  3. Section A – questions number 1 to 8 are case based questions
  4. Section B – questions number 9 to 26 are multiple choice questions
  5. Section C – questions number 27 to 30 are short answer
  6. Section D – questions number 31 to 39 are long answer
  7. There is no overall choice given in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions.
  8. Use of calculator is NOT allowed.

Section A

Question 1.

Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:

In agriculturally important countries, agro products are exchanged for manufactured goods, whereas industrialised nations export machinery and finished products and import food grains and other raw materials. Foreign investment can boost trade in developing countries which lack in capital required for the development of mining, oil drilling, heavy engineering, lumbering and plantation agriculture. By developing such capital intensive industries in developing countries, the industrial nations ensure import of food stuffs, minerals and create markets for their finished products. This entire cycle steps up the volume of trade between nations.

(1) What types of items are exported by the industrialised nations?

[1 Marks]

(2) Mention the way by which trade could be boosted in developing countries.

[1 Marks]

(3) Finished products of industrialised nations find the market in which types of countries?

[1 Marks]
Question 2. Study the map of the Rhine waterway and answer the questions that follow:

(1) Identify both the terminal ports of the Rhine waterway.

[1 Marks]

(2) On the map, which river joins the Rhine waterway from the east?

[1 Marks]

(3) Identify any two countries through which the Rhine waterway passes.

[1 Marks]
Question 3.

Answer the following questions.

(1)

Name both the terminal ports of the Rhine waterway.

[1 Marks]

(2)

Name any two countries through which the Rhine waterway passes.

[1 Marks]

(3)

Write the name of any one tributary which joins the Rhine waterway from the east.

[1 Marks]
Question 4.

Study the following table carefully and answer the questions that

follow :

(1)

In which decade is the maximum increase in number of

towns/UAs observed ?

[1 Marks]

(2)

Describe the trend of urbanisation in India.

[1 Marks]

(3)

The lowest increase in the percentage of total urban population is recorded in which decade ?

[1 Marks]
Question 5.

On the given political outline map of the world , seven geographical features have been marked as A, B, C, D, E, F and Identify any five with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them.

(1)

A. A major sea port

[1 Marks]

(2)

E. A major area of extensive commercial grain farming

[1 Marks]

(3)

B. A major airport

[1 Marks]

(4)

F. A major area of commercial livestock rearing

[1 Marks]

(5)

C. A terminal station of a trans-continental railway

[1 Marks]

(6)

D. A major area of nomadic herding

[1 Marks]

(7)

G. A major area of subsistence gathering

[1 Marks]
Question 6.

Answer any five questions out of the following :

(1)

  1. Name any one sea port of North America.

[1 Marks]

(2)

  1. Name the area of extensive commercial grain farming of South Africa.

[1 Marks]

(3)

  1. Name any one area of commercial livestock rearing of Oceania.

[1 Marks]

(4)

  1. Name the area of nomadic herding in the eastern part of Africa.

[1 Marks]

(5)

3. Name the terminal station at the western end of Australian Trans-Continental Railway.

[1 Marks]

(6)

2. Name any one airport of South America.

[1 Marks]

(7)

  1. Name the area of subsistence gathering of Africa.

[1 Marks]
Question 7.

On the given political outline map of India , locate and label any five of the following seven geographical features with appropriate symbols :

(1)

The state leading in the production of wheat

[1 Marks]

(2)

A major sea port of Andhra Pradesh

[1 Marks]

(3)

An oil refinery in Bihar

[1 Marks]

(4)

Important manganese mines located in Karnataka

[1 Marks]

(5)

4) Important coal mines located in West Bengal

[1 Marks]

(6)

An important international airport in Punjab

[1 Marks]

(7)

Important iron ore mines located in Odisha

[1 Marks]
Question 8.

Answer any five questions out of the following :

(1)

1) Name the state leading in wheat production.

[1 Marks]

(2)

3) Name the place where a major sea port is located in Andhra Pradesh.

[1 Marks]

(3)

2) Name the place of the oil refinery located in Bihar.

[1 Marks]

(4)

4) Name the place where important coal mines are located in West Bengal.

[1 Marks]

(5)

5) Name the place where important iron ore mines are located in Odisha.

[1 Marks]

(6)

6) Name the place where important manganese mines are located in Karnataka.

[1 Marks]

(7)

7) Name the place where an international airport is located in Punjab.

[1 Marks]

Section B

Question 9.

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A): Foot loose industries can be located in a wide variety of places.

Reason (R): Location of foot loose industries is determined by transport network accessibility.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (C) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (D) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
Question 10.

Read the following statements related to intensive subsistence agriculture' other than paddy in the world carefully and choose the correct option.

I. Wheat is grown in western parts of the Indo-Gangetic plains in India.

II. Wheat is grown in monsoonal areas only.

III. Millets are grown in dry parts of western and southern India.

IV. Wheat, soya bean etc. are grown in northern China.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Only I, II and III are correct.
  • (B) Only I, III and IV are correct.
  • (C) Only II, III and IV are correct.
  • (D) Only I, II and IV are correct.
Question 11.

Identify the correct option related to transport services from the following.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Roads, railways, television and internet are some of its examples.
  • (B) It comes under the quaternary sector of economic activities.
  • (C) It is concerned with digital sending and receiving of information.
  • (D) It is an organised industry which provides man's basic of physical mobility.
Question 12.

Arrange the following sea ports from Europe to India before the operation of Suez Canal and choose the correct option.

I. Cape Town

II. Mombasa

III. London

IV. Mumbai

[1 Marks]
  • (A) I,III,II,IV
  • (B) I,II,III,IV
  • (C) III,I,II,IV
  • (D) III,II,I,IV
Question 13.

Choose the correctly matched pair of sea ports and their examples.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Ports of Call-Piraeus
  • (B) Out Ports-Duisburg
  • (C) Oil Ports-Tripoli
  • (D) Naval Ports-Kolkata
Question 14. Choose the correct option of group of states of iron ore reserves from high to low.
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Odisha, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh
  • (B) Odisha, Tamil Nadu, Telangana
  • (C) Maharashtra, Jharkhand, Andhra Pradesh
  • (D) Chhattisgarh, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh
Question 15.

Read the following features and identify the crop.

>It is a tropical plantation crop and has three varieties.

>Karnataka alone accounts for more than two-third of its total

production of India.

>It is grown in the highlands of Western Ghats in Karnataka and

Kerala.

Crop:

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Sugarcane
  • (B) Coffee
  • (C) Tea
  • (D) Cotton
Question 16. The objective of Border Roads Organisation is :
[1 Marks]
  • (A) To construct roads in high altitude mountainous terrains.
  • (B) To construct roads in moderately elevated plateau areas.
  • (C) To construct roads in low lying plain areas.
  • (D) To construct roads in coastal areas for linking ports.
Question 17.

Two statements are given below.

They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A): The significance of Kolkata sea port has declined in the recent times.

Reason (R): Kolkata port is confronted with the problem of silt accumulation in the Hugli river.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
  • (B) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
  • (C) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Question 18.

Which one of the following is not a challenge of adolescent population faced by the society?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Low female literacy
  • (B) Dropouts from school
  • (C) High marriage age
  • (D) Drug abuse and alcoholism
Question 19.

Identify the characteristics of 'Phase-I' of growth in India and

choose the correct option.

I. Stagnant phase of population growth

II. Low or negative net growth of population

III. Rapid fall in the mortality rate

IV. Poor health and medical services

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Only I, III and IV are correct.
  • (B) Only II, III and IV are correct.
  • (C) Only I, II and IV are correct.
  • (D) Only I, II and III are correct.
Question 20.

Which one of the following is incorrectly matched?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Physiological density - Total population/ Net cultivated area
  • (B) Agricultural density - Total agricultural population/ Net cultivable area
  • (C) Population density - Total population/ Total area
  • (D) Marginal worker - Total population/ Total working population
Question 21.

"A very large Of workers are engaged in other services in

highly urbanized areas."

With reference to the given statement choose the correct option.

I. Large scale urbanisation and industrialisation require more

workers.

II.Historically, it is a sectoral shift in the of the country.

III. Percentage of female workers is relatively high in secondary sector.

IV. It is a shift of workers from farm-based to non-farm-based

occupations.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Only II, III and IV are correct.
  • (B) Only I, II and III are correct.
  • (C) Only I, III and IV are correct.
  • (D) Only I, II and IV are correct.
Question 22.

Which one of the following is the characteristic of 'Phase-III' of population growth in India ?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) High female literacy and declining population
  • (B) Improvisation in medical facilities and living conditions
  • (C) Great Economic Depression and effects of World War II
  • (D) Low population growth and low net increase
Question 23.

Which one of the following stages of demographic transition theory is indicative of primitive stage?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Stage I
  • (B) First part of stage II
  • (C) Stage III
  • (D) Second part of stage II
Question 24.

The highest difference between the crude birth rate and crude death rate is observed in which one of the following stages of demographic transition theory?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) End of the first part of stage II
  • (B) End of the second part of stage II
  • (C) End of stage III
  • (D) End of stage I
Question 25.

Net increase in population during third stage of demographic transition theory is low due to which one of the following reasons?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) High birth rate and high death rate
  • (B) High birth rate and low death rate
  • (C) Low birth rate and high death rate
  • (D) Low birth rate and low death rate
Question 26.

Identify the stage of demographic transition theory characterising the primitive society from the following.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Stage I
  • (B) Second part of stage II
  • (C) Stage III
  • (D) First part of stage II

Section C

Question 27.

Human geography is a highly interdisciplinary subject. Analyse the statement.

[3 Marks]
Question 28.

Human geography tries to explain the relationship of human beings with the physical environs of their occupance. Analyse the statement.

[3 Marks]
Question 29.

'Tertiary activities include production and exchange." Explain the statement.

[3 Marks]
Question 30.

Distinguish between metallic and non-metallic minerals with example.

[3 Marks]

Section D

Question 31. Differentiate between growth and development by citing examples.
[5 Marks]
Question 32.

"High-tech industries are regionally concentrated, self-sustained and highly Justify the statement.

[5 Marks]
Question 33.

Market gardening and horticulture specialise in the cultivation Of high value crops. Justify the statement.

[5 Marks]
Question 34.

India's water demand is highly dominated by irrigational needs. Evaluate the statement.

[5 Marks]
Question 35.

In India, water resources are getting polluted with industrial effluents, domestic waste and insecticides used in agriculture. Evaluate the statement.

[5 Marks]
Question 36.

"In India, sea ports have emerged as gateways of international trade." Substantiate the statement.

[5 Marks]
Question 37.

Satellites are mode of communication in themselves as well as they regulate the use of other means of communication. Substantiate the statement.

[5 Marks]
Question 38.

Evaluate the impact of urban waste disposal problem and suggest any two measures to overcome it.

[5 Marks]
Question 39.

Suggest any five measures to solve the problem of land degradation in India.

[5 Marks]

Paper Details

CBSE Board Exam 2025

Class

CLASS 12-HUMANITIES

Subject

GEOGRAPHY

Year

2025

Set

Set 3

Other Years — GEOGRAPHY

2022 Set-1

2022 Set-2

2022 Set-3

2022 Set-4

2022 Set-5

2023 Set-1

2023 Set-2

2023 Set-3

2023 Set-4

2023 Set-5

2024 Set-1

2024 Set-2

2024 Set-3

2024 Set-4

2024 Set-5

2025 Set-1

2025 Set-2

2025 Set-3

2025 Set-4

2025 Set-5

2025 Set-6