geography/
previous-year-question-paper-2025-set-2

SOLUTIONS

2025 BOARD EXAM

CBSE CLASS 12-HUMANITIES GEOGRAPHY Board Paper 2025 — Set 2

2025

GEOGRAPHY

CLASS 12-HUMANITIES

CBSE EXAMINATION SOLVED PAPER-2025 GEOGRAPHY

CBSE EXAMINATION PAPER-2025

GEOGRAPHY

(Solved)

Time allowed : 3 hours

Maximum Marks : 74

General Instructions :

Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :

  1. This question paper contains 38 questions. All questions are compulsory.
  2. This question paper is divided into 4 sections.
  3. Section A – questions number 1 to 8 are case based questions
  4. Section B – questions number 9 to 25 are multiple choice questions
  5. Section C – questions number 26 to 29 are short answer
  6. Section D – questions number 30 to 38 are long answer
  7. There is no overall choice given in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions.
  8. Use of calculator is NOT allowed.

Section A

Question 1.

Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Hunting and Food Gathering. The earliest human beings depended on their immediate environment for their sustenance. They subsisted on: (a) animals which they hunted; and (b) the edible plants which they gathered from forests in the vicinity. Primitive societies depended on wild animals. People located in very cold and extremely hot climates survived on hunting. The people in the coastal areas still catch fish though fishing has experienced modernisation due to technological development. Many species have now become extinct or endangered due to illegal hunting (poaching). The early hunters used primitive tools made of stones, twigs, or arrows so the number of animals killed was limited. Gathering and hunting are the oldest economic activity known. These are carried out at different levels with different orientations. Gathering is practised in regions with harsh climatic conditions. It Often involves primitive societies, who extract, both plants and animals to satisfy their needs for shelter and clothing. This type Of activity requires a small amount of capital investment and operates at very low level of technology. The yield per person is very low and little or no surplus is produced.

(1)

Examine the impact of poaching on wild animals.

[1 Marks]
Answer: Poaching has a significant negative impact on wild animals. It leads to the extinction and endangerment of various species, disrupting local ecosystems. With technological advancements, illegal hunting has increased, resulting in a drastic decline in animal populations and affecting biodiversity.
Key Points: Decline in animal populations-extinction of species-disruption of ecosystems

(2)

Why was hunting of animals limited in early times ? Explain.

[1 Marks]
Answer: Hunting of animals in early times was limited due to the use of primitive tools such as stones, twigs, or arrows, which restricted the number of animals that could be killed. Additionally, early hunters relied on their immediate environment for sustenance, and the small size of hunting parties and their limited technology meant they could not hunt large numbers of animals effectively.
Key Points: Primitive tools used; limited technology; small hunting parties; reliance on immediate environment

(3)

Why did early man depend upon his immediate natural

environment ? Explain.

[1 Marks]
Answer: Early man depended on his immediate natural environment for sustenance as it provided them with necessary resources for survival. They hunted animals for food and gathered edible plants from nearby forests. This reliance was primarily due to their need for immediate food sources and the limited technology available to them, which necessitated using natural resources available in their surroundings.
Key Points: Dependent on the environment for food resources - hunted animals and gathered plants - need for sustenance - limited technology available - relied on immediate surroundings
Question 2.

Study the following table carefully and answer the questions that follow :

(1)

Mention the reason for the decrease in cultivable waste land in 2014-15 as compared to 1950-51.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The decrease in cultivable waste land in 2014-15 compared to 1950-51 is primarily due to increased pressure on land from both agricultural and non-agricultural sectors, leading to the utilization of previously uncultivated waste land for agricultural purposes.
Key Points: increased pressure on land; utilization of culturable wasteland for agriculture; decline due to non-agricultural use

(2)

Mention the reason for the increase in current fallow during 2014-15 as compared to 1950-51.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The increase in current fallow during 2014-15 compared to 1950-51 can be attributed to fluctuations in rainfall and cropping cycles, which caused variations in land use and the amount of land left uncultivated for periods.
Key Points: Fluctuations in rainfall-cropping cycles-Variability in land use

(3)

Explain the reason of increase in net area sown.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The increase in the net area sown is primarily due to the utilization of culturable waste land for agricultural purposes, which aligns with a recent trend after a previous decline. Additionally, advancements in agricultural technology, such as increased irrigation, the adoption of high-yielding varieties, and a significant rise in the use of chemical fertilizers have also contributed to this increase.
Key Points: Utilization of culturable waste land; advancements in technology; increase in irrigation; use of high-yielding varieties; rise in chemical fertilizers.
Question 3.

Study the map of Rhine waterways and answer the questions that follow

(1)

Name the country in which most of Rhine river lies.

[1 Marks]
Answer: Most of the Rhine river lies in Germany.
Key Points: The Rhine flows through Germany - Germany is a primary country for the Rhine river

(2)

Why is river Rhine world's most heavily used waterway ?

[1 Marks]
Answer: The Rhine River is the world's most heavily used waterway due to its navigability for 700 km, connecting major industrial regions in Germany and the Netherlands. It accommodates over 20,000 ocean-going ships and 200,000 inland vessels annually, facilitating significant cargo exchange. The presence of key ports like Duisburg and its connection to rich coalfields in the Ruhr area contribute to its heavy traffic.
Key Points: navigable for 700 km-connects industrial regions-over 20,000 ocean-going ships annually-heavy cargo traffic

(3)

Name two countries whose industrial areas are connected by river

Rhine.

[1 Marks]
Answer: Germany and the Netherlands are two countries whose industrial areas are connected by the Rhine river.
Key Points: Germany-Netherlands
Question 4.

The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Questions :

(1)

Mention the name of the country from where the Rhine waterway begins in the upstream.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The Rhine waterway begins in Switzerland.
Key Points: Country: Switzerland

(2)

Name the major sea port where river Rhine falls into North Sea.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The major sea port where the river Rhine falls into the North Sea is Rotterdam.
Key Points: Rotterdam-major sea port-North Sea-Rhine

(3)

Explain the significance of river Rhine as a water highway of commerce.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The Rhine River is significant as a water highway of commerce due to its navigability for 700 km, connecting critical industrial regions in Germany and the Netherlands. It facilitates the transport of goods, including coal from the nearby Ruhr area, and supports large ocean-going vessels up to Cologne, making it a vital conduit for trade.
Key Points: navigable for 700 km- connects industrial regions- facilitates transport of goods- supports ocean-going vessels- vital for trade
Question 5.

On the outline political map of the world, seven geographical features have been marked as A, B, C, D, E, F and G. Identify any FIVE of them and write their names on the lines drawn near them :

(1)

A. Major sea port in Germany.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The major sea port in Germany is Hamburg.
Key Points: Hamburg is the primary port in Germany-Important for import and export-Connects to various international shipping routes

(2)

B. Terminal station of Trans-Siberian Railway.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The terminal station of the Trans-Siberian Railway is Vladivostok, located on the Pacific Coast of Russia.
Key Points: Vladivostok-terminal station-Trans-Siberian Railway

(3)

F. An area of 'Nomadic Herding'.

[1 Marks]
Answer: F represents the region of Mongolia, which is well-known for its nomadic herding culture, typically involving herding animals like sheep, goats, camels, and reindeer.
Key Points: Mongolia-Nomadic lifestyle-Herding animals-Geographical significance-Cultural practices

(4)

E. An important waterway.

[1 Marks]
Answer: E represents the Danube Waterway, a significant inland waterway in Eastern Europe that facilitates navigation and transport.
Key Points: Danube Waterway-Important inland waterway-Eastern Europe-navigable

(5)

D. An area of subsistence gathering.

[1 Marks]
Answer: D represents a region known for subsistence gathering, where local communities gather wild plants and hunt animals for survival.
Key Points: subsistence gathering-cultural practices-local biodiversity

(6)

C. An international airport.

[1 Marks]
Answer: An example of an international airport is Indira Gandhi International Airport located in Delhi, India.
Key Points: Identify C as an international airport-Provide an example such as Indira Gandhi International Airport-Relate to context by mentioning its status in air travel

(7)

G. An area of extensive commercial grain farming

[1 Marks]
Answer: The area of extensive commercial grain farming marked as 'G' on the map is the 'American Corn Belt', which is known for its large-scale production of corn and other grains.
Key Points: American Corn Belt - Extensive farming area - Known for grain production
Question 6.

Note : Answer any five

(1)

Name the major seaport in Germany.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The major seaport in Germany is Hamburg.
Key Points: Hamburg; Germany's largest seaport; significant for trade and logistics

(2)

Mention an international airport in South Africa.

[1 Marks]
Answer: One of the major international airports in South Africa is O.R. Tambo International Airport, located in Johannesburg.
Key Points: O.R. Tambo International Airport - Johannesburg - Major hub for international flights

(3)

Name the easternmost terminal station of Trans-Siberian Railway.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The easternmost terminal station of the Trans-Siberian Railway is Vladivostok.
Key Points: easternmost terminal station-Vladivostok-Trans-Siberian Railway

(4)

Mention an area of subsistence gathering in Canada.

[1 Marks]
Answer: An area of subsistence gathering in Canada is the northern regions, where Indigenous communities engage in hunting and gathering activities to meet their basic needs for food and shelter.
Key Points: northern Canada- subsistence gathering- Indigenous communities

(5)

Name an important waterway of Egypt.

[1 Marks]
Answer: An important waterway of Egypt is the Suez Canal.
Key Points: Suez Canal connects Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea-S constructed in 1869- significant for trade and navigation

(6)

Mention an area of nomadic herding in Africa.

[1 Marks]
Answer: One area of nomadic herding in Africa is the Sahara Desert.
Key Points: Sahara Desert-Importance of cattle in tropical Africa-Pastoral nomadism

(7)

Mention an area of extensive commercial grain farming of

Australia.

[1 Marks]
Answer: One area of extensive commercial grain farming in Australia is the Australian Downs.
Key Points: Australian Downs
Question 7.

On the given political outline map of India, locate and label any five of

the following geographical features with appropriate symbols.

(1)

Important iron ore mines in Odisha.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The important iron ore mines in Odisha that should be labeled on the map are Gurumahisani, Sulaipet, Badampahar, Kiruburu, and Bonai.
Key Points: Gurumahisani-Sulaipet-Badampahar-Kiruburu-Bonai

(2)

An important seaport in Kerala.

[1 Marks]
Answer: Kochi is an important seaport located in Kerala. It serves as a significant naval and commercial port, facilitating trade and linking India with various global destinations.
Key Points: Kochi - location in Kerala - important for trade - naval significance

(3)

A copper mine in Rajasthan.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The copper mine in Rajasthan is located in the area of Khetri, which is known for its significant copper deposits. On the political outline map of India, label the location of the Khetri copper mine using a symbol such as a small silver circle.
Key Points: Khetri, Rajasthan-copper mining area-symbol silver circle

(4)

An oil refinery in Bihar.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The oil refinery in Bihar is located at Barauni, near the town of Begusarai. It can be marked on the map with a suitable symbol, such as a drop of oil, to represent its function as an oil refinery.
Key Points: Barauni location-Oil refinery symbol-Label on map

(5)

A state with highest density of population.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The state with the highest density of population in India is Uttar Pradesh. Uttar Pradesh has a population density of approximately 829 people per square kilometer, making it the most densely populated state in the country.
Key Points: Uttar Pradesh-highest population density-approximately 829 people per square kilometer

(6)

An international airport in Punjab.

[1 Marks]
Answer: Chandigarh International Airport is an international airport located in Punjab. It serves as a key gateway for both domestic and international flights.
Key Points: Chandigarh International Airport-location in Punjab-international airport facilities

(7)

A state leading in the production of jute.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The state leading in the production of jute in India is West Bengal. It accounts for approximately three-fourths of the country's total jute production.
Key Points: West Bengal-jute production-three-fourths of India
Question 8.

Attempt any five :

(1)

Name an important iron ore mining area in Odisha.

[1 Marks]
Answer: An important iron ore mining area in Odisha is Gurumahisani.
Key Points: Gurumahisani-Sundergarh-Mayurbhanj-Jhar

(2)

Name the maln sea port of Kerala.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The main sea port of Kerala is Kochi Port, which is located at the head of Vembanad Kayal.
Key Points: Kochi Port; located at Vembanad Kayal; strategic location; known as 'Queen of the Arabian Sea'

(3)

Name the place of an oil refinery in Bihar.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The place of an oil refinery in Bihar is Barauni.
Key Points: Barauni oil refinery-is a market-based refinery-located in Bihar

(4)

Mention the name of a copper mining area of Rajasthan.

[1 Marks]
Answer: A prominent copper mining area in Rajasthan is the Aravali region.
Key Points: Aravali region-copper mining-Rajasthan

(5)

Mention the name of a place where an international airport is

located in Punjab.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The only international airport located in Punjab is the Chandigarh International Airport.
Key Points: Chandigarh International Airport

(6)

Name the state with highest density of population.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The state with the highest density of population in India is Uttar Pradesh.
Key Points: Uttar Pradesh has the highest population; density is expressed as persons per unit area; related to spatial distribution.

(7)

Which is the leading state in the production of jute ?

[1 Marks]
Answer: The leading state in the production of jute is West Bengal, which accounts for about three-fourths of India's jute production.
Key Points: West Bengal; accounts for three-fourths of production; India produces three-fifth of world jute

Section B

Question 9. “Human geography is the synthetic study of relationship between human societies and earth's surface.” This definition of human geography is given by
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Vidal-de-la-Blache
  • (B) Richard Hartshorne
  • (C) Paul Vidal
  • (D) Ritter
Explanation: The correct answer is Vidal-de-la-Blache. He emphasized the synthetic nature of human geography, highlighting the relationship between human societies and their environment. This aligns with the definition provided in the context.
Question 10.

Which one of the following is the core concern of geography as a discipline?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) To understand the relationship between resource distribution and its utilisation.
  • (B) To understand the earth as the home of natural resources and their estimation.
  • (C) To understand the earth as the home of human beings and its sustainability.
  • (D) To understand population distribution and the factors affecting the
Explanation:

The correct option is 'To understand the earth as the home of human beings and its sustainability.' This is correct because the context emphasizes that geography focuses on understanding the Earth as a habitat for humans and studying the elements that sustain them, highlighting the relationship between human activities and the physical environment.

Question 11. The concept of ‘Neodeterminism’ was introduced by
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Ehrlich
  • (B) C. Semple
  • (C) Humboldt
  • (D) Griffith Taylor
Explanation: The correct answer is Griffith Taylor, as the provided context explicitly states that he introduced the concept of Neodeterminism, which represents a middle path between environmental determinism and possibilism.
Question 12.

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option:

Assertion (A): World Trade Organisation (WTO) is widening the gulf between rich and poor by making rich countries richer.

Reason (R): ‘The influential nations in the WTO focus on their own commercial interests.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (C) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
  • (D) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
Explanation:

Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). The context states that free trade and the workings of the WTO have resulted in poorer nations falling behind as they do not receive the same benefits as the rich nations. This is primarily because powerful nations prioritize their own commercial interests in the WTO, thereby widening the economic gap.

Question 13.

Choose the correct option to fill the blank:

The act of opening up economies for trading is known as

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Balanced trade
  • (B) Bilateral trade
  • (C) Unilateral trade
  • (D) Free trade
Explanation: The correct answer is 'Free trade' because the provided context clearly states that the act of opening up economies for trading is referred to as free trade or trade liberalisation. This involves reducing trade barriers like tariffs, allowing goods and services to compete freely in the market.
Question 14.

Arrange the following towns of India from the oldest to the newest order based on their historical evolution and choose the correct option:

(i) Jaipur

(ii) Chandigarh

(iii) Madurai

(iv) Jamshedpur

[1 Marks]
  • (A) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
  • (B) (iii), (i), (iv), (ii)
  • (C) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
  • (D) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
Explanation:

The correct order is Madurai (iii), Jaipur (i), Jamshedpur (iv), and Chandigarh (ii). Madurai is one of the oldest cities dating back to ancient times, Jaipur was founded in the 18th century, Jamshedpur was established in the early 20th century, and Chandigarh was built in the mid-20th century as a planned city after India gained independence.

Question 15.

Read the following statements related to the objectives of smart city mission carefully and choose the correct option:

(i) To promote the city with clean and sustainable environment.

(ii) To provide decent quality of life to its citizens.

(iii) To provide employment to the job seekers.

(iv) To make the city less vulnerable to disasters.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Only (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
  • (B) Only (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
  • (C) Only (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct.
  • (D) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
Explanation:

Only (i), (ii), and (iv) are correct. The objectives of the Smart Cities Mission include promoting a clean and sustainable environment, providing a decent quality of life to citizens, and making cities less vulnerable to disasters. Although providing employment is important, it is not explicitly stated as one of the core objectives in the context provided.

Question 16. Local names like Panna, Para, Palli, Nagla, Dhani etc. are examples of which of the following types of rural settlements in India?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Semi-clustered settlement
  • (B) Hamleted settlement
  • (C) Dispersed settlement
  • (D) Clustered settlement
Explanation: The correct answer is 'Hamleted settlement'. These local names refer to fragmented units of settlement that are physically separated but share a common name, often due to social and ethnic factors, as described in the provided context.
Question 17.

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R).

Read both the statements carefully and the correct option :

Assertion (A) : The agriculturally rich states of Punjab, Haryana and western Uttar Pradesh are facing the crisis of groundwater depletion.'

Reason (R) : 'More groundwater is utilised for irrigation than water- table recharge.'

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct reason of (A).
  • (B) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct.
  • (C) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct reason of (A).
  • (D) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct.
Explanation:

Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct reason for (A). The context explains that Punjab, Haryana, and western Uttar Pradesh utilize a large proportion of their groundwater for irrigation purposes, leading to groundwater depletion. The assertion is correct as these states are indeed facing this crisis, and the reason accurately reflects that excessive groundwater usage for irrigation surpasses the rate of recharge.

Question 18.

Read the following statements related to Indira Gandhi Canal Project carefully and the correct option :

(i) Indira Gandhi Canal project was conceived by Kanwar Sain in 1950 and it was launched in 1961.

(ii) Introduction of canal irrigation has brought perceptible changes in the agricultural economy of the command area.

(iii) Spread of canal irrigation has led to increase in cultivated area and crop intensity.

(iv) Traditional crops of jowar, bajra has been replaced by and wheat

[1 Marks]
  • (A) (i), (iii) and (iv) only are correct.
  • (B) (i) , (ii) and (iii) only are correct.
  • (C) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only are correct.
  • (D) (i), (ii) and (iv) only are correct.
Explanation:

The correct option is (i), (ii) and (iii) only are correct. Statement (i) is accurate regarding the project's conception and launch. Statement (ii) correctly reflects that canal irrigation has significantly changed the agricultural economy in the region. Statement (iii) is also correct as it states that canal irrigation has increased both cultivated area and cropping intensity. However, statement (iv) is misleading as it inaccurately refers to traditional crops being replaced only by 'and wheat' without mentioning other crops, while the context notes that traditional crops have been replaced by wheat, cotton, groundnut, and rice.

Question 19.

Read the following statements related to international trade of India carefully and choose the correct option :

(i) India has a long coastline surrounded by ocean from three sides.

(ii) Indian coasts have large number of well-developed sea ports.

(iii) Kandla port exports huge amount of iron-ore.

(iv) The transportation cost by water is very cheap for voluminous items.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Only (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
  • (B) Only (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
  • (C) Only (i), (iii) an d (iv) are correct
  • (D) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
Explanation:

The correct option is 'Only (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct'. Statement (i) is true as India does have a long coastline from three sides. Statement (ii) is also correct since India has 12 major and 200 minor ports. Statement (iv) is accurate because water transport is indeed the cheapest means for carrying voluminous goods. However, statement (iii) is incorrect as Kandla port primarily handles other types of cargo, not specifically a 'huge amount of iron-ore'.

Question 20.

Why is it that slums are the areas of residence with least choice ? Choose the correct options

(i) They have dilapidated houses with poor ventilation.

(ii) The basic facilities like lights and toilets are difficult to get.

(iii) Hygienic conditions and drinking water are improper.

(iv) Better drainage facilities are available.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Only (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
  • (B) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
  • (C) Only (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct.
  • (D) Only (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
Explanation:

The correct options are 'Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.' This is because slums are characterized by dilapidated houses (i), lack of basic facilities like lights and toilets (ii), and improper hygienic conditions and drinking water (iii). These conditions show the lack of choice available to residents, whereas option (iv) is incorrect as slums do not have better drainage facilities. The context supports this by describing the poor living conditions in slums.

Question 21. The watershed management programme in Jhabua district of Madhya Pradesh is funded by which one of the following ministries?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Environment
  • (B) Rural Development
  • (C) Transport
  • (D) Irrigation
Explanation: The correct answer is 'Rural Development' because the context states that watershed management programmes are funded by the Ministry of Rural Development, specifically implemented by the Rajiv Gandhi Mission for Watershed Management, which has effectively addressed land degradation and improved soil quality in Jhabua district.
Question 22.

Under which one of the following category of commodities, increase in export is continuously observed?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Manufactured goods
  • (B) Other commodities
  • (C) Agriculture and allied products
  • (D) Ore and minerals
Explanation:

The correct option is 'Agriculture and allied products' because the context indicates that there has been a significant growth registered in floricultural products, fresh fruits, marine products, and sugar under this category, despite the decline in other sectors. This indicates a rise in exports within agriculture and allied products.

Question 23.

Under which one of the following category of commodities, maximum decline in export is recorded from 2015-16 to 2016-17?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Other commodities
  • (B) Agriculture and allied products
  • (C) Ore and minerals
  • (D) Crude and petroleum products
Explanation: The correct answer is 'Agriculture and allied products' because the context indicates that the share of agriculture and allied products has decreased significantly, with specific mention of a decline in the export of traditional items within this category, such as cashew. The other options, including ores and minerals, showed a largely constant share, while crude petroleum and other commodities have seen an increase.
Question 24.

Under which one of the following categories of commodities, the increase in export is observed from 2010-11 to 2016-17?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Other commodities
  • (B) Ore and minerals
  • (C) Crude and petroleum products
  • (D) Agriculture and allied products
Explanation:

Question 25.

Read the following statements about ports carefully and choose the correct option:

(i) The ports provide the facilities of loading, unloading and storage of cargo.

(ii) The importance of ports is judged by the size of its hinterland.

(iii) The quantity of cargo handled by a port indicates the level of development of its hinterland.

(iv) Ports are the chief gateways of the world trade.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) only (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
  • (B) only (1), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
  • (C) only (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
  • (D) only (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct.
Explanation:

The correct option is 'only (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct.' Statement (i) is correct as ports indeed provide facilities for loading, unloading, and storage of cargo. Statement (ii) is also true because the significance of a port is assessed by the size of its hinterland, which includes the volume of cargo and ships handled. Statement (iv) is accurate as ports serve as the principal gateways for international trade. Statement (iii) is misleading in its phrasing; while the quantity of cargo does reflect hinterland development, it does not clearly state this, making it less directly correct.

Section C

Question 26.

Examine the role of climate, water availability and soil fertility on the distribution of world population.

[3 Marks]
Answer: The relationship between climate, water availability, and soil fertility is pivotal for agricultural production. Climate determines the types of crops that can be grown and their productivity, as regional variations in monsoon climates allow for diverse agriculture. Water availability is crucial; efficient irrigation practices can enhance water use and maximize crop yield, especially under high yielding varieties that require consistent moisture. Conversely, inadequate rainfall can lead to droughts, negatively impacting soil moisture and crop health. Soil fertility, influenced by water management and sustainable practices, supports productivity, ensuring crops receive essential nutrients. In essence, an integrated approach to managing these factors is fundamental for sustainable agricultural outcomes.
Question 27.

Examine three stages of demographic transition theory

[3 Marks]
Answer: The demographic transition model outlines how populations progress through distinct stages of growth. The first stage, characterized by high birth and death rates, typically features a rural, agrarian society where medical knowledge and food supply are limited. In the second stage, improvements in healthcare lead to a significant decline in death rates while birth rates remain high, resulting in population growth. Finally, the third stage sees birth rates begin to fall as families gain access to education and family planning, leading to a stable population in urbanized, industrial societies. This model illustrates the transitional journey of societies as they evolve and modernize.
Question 28.

Explain the main characteristics of rural roads in India.

[3 Marks]
Answer: Rural roads in India are crucial for connecting remote areas to urban centers, with about 80% of the country's total road length classified as rural. Their density varies regionally due to different terrains, such as hilly, plateau, and forested regions, which pose construction challenges. Additionally, these roads often suffer from deterioration away from urban areas due to lack of maintenance and resources. The government seeks to improve rural connectivity through schemes such as the Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojna, enhancing access to essential services.
Question 29.

Suggest the measures to achieve the objectives of 'Namami Gange Programme'.

[3 Marks]
Answer: To achieve the objectives of the Namami Gange Programme, several measures can be implemented. Firstly, developing robust sewage treatment systems in towns along the Ganga is essential to prevent untreated waste from entering the river. Monitoring industrial effluents is crucial to ensure that industries comply with environmental regulations. Additionally, afforestation along the river banks can enhance biodiversity and stabilize the ecosystem. Cleaning the river surface regularly and establishing 'Ganga Grams' will promote sustainable lifestyles. Lastly, creating public awareness through educational campaigns will help in minimizing pollution from rituals and other sources.

Section D

Question 30. Explain the concept of ‘human development. Examine four approaches to human development.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Human development is a multidimensional process that aims to enhance people's capabilities and opportunities, enabling them to lead longer, healthier, and more fulfilling lives. It focuses on improving the overall well-being of individuals and communities rather than merely increasing economic growth. Four significant approaches to human development include the income approach, welfare approach, minimum needs approach, and capabilities approach. The income approach emphasizes the link between income levels and freedom, positing that higher income correlates with better human development outcomes. The welfare approach considers people as beneficiaries of development initiatives, advocating for increased government spending to improve living conditions. The minimum needs approach focuses on ensuring access to essential services like education and health, asserting that meeting basic needs is critical for development. Finally, the capabilities approach, advanced by Amartya Sen, highlights the importance of expanding individuals' freedoms and opportunities to achieve their desired life goals, stressing the role of empowerment in development.
Question 31. Explain the main features of large scale manufacturing industries in the world.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Large scale manufacturing industries are characterized by several key features that enable them to operate efficiently and effectively. Firstly, they utilize a large market for their products, which facilitates mass production and economies of scale. These industries often require various raw materials, ensuring that they are located close to their sources for cost efficiency. The workforce is specialized, with trained workers utilizing advanced technology and methods to enhance productivity. Assembly-line mass production is a common method employed, allowing for the quick and efficient creation of goods. Additionally, large capital investment is crucial for setting up such industries, which typically involves substantial infrastructure. Over the last two centuries, these large scale manufacturing principles have developed primarily in regions such as the United Kingdom, northeastern U.S.A., and parts of Europe, before gradually diffusing around the globe. Key sectors like iron and steel, textiles, automobiles, petrochemicals, and electronics exemplify the significance of these industries in contributing to the global economy. Furthermore, industries like aircraft and arms manufacturing have even tapped into global markets, highlighting the importance of international trade in the success of large scale manufacturing. Overall, these features underline the complexity and importance of large scale manufacturing in the modern economy.
Question 32. Explain the main features of 'High Tech' industries in the world.
[5 Marks]
Answer: High-tech industries are characterized by their reliance on intensive research and development (R&D) to produce advanced scientific and engineering products. A significant feature is the predominance of professional workers, indicating a highly skilled labor force. These industries often cluster in designated areas known as technopolies, such as Silicon Valley and Silicon Forest, promoting innovation and collaboration. The industrial landscape is modern and low-rise, with office-lab-plant configurations rather than traditional factories. Additionally, high-tech industries have expanded globally, influencing less developed countries. The establishment of planned business parks for start-ups also demonstrates the strategic focus on fostering technology and innovation at local and regional levels.
Question 33. Assess the growth and significance of the service sector in the development of the world economy.
[5 Marks]
Answer: The growth of the service sector, particularly the Quaternary and Tertiary Sectors, has been crucial for the development of the world economy. In developed nations, over half of the workforce is now engaged in knowledge-based services, indicating a significant shift from traditional agriculture and manufacturing jobs. This change is driven by increasing demand for specialized services, such as information technology, finance, and consultancy. As economies evolve, infrastructure development facilitates the expansion of service-related employment, which has seen a marked increase in urban and rural areas. The decline of the agricultural workforce (from 58.2% in 2001 to 54.6% in 2011 in India) highlights this trend, as more educated and skilled individuals enter the service sector. Additionally, women’s participation in these sectors showcases social improvements. Overall, the service sector is now a key driver of economic growth and development, contributing significantly to GDP and job creation globally.
Question 34. Assess the growth and significance of transport and communication services in the world economy.
[5 Marks]
Answer: The growth of transport and communication services has been pivotal in shaping the modern world economy. Historically, limited transport facilities confined trade to local areas, hindering economic expansion. However, advancements in various transport modes, including rail, maritime, and aviation, have significantly improved the efficiency and reach of trading networks. This expansion has facilitated a more integrated global market where goods, services, and information flow freely across borders. Furthermore, enhanced communication technologies, such as the internet and mobile communication, have enabled instantaneous interaction between businesses and consumers, fostering international trade relationships and collaborations. The synergy between transport and communication is fundamental for industries, promoting specialization and regional economic development. Countries with robust transport and communication infrastructure can leverage these services to enhance their competitive advantages in global markets, making them essential components of foreign policy and economic strategy. This interconnectedness not only drives economic growth but also supports cultural exchanges and social connectivity, ultimately allowing nations to thrive in a complex global environment.
Question 35. Analyse the rural-urban characteristics of Indian population.
[5 Marks]
Answer: The rural-urban characteristics of the Indian population reflect significant socio-economic dynamics. As per the 2011 Census, about 68.8% of the population resides in rural areas, showcasing a predominantly agrarian society. Conversely, the urban population constitutes only 31.16%, but it is growing rapidly, driven by economic development and improved health conditions. Urbanization has led to increased rural-urban migration, influenced by various factors including job opportunities and better living standards. This rural-urban migration is prominent in states like Maharashtra, impacting the distribution of the population. While rural areas primarily engage in agriculture, urban areas exhibit diverse occupational patterns, further emphasizing the differing characteristics. Moreover, this demographic shift indicates ongoing changes in lifestyle, education, and economic prospects in India, highlighting the intricate relationship between rural and urban areas. Understanding these dynamics is essential for formulating effective policies that address the needs of both populations and promote balanced development.
Question 36. Analyse the main features of the composition of working population in India.
[5 Marks]
Answer: The composition of the working population in India can be categorized into three groups: main workers, marginal workers, and non-workers. As of recent statistics, only 39.8% of India’s population is engaged in work. The majority of workers are involved in the agricultural sector, although there has been a noticeable decline from 58.2% in 2001 to 54.6% in 2011. Conversely, the secondary and tertiary sectors have gained prominence, indicating a progressive shift in employment patterns. Additionally, female participation in the workforce remains significant, especially in the primary sector, but there's been a gradual increase in their involvement in secondary and tertiary sectors as well. The rural-urban divide is also essential when considering working population characteristics, as rural areas still dominate agricultural employment while urban areas are increasingly focusing on industrial and service activities. This transformation reflects broader economic changes in India's employment landscape, suggesting a progression towards a more diversified economy. In analyzing the working population, it is crucial to consider the socio-economic implications and the ongoing changes in gender dynamics in the workforce, as well as the rural-urban migration trends influencing labor availability and economic roles.
Question 37. Petroleum is an essential source of energy and many byproducts are associated with its refining. Explain this statement with examples.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Petroleum, often termed 'liquid gold' due to its scarcity and diverse applications, is a vital energy source utilized primarily in internal combustion engines of automobiles, railways, and aircraft. Its prominence in the energy sector cannot be understated, as it powers numerous vehicles and machinery that are fundamental to our daily lives. Beyond fuel, the refining process of petroleum yields an array of byproducts that serve crucial roles in various industries. For instance, in the petrochemical sector, refined petroleum is transformed into fertilizers, enabling agricultural productivity. Additionally, synthetic rubber and fibers derived from it are essential in the manufacturing of tires and clothing, respectively. Other significant byproducts include medicines, lubricants, waxes, soaps, and cosmetics, all of which highlight the wide-ranging applicability of petroleum derivatives. Furthermore, natural gas, often found in conjunction with petroleum, plays a critical role as a cleaner fuel option for domestic and industrial heating and electricity generation. The refining of crude oil into these market-ready products occurs in specialized facilities known as refineries, including examples such as Digboi and Barauni in India, which cater to different market needs. Overall, the multifaceted nature of petroleum as an energy source and its byproducts exemplify its unparalleled importance in modern society.
Question 38. The generation of energy through non-conventional sources is the need of the hour for sustainable development. Explain the statement with examples.
[5 Marks]
Answer: The generation of energy through non-conventional sources is crucial for sustainable development as it mitigates the environmental impact of traditional fossil fuels. Non-conventional energy sources such as solar, wind, hydro, geothermal, and biomass are renewable and contribute to energy security. For instance, India has made significant strides in harnessing solar energy through initiatives like the National Solar Mission, aiming to install 100 GW of solar power by 2022. Wind energy also plays a vital role, with states like Tamil Nadu and Gujarat leading in wind energy production. Moreover, hydroelectric power plants utilize water resources for electricity generation while maintaining ecological balance. Geothermal energy represents another sustainable option, tapping into the Earth's heat. By investing in these renewable technologies, India not only reduces its carbon footprint but also promotes energy independence and job creation in the renewable sector.

Paper Details

CBSE Board Exam 2025

Class

CLASS 12-HUMANITIES

Subject

GEOGRAPHY

Year

2025

Set

Set 2

Other Years — GEOGRAPHY

2022 Set-1

2022 Set-2

2022 Set-3

2022 Set-4

2022 Set-5

2023 Set-1

2023 Set-2

2023 Set-3

2023 Set-4

2023 Set-5

2024 Set-1

2024 Set-2

2024 Set-3

2024 Set-4

2024 Set-5

2025 Set-1

2025 Set-2

2025 Set-3

2025 Set-4

2025 Set-5

2025 Set-6