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SOLUTIONS

2025 BOARD EXAM

CBSE CLASS 12-HUMANITIES GEOGRAPHY Board Paper 2025 — Set 1

2025

GEOGRAPHY

CLASS 12-HUMANITIES

CBSE EXAMINATION SOLVED PAPER-2025 GEOGRAPHY

CBSE EXAMINATION PAPER-2025

GEOGRAPHY

(Solved)

Time allowed : 3 hours

Maximum Marks : 73

General Instructions :

Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :

  1. This question paper contains 35 questions. All questions are compulsory.
  2. This question paper is divided into 4 sections.
  3. Section A – questions number 1 to 6 are case based questions
  4. Section B – questions number 7 to 22 are multiple choice questions
  5. Section C – questions number 23 to 26 are short answer
  6. Section D – questions number 27 to 35 are long answer
  7. There is no overall choice given in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions.
  8. Use of calculator is NOT allowed.

Section A

Question 1.

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Case for Free Trade.

The act of opening up economies for trading is known as free trade or trade liberalization. This is done by bringing down trade barriers like tariffs. Trade liberalization allows goods and services from everywhere to compete with domestic products and services.

Globalisation along with free trade can adversely affect the economies of developing countries by not giving equal playing field by imposing conditions which are unfavorable. With the development of transport and communication systems, goods and services can travel faster and farther than ever before. But free trade should not only let rich countries enter the markets, but allow the developed countries to keep their own markets protected from foreign products.

Countries also need to be cautious about dumped goods; as along with free trade, dumped goods of cheaper prices can harm the domestic producers. Countries also need to be cautious about dumped goods; as along with free trade dumped goods of cheaper prices can harm the domestic producers.

Countries also need to be cautious about dumped goods; as along with free trade dumped goods of cheaper prices can harm the domestic producers.

(1) Explain the meaning of trade liberalisation.

[1 Marks]
Answer: Trade liberalisation refers to the process of opening up an economy to international trade by reducing or eliminating trade barriers such as tariffs and quotas. This process allows goods and services from all countries to enter and compete in the domestic market. By minimizing restrictions on imports and exports, trade liberalisation promotes competition, increases consumer choice, and can lead to lower prices. However, it can also have adverse effects on developing countries, where local businesses may struggle to compete against cheaper foreign products. Therefore, while trade liberalisation facilitates free trade, it also necessitates careful consideration of its impact on domestic economies.
Key Points: Definition of trade liberalisation; Reducing trade barriers like tariffs; Allows competition from all countries; Promotes consumer choice; Potential adverse effects on developing economies

(2) How have 'globalisation' and 'free trade' affected the economies of developing countries?

[1 Marks]
Answer: Globalisation and free trade have had significant effects on the economies of developing countries. Firstly, while these processes have allowed greater access to global markets, they have often created an unlevel playing field, favoring richer countries. This is evident in the compromises developing countries have to make, sacrificing their own market protections to adhere to unfavorable terms set by wealthier nations. Additionally, the influx of international goods can lead to the adverse effect of domestic producers being unable to compete with cheaper, dumped goods from abroad. As a result, local industries may suffer, leading to job losses and economic instability. Furthermore, the advancement of transport and communication technologies enables faster trade, which can paradoxically exacerbate dependency on foreign products, rather than enhancing self-sufficiency. Ultimately, although free trade and globalisation have the potential to foster development, they also risk deepening the economic divide between nations, as the benefits tend to accumulate in the hands of already affluent countries.
Key Points: Unequal playing field-favorable conditions for rich countries-domestic producers harmed by dumped goods-dependency on foreign products-economic divide between rich and poor

(3) What should be done by the developing countries to protect from the negative impact of free trade? Mention any two steps.

[1 Marks]
Answer: To protect themselves from the negative impacts of free trade, developing countries should implement two essential strategies. Firstly, they can impose protective tariffs on imported goods to help local industries compete against cheaper foreign products. This helps in safeguarding domestic jobs and fosters local entrepreneurship. Secondly, developing countries should strengthen their regulatory frameworks to ensure fair competition and prevent the dumping of goods, which can destabilize local markets. By creating a more equitable trading environment, these measures can help support sustainable economic growth and shield local economies from the adverse effects of free trade.
Key Points: impose protective tariffs to safeguard local industries-strengthen regulatory frameworks to prevent dumping
Question 2. Study the map of Australian Trans Continental Railway and answer the questions that follow:

(1) Identify the stations of this railway marked as 'A' and 'B'.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The station marked as 'A' is Kalgoorlie and the station marked as 'B' is Broken Hill.
Key Points: Station 'A' is Kalgoorlie; Station 'B' is Broken Hill.

(2)

In which part of the continent is this railway line is located ?

[1 Marks]
Answer: The Australian Trans-Continental Railway is located in the southern part of the continent, running from Perth on the west coast to Sydney on the east coast.
Key Points: southern part of the continent-west coast to east coast-Perth to Sydney

(3) Write the names of stations located at the easternmost and westernmost ends of this railway.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The station located at the easternmost end of the Australian Trans-Continental Railway is Sydney, and the station at the westernmost end is Perth.
Key Points: Easternmost station: Sydney-Westernmost station: Perth

(4)

Describe any three characteristics of the 'Australian Trans-Continental Railway.

[3 Marks]
Answer: The Australian Trans-Continental Railway is a crucial rail line running from Perth on the west coast to Sydney on the east coast, traversing significant cities such as Kalgoorlie, Broken Hill, and Port Augusta. One key characteristic is that it facilitates cross-country transportation, effectively linking the western and eastern regions of Australia. Another important feature is its role in supporting economic growth by connecting major urban centers and facilitating the movement of goods and resources. Lastly, the railway represents a vital infrastructure project designed to promote national unity and political stability by integrating remote areas with major cities, thus enhancing accessibility for both people and trade.
Key Points: Runs west-east across Australia; Connects major cities for economic growth; Promotes national unity and accessibility
Question 3.

Study the following table carefully and answer the questions that follow :

(1)

In which census year, the decennial growth of urban population is the highest.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The highest decennial growth of urban population occurred during the census year 2001, as indicated by the substantial increase in urbanization rates during that period.
Key Points: Decennial growth; urban population; census year 2001

(2)

Analyse the continuous increasing trend of number of towns in India.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The continuous increasing trend of the number of towns in India can be attributed to several key factors. The urban population in India has shown significant growth, rising to 31.16% as of the latest data. This growth is propelled by enhanced economic development, particularly in the industrial and services sectors, which have driven infrastructure development. Additionally, improvements in health and hygiene have contributed to better living conditions in urban areas, attracting rural migrants in search of better opportunities. This trend not only indicates urban expansion but also reflects the socio-economic advancement of the country.
Key Points: increased urbanization; economic development; rural-urban migration; improved living conditions; infrastructural growth

(3)

Explain the increasing trend of urban population in India.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The urban population in India has been increasing due to several key factors. Firstly, economic development has led to the growth of industries and job opportunities in urban areas, attracting people from rural regions. Secondly, improvements in health and hygiene have made urban living more feasible and appealing. Additionally, rural-urban migration has significantly contributed to urban population growth, with over 60 percent of this growth attributed to people moving from rural areas to cities since 1961. This trend indicates a shift towards better socio-economic conditions in urban settings.
Key Points: Economic development-Improvement in health and hygiene-Rural-urban migration
Question 4.

On the given political outline Map of the World, seven geographical features have been marked as A, B, C, D, E, F and G. Identify any five with the help of following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them :

(1)

A major sea-port

[1 Marks]
Answer: The major sea-port to be identified is 'Leningrad Commercial Port'.
Key Points: Identify major sea-port- Reference to commercial ports- Importance in handling cargo

(2)

A major airport

[1 Marks]
Answer: An example of a major airport is Indira Gandhi International Airport located in New Delhi, India.
Key Points: Indira Gandhi International Airport- major airport- located in New Delhi

(3)

An inland waterway

[1 Marks]
Answer: The Danube Waterway is an important inland waterway in Eastern Europe.
Key Points: Danube Waterway - important inland waterway - navigable up to Taurna Severin - serves Eastern Europe

(4)

A major area of nomadic herding

[1 Marks]
Answer: The correct location for a major area of nomadic herding is Mongolia, known for its vast steppes and traditional pastoral nomadic culture.
Key Points: Mongolia - Nomadic herding - Pastoral nomadism - Major region

(5)

A major area of commercial livestock rearing

[1 Marks]
Answer: A major area of commercial livestock rearing is found in countries like Australia, New Zealand, Argentina, and the USA, where livestock farming is significant.
Key Points: Australia- New Zealand- USA- Argentina- Uruguay

(6)

A major area of extensive commercial grain farming

[1 Marks]
Answer: The major area of extensive commercial grain farming is the American Corn Belt, located primarily in the Midwest of the United States.
Key Points: American Corn Belt-Extensive commercial grain farming-Midwest of the United States

(7)

A major area of mixed farming.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The major area of mixed farming is typically found in regions with a temperate climate, where both crops and livestock are raised. One well-known region is the Great Plains of North America.
Key Points: mixed farming; temperate climate; Great Plains of North America
Question 5.

On the given political outline map of India, locate and label any five of the following seven geographical features with appropriate symbols :

(1)

The state with the lowest population density (2011).

[1 Marks]
Answer: The state with the lowest population density in India as per the 2011 Census is Arunachal Pradesh. It has a population density of approximately 17 persons per square kilometer.
Key Points: lowest population density, Arunachal Pradesh, 2011 Census

(2)

The state leading in the production of sugarcane.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The state leading in the production of sugarcane in India is Uttar Pradesh. It produces about two-fifths of the total sugarcane output in the country, which makes it the largest producer by a significant margin.
Key Points: Uttar Pradesh-produces two-fifths of India's sugarcane-leading producer

(3)

A major sea port in Gujarat.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The major sea port in Gujarat is Mundra Port. It is located on the western coast of India and is known for its significant contributions to trade and commerce.
Key Points: Mundra Port-Gujarat-western coast-important for trade

(4)

A copper mining centre in Jharkhand.

[1 Marks]
Answer: A copper mining centre in Jharkhand is the city of Singhbhum. It is known for its significant copper deposits and mining activities.
Key Points: Location: Singhbhum - Jharkhand; Importance: Copper mining centre; Symbols: Use appropriate mining symbol

(5)

An Iron-ore mining centre in Maharashtra.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The iron-ore mining centre in Maharashtra is located in the region of Nagpur.
Key Points: Iron-ore mining centre-Maharashtra-Nagpur

(6)

A manganese mining centre in Madhya Pradesh.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The manganese mining centre in Madhya Pradesh is located at Balaghat. It is marked on the political outline map with the symbol 'M' for manganese.
Key Points: Madhya Pradesh-Balaghat-manganese mining centre-symbol 'M' for manganese

(7)

An international airport in Karnataka

[1 Marks]
Answer: The northernmost latitude of India is marked at approximately 37°N (Kashmir), while the southernmost latitude is at about 8°N (Kanniyakumari). The easternmost longitude is noted at approximately 97°E (Arunachal Pradesh), and the westernmost longitude is around 68°E (Gujarat).
Key Points: northernmost latitude: 37°N (Kashmir) - southernmost latitude: 8°N (Kanniyakumari) - easternmost longitude: 97°E (Arunachal Pradesh) - westernmost longitude: 68°E (Gujarat)
Question 6.

Note: The following questions are for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Question No.1 to 7. Answer any five.

(1)

1 Name the state with the lowest population density (2011).

[1 Marks]
Answer: The state with the lowest population density in India in 2011 is Arunachal Pradesh.
Key Points: Arunachal Pradesh has low population density; it is a northeastern state; density related to geographical and socio-economic factors.

(2)

5 Name the manganese mining centre located in Madhya Pradesh

[1 Marks]
Answer: The manganese mining centre located in Madhya Pradesh is Balaghat-Chhindwara.
Key Points: Madhya Pradesh is a leading producer of manganese - Manganese mining centres are in Balaghat-Chhindwara-Nimar-Mandla and Jhabua districts.

(3)

7 Name the place where international airport is located in Karnataka.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The international airport located in Karnataka is the Kempegowda International Airport, situated in Bengaluru.
Key Points: Kempegowda International Airport - located in Bengaluru - international airport in Karnataka

(4)

2 Name the leading state of sugarcane production.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The leading state of sugarcane production in India is Uttar Pradesh.
Key Points: Uttar Pradesh produces about two-fifth of India's sugarcane; it is the largest producer; other significant producers include Maharashtra, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, and Andhra Pradesh.

(5)

4 Name the copper mining centre located in Jharkhand

[1 Marks]
Answer: The copper mining centre located in Jharkhand is Lohardaga.
Key Points: Lohardaga - copper mining centre - Jharkhand

(6)

3 Name the place where major sea port is located in Gujarat.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The major sea port located in Gujarat is Deendayal Port, also known as Kandla Port.
Key Points: Deendayal Port, Kandla Port, located in Gujarat

(7)

6 Name the Iran-ore mining centre located in Maharashtra,

[1 Marks]
Answer: The iron-ore mining centre located in Maharashtra is Kolaba.
Key Points: Kolaba- located in Maharashtra- iron-ore mining centre

Section B

Question 7.

Which of the following statements are correct related to mining? Choose the correct option:

i. In ancient times minerals were used to make tools and weapons.

ii. All developed countries are extracting more minerals for their development.

iii. The actual development of mining began with the industrial revolution.

iv. There are many stages in the discovery of minerals.
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Only i, iii and iv are correct.
  • (B) Only ii and iii are correct.
  • (C) Only ii and iii are correct.
  • (D) Only i and iv are correct.
Explanation:

Only i, iii, and iv are correct. In ancient times, minerals were indeed used to make tools and weapons, which aligns with statement i. The actual development of mining did begin with the industrial revolution, as stated in iii. Moreover, there are indeed many stages in the discovery of minerals, evidenced by historical periods like the Copper, Bronze, and Iron Ages, which relates to statement iv. However, statement ii is incorrect as not all developed countries are extracting more minerals for their development.

Question 8.

Identify the main characteristics of quaternary activity from the following :
[1 Marks]
  • (A) It is linked with serving all the people of society.
  • (B) It is concerned with research and development.
  • (C) It is confined to increase the value of raw materials into finished products.
  • (D) It is associated with extraction of minerals for development.
Explanation:

The correct option is 'It is concerned with research and development.' This is because quaternary activities focus on the collection, production, and dissemination of information, which includes research and development, as indicated in the context provided.

Question 9.

Arrange the following airports of Asia from west to east as per their locations and choose the correct option:

i. Beijing

ii. Tokyo

iii. Aden

iv. Mumbai
[1 Marks]
  • (A) iii , iv , ii and 1
  • (B) iv, iii . ii and i
  • (C) iii, iv , i and ii
  • (D) iv , iii , i and ii
Explanation:

The correct arrangement of the airports from west to east is: Aden (iii), Mumbai (iv), Beijing (i), and Tokyo (ii). This is because Aden is located in Yemen to the southwest, followed by Mumbai in India, then Beijing in China, and lastly Tokyo in Japan to the east.

Question 10. The exported items by a port is first brought from different countries. This port is known as:
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Comprehensive Port
  • (B) Outports
  • (C) Entrepot Ports
  • (D) Packet Station
Explanation: The correct answer is 'Entrepot Ports'. Entrepot ports serve as collection centers where goods from various countries are brought together for export. This is supported by the context, which specifically identifies entrepot ports as locations like Singapore and Rotterdam that facilitate the import and export of goods from multiple sources.
Question 11.

Arrange the following oil refineries of India from south to north direction as per their locations and choose the correct option:

i. Mumbai

ii. Kochi

iii. Koyali

iv. Mangaluru
[1 Marks]
  • (A) ii , iv , i and iii
  • (B) ii , iv , iii and i
  • (C) iv , ii , i and iii
  • (D) iv , ii , iii and i
Explanation:

The correct arrangement from south to north is: Kochi (ii), Mangaluru (iv), Mumbai (i), and Koyali (iii). Kochi is located in Kerala, making it the southernmost. Mangaluru is slightly north of Kochi. Mumbai is situated north of Mangaluru, and Koyali, located in Gujarat, is the northernmost among these refineries.

Question 12.

Identify the district of the first phase of construction of Rajasthan canal:
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Barmer
  • (B) Jaisalmer
  • (C) Ganganagar
  • (D) Jodhpur
Explanation: The correct answer is Ganganagar because the context states that the command area of Stage-I lies in Ganganagar, Hanumangarh, and the northern part of Bikaner districts, indicating that Ganganagar was part of the first phase of the canal's construction.
Question 13.

Identify the main objective of Gas Authority of India Limited (GAIL) from the following:
[1 Marks]
  • (A) To transport and store natural gas at its depot.
  • (B) To transport, process and market natural gas.
  • (C) To process and allocate natural gas to different states.
  • (D) To sale, stored natural gas for greater profit
Explanation:

The correct option is 'To transport, process and market natural gas.' GAIL was established as a public sector undertaking specifically for the purpose of transporting, processing, and marketing natural gas, as mentioned in the provided context.

Question 14.

Read the following facts about ‘Swachh Bharat Mission’ carefully and choose the correct option:

i. It is a part of urban renewable mission.

ii. It is launched by Government of India.

iii. It is associated with improving greenery in urban areas.

iv. It is aimed to improve the quality of life in urban slums.
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Only i ii and iv are correct.
  • (B) Only i, ii and iii are correct.
  • (C) Only i iii and iv are correct.
  • (D) Only ii iii and iv are correct.
Explanation:

The correct answer is 'Only i, ii and iv are correct.'
Because the Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM) is:

  • Launched by the Government of India (ii),

  • A part of the urban renewal mission (i),

  • And aims to improve the quality of life in urban slums (iv).

However, it is not specifically associated with improving greenery in urban areas (iii), as its main focus is on sanitation, waste management, and cleanliness, not plantation or green cover.

Question 15.

Identify the unit to measure sound from the following:
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Particles per hundred
  • (B) Decibel
  • (C) Particles per thousand
  • (D) Nanometer
Explanation:

The correct option is 'Decibel'. This is because the level of steady noise is measured in terms of decibels (dB), as mentioned in the context provided.

Question 16.

Choose the correctly matched pair of areas and their characteristics from the following:
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Jhabua District - Bhil Tribe
  • (B) Daurala Meerut - Gaddi Tribe
  • (C) Bharmaur Tehsil - Dilapidated Houses
  • (D) Dharavi Mumbai - Groundwater Pollution
Explanation:

The correct option is 'Jhabua District ~~ Bhil Tribe'. This is because the context explicitly states that Jhabua district is characterized by a high concentration of tribal population, predominantly the Bhils, making this pairing accurate. The other options do not correctly match their respective areas with their characteristics based on the provided information.

Question 17.

"Some wastelands are rendered unfit for agriculture by human activities." Choose the correct option related to the statement:

i. Shifting cultivation area

ii.Coastal plains

iii. Degraded pastures

iv. Bhabar areas
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Only ii
  • (B) Only iii
  • (C) Both i and iii
  • (D) Both ii and iv
Explanation:

The correct option is 'Both i and iii'. Shifting cultivation areas and degraded pastures are both types of wastelands that can become unfit for agriculture due to human activities, such as overgrazing, deforestation, and poor management practices. The context mentions various types of degraded lands caused by human factors, implying that these categories are directly impacted.

Question 18.

Choose the correct option to fill in the blank: By 2050, the world population is estimated to live in urban areas is:
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Three fourth
  • (B) Half
  • (C) Two third
  • (D) Three fourth
Explanation:

The correct option is 'Two thirds'. According to the provided context, it is stated that the proportion of the world’s population living in urban areas is estimated to increase to 68 percent by 2050, which is approximately two thirds.

Question 19.

The priority of countries with high level of human development is providing education and healthcare. They are investing more in social sector. Altogether, a higher investment in people and good governance has set this group of countries apart from others.

Countries with medium levels of human development have emerged in the period after the Second World War. Many of these countries have been rapidly improving their human development score by adopting more people-oriented policies and reducing social discrimination.

The most important factor applicable with high human development countries is:
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Maximum investment in service sector
  • (B) Maximum investment in social sector
  • (C) Maximum investment in industrial development
  • (D) Maximum investment in agricultural development
Explanation:

Countries with high human development invest more in the social sectors such as education and healthcare. This investment is crucial as it enhances the quality of life and provides citizens with the capabilities required for better living conditions, thus reflecting the significance of the social sector in promoting human development.

Question 20.

The priority of countries with high level of human development is providing education and healthcare. They are investing more in social sector. Altogether, a higher investment in people and good governance has set this group of countries apart from others.

Countries with medium levels of human development have emerged in the period after the Second World War. Many of these countries have been rapidly improving their human development score by adopting more people-oriented policies and reducing social discrimination.

Which one of the following score of human development index shows the range for Medium category?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) 0.149
  • (B) 0.199
  • (C) 0.049
  • (D) 0.099
Explanation: The Medium category of human development is defined by scores between 0.550 and 0.699. Among the provided options, 0.649 falls within this range, making it the correct answer as it meets the criteria specified in the context.
Question 21.

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option:

Assertion (A): Water transport plays an important role in the international trade of India.

Reason (R): The east coast of India has more ports than its west coast.
[1 Marks]
  • (A) (C) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
  • (B) (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (C) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (D) (D) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
Explanation:

The correct option is (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). Assertion (A) is true because water transport is crucial for India's international trade, contributing significantly to the economy, as mentioned in the context. However, while the reason (R) is also true—India's east coast has more ports—the number of ports on either coast does not directly explain the importance of water transport in international trade.

Question 22.

Greater improvement among the medium level of human development countries is marked by:
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Environment related policies
  • (B) Development related policies
  • (C) Society oriented policies
  • (D) Economy oriented policies
Explanation:

Countries with medium human development focus on societal issues such as poverty alleviation, social discrimination, and improving the quality of life for citizens. Policies aimed at reducing social inequality and promoting education and healthcare are essential for improving their development scores. Thus the correct answer is (C) Society oriented policies.

Section C

Question 23. Nature and human are intricately inter-wined. Analyse the statement.
[3 Marks]
Answer: The statement highlights the deep relationship between nature and humans, emphasizing that they are not separate entities but interdependent. Primitive societies relied heavily on their environment for survival, utilizing resources for food, shelter, and clothing. This bond reflects in cultural practices where nature is revered and conserved. As humans evolve, their understanding of nature deepens, leading to sustainable practices. Ultimately, recognizing this interconnectedness promotes a holistic view of geography, blending natural and human elements.
Question 24. Human beings utilize the opportunities provided by nature. Analyse the statement.
[3 Marks]
Answer: The relationship between humans and nature is dynamic and reciprocal. Human beings have leveraged the various opportunities presented by the natural environment, from hilly terrains to deserts, to create gardens and habitats. Technology has allowed us to evolve from mere survival to a state of freedom where we modify our environments extensively. This interaction can be seen as 'possibilism', where nature's potential is maximized through human creativity. However, the process of humanization also changes nature, as evidenced by urban development and the exploration of outer space. In this way, nature acts both as a source of sustenance and a canvas for human endeavor while simultaneously reminding us of our dependence on it.
Question 25. Differentiate between rural and urban marketing centres with examples.
[3 Marks]
Answer: Rural marketing centres serve as quasi-urban hubs catering to nearby settlements, primarily focusing on basic goods and services needed by the rural population. They typically include mandis for wholesale trading and limited retail options, facilitating the exchange of goods on specified market days. Examples include small town markets like those found in Indian villages. On the other hand, urban marketing centres are characterized by their diverse and specialized services catering to urban populations. They offer a wide range of both basic and advanced goods, including consumer electronics and luxury items, and feature well-established retail chains. Examples are city malls and urban shopping complexes, where various services and products are available under one roof.
Question 26. Why should non-conventional sources of energy be used in India for sustainable development? Explain with examples.
[3 Marks]
Answer: Non-conventional sources of energy, such as solar, wind, hydro, geothermal, and biomass, are crucial for India's sustainable development. Firstly, these renewable resources are abundant and inexhaustible, unlike fossil fuels that are depleting rapidly. For example, India has immense potential for solar energy, particularly in desert regions, which allows for significant power generation without harming the environment. Additionally, wind energy from coastal areas can be harnessed effectively. These sources are not only eco-friendly but also lead to lower energy costs in the long run. Utilizing these alternative resources helps reduce carbon emissions and dependence on imported fossil fuels, promoting energy security.

Section D

Question 27. Define the terms immigration and emigration. Analyse demographic transitions theory in the world.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Immigration refers to the movement of individuals into a new country or region to settle there, while emigration is the process of leaving one country to live in another. In demographic transition theory, populations progress through various stages characterized by changes in birth and death rates. The first stage consists of high birth and death rates typical of agrarian societies. As societies industrialize, they experience lower death rates due to improved healthcare and sanitation but may still have high birth rates initially. This leads to a population explosion. Eventually, as education and urbanization increase, birth rates decline, leading to a stable population with low birth and death rates. Today, countries around the world exhibit different stages of this transition, influencing immigration patterns as populations seek better opportunities and living conditions.
Question 28. The cost of transport plays an important role in the location of industries. Justify the statement with examples.
[5 Marks]
Answer: The cost of transport significantly influences industrial location decisions, as lower transport costs can lead to higher profit margins. Industries seek locations that minimize production costs, and transport costs are a major component. For instance, industries in Western Europe and Eastern North America flourish due to well-developed transportation networks, facilitating the movement of raw materials and finished goods. Additionally, the proximity to ports allows for cost-effective shipping. An example includes the automobile industry in Detroit, which benefits from nearby raw material supplies and efficient transport routes, ensuring timely delivery and reduced logistics costs. Conversely, industries facing high transport costs may relocate to areas with better access to transportation, demonstrating the direct impact of transport costs on industrial location decisions.
Question 29. Dairy farming is practised mainly near urban and industrial centres. Justify the statement with examples.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Dairy farming is predominantly practiced near urban and industrial centers due to several key factors. Firstly, the proximity to urban areas provides a ready market for fresh milk and dairy products, reducing transportation costs and ensuring freshness. For instance, cities like Delhi and Mumbai have robust demand for dairy products, necessitating nearby supply sources. Secondly, the labor-intensive nature of dairy farming, which requires rigorous care in milking and feeding, benefits from the availability of a local workforce. Additionally, advancements in transportation and preservation methods, such as pasteurization and refrigeration, enhance the distribution and storage of dairy products. Regions like North Western Europe exemplify this phenomenon, where dairy farming flourishes due to high population density and industrial activities, creating a symbiotic relationship between dairy farming and urban centers. Furthermore, areas like Canada and South Eastern Australia also highlight how urbanized landscapes foster successful dairy farming operations. In essence, the combination of market demand, labor availability, and infrastructure makes urban and industrial centers ideal for dairy farming.
Question 30. Explain the meaning of ‘target area planning'. Analyse the need of ‘target area planning for development.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Target area planning refers to a systematic approach to development that focuses on specific geographic regions or communities that are economically and socially disadvantaged. This approach aims to address regional disparities by implementing tailored development programs that cater to the unique needs of these areas. Programs such as the Command Area Development Programme and the Drought Prone Area Development Programme exemplify this strategy by targeting areas with specific developmental challenges. The need for target area planning arises from the realization that economic development is not uniform across regions; some resource-rich areas may still lag due to a lack of investment, technology, or infrastructure. Consequently, target area planning plays a crucial role in directing funds and resources toward these neglected regions, fostering equitable growth and sustainable development. By addressing the particular needs of these areas, planning agencies can mitigate social and economic inequalities, helping to uplift marginalized communities and promote comprehensive national development.
Question 31. Explain the meaning of ‘regional planning'. Assess the outcomes of ‘Integrated Tribal Development Project in Bharmaur region.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Regional planning refers to a comprehensive approach to developing specific geographic areas by coordinating various sectors such as agriculture, industry, and social services. It aims to address regional disparities and ensure balanced development. The Integrated Tribal Development Project (ITDP) in Bharmaur region, initiated in the 1970s, aimed specifically at enhancing the socio-economic conditions of the tribal population. Outcomes of this project include significant improvements in infrastructure, such as schools, healthcare facilities, and roads, primarily benefiting villages along the river Ravi. However, challenges remain as some remote areas, like Tundah and Kugti, continue to lag in development. Overall, the ITDP has been instrumental in advancing tribal welfare, yet it highlights the need for ongoing efforts to reduce regional disparities in Himachal Pradesh.
Question 32. Indian Railways have facilitated the movement of both freight and passengers and contributed to the growth of the economy. Support the statement with suitable arguments.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Indian Railways plays a pivotal role in the economic framework of India by ensuring efficient movement of both freight and passengers. It connects different regions, facilitating trade and commerce, thus fostering economic growth. With a vast network spanning over 68,000 kilometers, it is instrumental in the transportation of essential goods like coal, food grains, and raw materials, which are crucial for industries. The Railways not only provide affordable travel options for millions but also create numerous job opportunities, contributing to employment. Furthermore, the railways help in reducing traffic congestion on roads, thereby cutting down on travel time and fuel consumption. The integration of rail transport with road networks enhances logistical efficiency, ensuring timely delivery of goods, thus boosting the overall economy. Moreover, Indian Railways has adopted modern technologies and initiatives like dedicated freight corridors, which significantly improve the speed and reliability of goods transport. Hence, the multifaceted contributions of Indian Railways towards enhancing connectivity, supporting industries, and facilitating trade underscore its significance in driving India’s economic growth.
Question 33. Indian ports have continuously been growing for successful international trade. Support the statement with suitable arguments.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Indian ports have played a crucial role in the growth of international trade due to several key factors. Firstly, India's strategic geographical location, surrounded by seas on three sides, facilitates easy maritime navigation and offers access to major global shipping routes. This promotes efficient and cost-effective transport of goods. Secondly, the historical evolution of ports, influenced by ancient trade practices and the British colonization, shapes the development of both major and minor ports across the country, enhancing their capacity. India currently boasts 12 major ports and around 200 minor ports, contributing to significant trade volumes. Moreover, modernization and infrastructure development in these ports have improved efficiency, allowing them to handle both domestic and international cargo effectively. Advanced facilities for loading, unloading, and storage have been established, attracting both local and international traders. The growth of industrial sectors in proximity to ports further enhances their importance as gateways for trade. In summary, India's ports are essential for its economy, thriving due to their strategic advantages, historical significance, and ongoing modernization efforts.
Question 34. Evaluate the National Youth Policy of India for overall development of youths and adolescents.
[5 Marks]
Answer: The National Youth Policy (NYP-2014) of India aims to empower the nation’s youth, defined as individuals aged 15-29, to help them realize their full potential. This policy addresses various areas including education, skill development, and entrepreneurship, recognizing that young people are critical for national progress. The policy emphasizes the importance of channeling their talents and creating opportunities for them, particularly in dealing with challenges like high drop-out rates, illiteracy, and health issues, especially among adolescent girls. The NYP also aligns with other initiatives such as the National Policy for Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (2015), which help structure skilling activities to meet market demands. By focusing on both physical and mental well-being, the NYP aims to reduce vulnerabilities, such as substance abuse, malnutrition, and juvenile delinquency, fostering a healthier and more productive youth. Overall, the NYP-2014 provides a comprehensive framework for addressing the needs of the large youth population in India and aims to integrate them into the socio-economic fabric of the country, thus preparing them to contribute positively to the community and nation at large.
Question 35.

Suggest the measure for overall development of youths and adolescents in India.
[5 Marks]
Answer: To ensure the overall development of youths and adolescents in India, several measures can be adopted. Firstly, education must be prioritized, as it is crucial for empowering youth. The National Youth Policy (NYP-2014) aims to provide better educational opportunities, focusing on skill development to harness their talents. Secondly, health and nutrition programs are essential to combat issues like malnutrition and maternal mortality. Access to healthcare services can mitigate the spread of diseases, including HIV/AIDS. Furthermore, awareness campaigns should be initiated to address social issues like drug abuse, juvenile delinquency, and the importance of mental health. Finally, creating platforms for youth participation in decision-making processes will ensure they have a voice in framing policies affecting them. By integrating these approaches, we can achieve comprehensive development, improving the quality of life for adolescents and youth, ultimately contributing to the nation's progress.

Paper Details

CBSE Board Exam 2025

Class

CLASS 12-HUMANITIES

Subject

GEOGRAPHY

Year

2025

Set

Set 1

Other Years — GEOGRAPHY

2022 Set-1

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2022 Set-2

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2022 Set-3

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2022 Set-4

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2022 Set-5

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2023 Set-1

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2023 Set-2

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2023 Set-3

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2023 Set-4

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2023 Set-5

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2024 Set-1

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2024 Set-2

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2024 Set-3

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2024 Set-4

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2024 Set-5

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2025 Set-1

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2025 Set-2

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2025 Set-3

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2025 Set-4

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2025 Set-5

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2025 Set-6

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