geography/
previous-year-question-paper-2024-set-1

SOLUTIONS

2024 BOARD EXAM

CBSE CLASS 12-HUMANITIES GEOGRAPHY Board Paper 2024 — Set 1

2024

GEOGRAPHY

CLASS 12-HUMANITIES

CBSE EXAMINATION SOLVED PAPER-2024 GEOGRAPHY

CBSE EXAMINATION PAPER-2024

GEOGRAPHY

(Solved)

Time allowed : 3 hours

Maximum Marks : 72

General Instructions :

Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :

  1. This question paper contains 37 questions. All questions are compulsory.
  2. This question paper is divided into 4 sections.
  3. Section A – questions number 1 to 9 are case based questions
  4. Section B – questions number 10 to 23 are multiple choice questions
  5. Section C – questions number 24 to 29 are short answer
  6. Section D – questions number 30 to 37 are long answer
  7. There is no overall choice given in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions.
  8. Use of calculator is NOT allowed.

Section A

Question 1.

Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Services occur at many different levels. Some are geared to industry, some to people, and some to both industry and people, e.g., the transport systems. Services, such as grocery shops and laundries are more common and widespread than high-order services or more specialized ones like those of accountants, consultants and physicians. Services are provided to individual consumers who can afford to pay for them. For example, the gardener, the launderers and the barber do primarily physical labour. Teachers, lawyers, physicians, musicians and others perform mental labour.

Many services have now been regulated. Making and maintaining highways and bridges, maintaining fire fighting departments and supplying or supervising education and customer care are among the important services most often supervised or performed by governments or companies. State and Union legislation have established corporations to supervise and control the marketing of such services as transport, telecommunication, energy and water supply. Professional services are primarily health care, engineering, law and management. The location of recreational and entertainment services depends on the market.

(1) Who supervises and controls the marketing of services?

[1 Marks]
Answer: The supervision and control of the marketing of services are typically overseen by governments and companies. According to the passage, both State and Union legislation have established corporations specifically to regulate and manage the marketing of essential services, which include transport, telecommunication, energy, and water supply. This regulatory framework ensures that these critical services are delivered efficiently and effectively to meet public needs.
Key Points: Governments oversee service marketing - State and Union legislation establish corporations - Services include transport, telecommunication, energy, and water supply

(2) Mention any one example of common and widespread services.

[1 Marks]
Answer: One example of a common and widespread service is grocery shops. These services are accessible to a large number of people and are essential for everyday needs, making them more prevalent than specialized services.
Key Points: grocery shops - more common - essential for everyday needs

(3)

"Services occur at many different levels." Support the statement.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The statement that services occur at many different levels can be supported by examining the various categories of services presented in the passage. Firstly, services can be divided based on their target audience, with some services specifically aimed at industries, while others cater to individuals. For instance, transport systems benefit both industries and the general populace, showcasing how services can serve dual roles. Furthermore, the passage highlights the distinction between low-order services, like grocery shops and laundries, which are commonly accessible, and high-order services, such as those provided by accountants and physicians, which are more specialized and less widespread. This illustrates the varying complexity and exclusivity of services available. Additionally, professional services such as healthcare, law, and management signify another layer of service provision, indicating a higher level of specialization and regulation. Finally, geographical factors also play a role, as the location of services such as entertainment and recreation is strategically chosen based on market demands, further underscoring the diverse levels at which services operate. Overall, the multifaceted nature of services emphasizes their availability and specialization across different sectors and levels.
Key Points: Services are categorized by target audience; Low-order vs high-order services; Professional services indicate specialization; Geographical factors influence service location
Question 2.

Study the given diagram carefully and answer the questions that follow:

(1) In 2014-15, which category of land use has undergone the highest net increase in comparison to 1950-51?

[1 Marks]
Answer: In the comparison between land use categories from 1950-51 to 2014-15, the category that has undergone the highest net increase is 'Land under Non-agricultural Uses'. This category encompasses land used for settlements, infrastructure, industries, and commerce. The significant increase reflects the rapid development in urbanization and secondary and tertiary sector activities over the decades, resulting in a marked transformation of land use patterns in India. This trend reveals the shift in focus from primarily agricultural uses to extensive development in urban and industrial sectors.
Key Points: Land under Non-agricultural Uses has seen the highest net increase; reflects urbanization and industrial growth; indicates a shift from agricultural to non-agricultural land use.

(2) In 2014-15, which category of land use has undergone the highest net decline in comparison to 1950-51?

[1 Marks]
Answer: In comparing land use categories from 1950-51 to 2014-15, the category that has experienced the highest net decline is the area categorized as barren and wasteland. This decline can be attributed to various factors, including increased agricultural pressures and the conversion of such lands into more productive uses. Additionally, the rise in population and urban expansion has significantly influenced land utilization patterns, leading to a reduction in wastelands. The data reflects that as economic activities intensified, the demand for productive land increased, resulting in wastelands being diminished over time.
Key Points: Barren and wasteland have the highest net decline; Increased agricultural and urban pressures; Economic activities influence land-use patterns.

(3) Mention any two reasons for the decline in land under culturable wasteland.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The decline in land under culturable wasteland can be attributed to several factors. Firstly, increasing pressure from both agricultural and non-agricultural sectors has led to a reduction in available land categorized as culturable wasteland. As urbanization intensifies, lands previously designated as wasteland are being converted to accommodate infrastructure, buildings, and other developments. Secondly, the decline in areas under tree crops and groves, pressured by the need for more agricultural land, also contributes to the overall reduction of culturable wasteland. These factors reflect the broader trends in land use and pressure on natural resources, leading to a decrease in the available culturable wasteland.
Key Points: Pressure from agricultural and non-agricultural sectors-Conversion of wasteland to urban uses-Decline in land under tree crops and groves

(4)

"Land use in a region, to a large extent, is influenced by the nature of economic activities carried out in that region." Support the statement in three points.

[3 Marks]
Answer: Land use in a region is significantly influenced by economic activities for several reasons. Firstly, as the size of the economy increases due to population growth and higher income levels, there is a greater demand for land for residential, commercial, and industrial purposes. This shift often results in agricultural land being converted for urban development. Secondly, the transition from agrarian economies to industrial and service-based economies creates additional pressure on land usage, as areas are repurposed for manufacturing, infrastructure, and trade facilities. Thirdly, even though the overall agricultural contribution to the economy may diminish, the pressure to maintain agricultural production remains constant, leading to intensified land use in agriculture, such as the cultivation of marginal lands. Overall, these changes illustrate the dynamic relationship between economic activities and land use.
Key Points: Increasing demand for land due to economic growth; Transition from agricultural to non-agricultural land use; Continuous pressure on land for agricultural activities despite economic shifts.
Question 3.

Question 4.
Question 5.

On the given political outline map of the World (on page 21), seven geographical features have been marked as A, B, C, D, E, F and G. Identify any five with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them :

Question 6.

On the given political outline map of the World (on page 21), seven geographical features have been marked as A, B, C, D, E, F and G.

Identify any five with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them :

(1)

An area of extensive commercial grain farming

[1 Marks]
Answer: The area marked on the map as an extensive commercial grain farming region is the American Prairie, also known as the Corn Belt. This region is characterized by large mechanized farms where crops like wheat, corn, barley, and oats are cultivated extensively. Other notable areas of extensive grain farming include the Pampas of Argentina, the Velds of South Africa, the European steppes, the Australian Downs, and the Canterbury Plains of New Zealand. Each of these areas demonstrates significant agricultural practices that contribute to global food production.
Key Points: American Prairie-Pampas of Argentina-Velds of South Africa-European steppes-Australian Downs-Canterbury Plains of New Zealand

(2)

A shipping canal

[1 Marks]
Answer: One of the most significant shipping canals in the world is the Suez Canal. Constructed in 1869, it connects the Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea, allowing for direct shipping routes between Europe and Asia. Another important shipping canal is the Panama Canal, which connects the Atlantic and Pacific Oceans and was completed in 1914. These canals facilitate global trade by providing shorter, safer navigation routes, thereby reducing travel time and distance for shipping vessels.
Key Points: Suez Canal-constructed in 1869- connects Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea- facilitates trade between Europe and Asia; Panama Canal-connects Atlantic and Pacific Oceans-important for global shipping

(3)

A major airport in Japan

[1 Marks]
Answer: The major airport in Japan is Narita International Airport. Located near Tokyo, it serves as a key hub for both domestic and international flights, connecting Japan with numerous destinations around the world.
Key Points: Narita International Airport-by proximity to Tokyo-international hub for flights-connects Japan globally

(4)

A major sea port in Australia

[1 Marks]
Answer: A major sea port in Australia is Sydney Harbour. It is one of the busiest and most important ports in the country, serving as a significant hub for international shipping, trade, and transport.
Key Points: Sydney Harbour - Important hub for international shipping - Busiest port in Australia

(5)

A major sea port of South America

[1 Marks]
Answer: A major sea port of South America is the Port of Santos, located in Brazil. It is the largest and busiest port in the region, handling a significant portion of Brazil's exports, including coffee, sugar, and soybeans. The port's strategic location near São Paulo, one of the largest cities in Brazil, also enhances its importance in international trade.
Key Points: Port of Santos, Brazil - largest port in South America - handles coffee, sugar, soybeans - strategic location near São Paulo

(6)

A major inland waterway

[1 Marks]
Answer: A major inland waterway is the Danube Waterway. It rises in the Black Forest and flows eastwards through several countries, serving as a key transport route in Eastern Europe. It is significant for its navigability, facilitating the export of goods such as wheat, maize, timber, and machinery.
Key Points: Danube Waterway - rises in Black Forest - flows eastwards through countries - navigable up to Taurna Severin - chief export items wheat, maize, timber, machinery

(7)

An area of subsistence gathering

[1 Marks]
Answer: An area of subsistence gathering typically refers to regions where communities rely primarily on local resources to meet their basic needs. These areas are characterized by traditional forms of living that may include activities such as hunting, gathering, fishing, and small-scale agriculture. Common examples of such areas include regions in the Arctic, where indigenous populations engage in hunting and fishing, or forest areas where gathering of wild plants is prevalent. Such subsistence practices are often affected by environmental conditions, availability of resources, and cultural practices of the local population.
Key Points: Definition of subsistence gathering-Examples of areas engaged in subsistence gathering-Importance of local resources and traditional practices

(8)

Name a major area of extensive commercial grain farming in Africa.

[1 Marks]
Answer: A major area of extensive commercial grain farming in Africa is the Velds of South Africa. This region is characterized by vast grasslands suitable for growing grains and livestock farming, contributing significantly to the agricultural economy of the country.
Key Points: Velds of South Africa-Extensive commercial grain farming-Wide grasslands-contributes to agriculture

(9)

Name the canal linking Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The canal linking the Mediterranean Sea and the Red Sea is the Suez Canal. Constructed in 1869 in Egypt, it serves as a vital maritime route facilitating trade between Europe and Asia by providing a shortcut that reduces travel distance. Unlike traditional canals, the Suez Canal is a sea-level canal, which means it does not have locks, allowing for seamless navigation.
Key Points: Suez Canal-Constructed in 1869-Egypt-Links Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea-Sea-level canal without locks-Reduces travel distance between Europe and Asia

(10)

Name the major sea port located in western part of Australia.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The major sea port located in the western part of Australia is Perth. It is a significant port city known for its natural harbor and serves as a major gateway for trade in and out of Australia.
Key Points: Perth is the major sea port in western Australia- it serves as a natural harbor- it is important for trade and transportation

(11)

Name the major sea port of Brazil.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The major sea port of Brazil is Santos. It is located in the state of São Paulo and is one of the busiest and most important ports in South America, handling a significant amount of both cargo and passenger traffic.
Key Points: Santos Port is in São Paulo-Busy port in South America-Handles cargo and passenger traffic

(12)

Name the major airport of Japan.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The major airport of Japan is Tokyo International Airport, commonly known as Haneda Airport. It serves as a primary hub for both domestic and international flights, making it one of the busiest airports in the world. Another significant airport is Narita International Airport, which mainly handles international air traffic.
Key Points: Tokyo International Airport, also known as Haneda Airport; major hub for domestic and international flights; one of the busiest airports in the world; Narita International Airport is another important airport.

(13)

Which is the major inland waterway in North America ?

[1 Marks]
Answer: The major inland waterway in North America is the Great Lakes – St. Lawrence Seaway. This seaway includes the Great Lakes of Superior, Huron, Erie, and Ontario, which are interconnected by canals such as the Soo Canal and the Welland Canal. This waterway is vital for trade as it allows large ocean-going vessels to navigate deep into the continent, reaching ports like Duluth and Buffalo.
Key Points: Great Lakes – St. Lawrence Seaway; interconnected lakes; Soo Canal and Welland Canal; important for trade; ports like Duluth and Buffalo

(14)

Name the main area of subsistence gathering in Africa.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The main area of subsistence gathering in Africa is the tropical regions where primitive subsistence agriculture is widely practiced. This includes areas in Central Africa, where various tribes engage in shifting cultivation and rely on natural resources for their livelihood.
Key Points: Tropical regions-Primitive subsistence agriculture-Shifting cultivation-Tribes in Central Africa
Question 7.

Answer any five questions out of the following :

(29.1) Name a major area of extensive commercial grain farming in Africa.

(29.2) Name the canal linking Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea.

(29.3) Name the major sea port located in western part of Australia. (29.4) Name the major airport of Japan.

(29.5) Name the major sea port of Brazil.

(29.6) Name the main area of subsistence gathering in Africa.

(29.7) Which is the major inland waterway in North America ?

Question 8.

On the given political outline map of India (on page 23), locate and label any five of the following seven geographical features with appropriate symbols :

Question 9.

On the given political outline map of India, locate and label any five of the following seven geographical features with appropriate symbols :

(1)

Tuticorin : Major sea port

[1 Marks]
Answer: Tuticorin, also known as Thoothukudi, is a major sea port located on the southeastern coast of India in Tamil Nadu. It plays a crucial role in relieving congestion at the Chennai port. The port facilitates the handling of various types of cargo, including coal, salt, food grains, edible oils, sugar, chemicals, and petroleum products. This strategic port aids in enhancing maritime trade and connects the region to global shipping routes. Label Tuticorin on the map using a appropriate symbol for a major port.
Key Points: Location in Tamil Nadu - Major functions - Types of cargo handled - Importance in maritime trade

(2)

Khetri : Copper mines

[1 Marks]
Answer: Khetri is located in the northern part of Rajasthan, India. It is famous for its copper mines, which contain a significant amount of copper ore and contribute to the country's mineral wealth. On the political outline map of India, mark Khetri by placing a circle or dot symbol with 'Khetri' written next to it. Additionally, label this feature as copper mines to indicate its importance in mineral extraction. Its geographical significance lies in the region's rich geological formations that favor the presence of metallic minerals.
Key Points: Location in Rajasthan-Copper mines symbol-Importance of mineral resources

(3)

An international airport in Punjab

[1 Marks]
Answer: The international airport located in Punjab is the Chandigarh International Airport. It serves as a key hub for international flights and is strategically located to cater to the northern regions of India. The airport features modern facilities and plays an important role in connecting Punjab to various global destinations, enhancing both tourism and trade. The airport can be marked on the political outline map of India at the coordinates approximately 30.52° N latitude and 76.85° E longitude.
Key Points: Chandigarh International Airport-located in Punjab-plays key role in connecting to international destinations

(4)

Leading rice producing state

[1 Marks]
Answer: The leading rice-producing states in India are West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh, and Punjab. On the political map, I will label these states with appropriate symbols. West Bengal is located in the eastern part of India and is known for its high rice production due to favorable climatic conditions and irrigation facilities. Uttar Pradesh, located in the northern region, also contributes significantly to rice production, largely due to its large area under cultivation. Punjab, situated in the northwestern part, is famous for its high yield of rice, benefiting from extensive irrigation through canals and tube wells. Therefore, I will mark these three states on the map.
Key Points: West Bengal-Uttar Pradesh-Punjab

(5)

Oil refinery in Uttar Pradesh

[1 Marks]
Answer: To locate the oil refinery in Uttar Pradesh on the political outline map of India, first, identify the state of Uttar Pradesh, which is located in the northern part of India. Then, use a suitable symbol, such as a small oil droplet or an oil rig icon, to clearly mark the location of the oil refinery. It is important to remember that Uttar Pradesh has significant oil refining facilities, and labeling the specific city, like Mathura or Bina, would enhance the accuracy of the map marking.
Key Points: Identify Uttar Pradesh on the map; Use a recognizable symbol for oil refinery; Specify the city (like Mathura or Bina) for accuracy

(6)

State with the highest density of population

[1 Marks]
Answer: The state with the highest density of population in India is Uttar Pradesh. With a significant share of the country’s population, Uttar Pradesh's density is notably high due to various factors such as agriculture, urbanization, and historical settlements. Unlike many other states, it has a relatively small geographical area compared to its population, which contributes to its high density. This demonstrates the uneven distribution of population in India which is influenced by physical, socioeconomic, and historical factors.
Key Points: Uttar Pradesh has the highest population density-Influence of agriculture and urbanization-Small geographical area related to large population

(7)

Jharia : Coal mines

[1 Marks]
Answer: Jharia, located in the Dhanbad district of Jharkhand, is the largest coal mining area in India. It is part of the Damodar Valley coalfields and is known for its high-quality coking coal. When marking Jharia on the map, I would use a symbol representing coal mines, such as a coal cart icon. The presence of coal reserves in Sone, Mahanadi, and Godavari valleys underscores the significance of the Jharia coal field in India's energy resources.
Key Points: Jharia is the largest coal field in India-Coal mines are crucial for energy production-Location in the Damodar Valley coalfields-Use of appropriate symbol for marking-High-quality coking coal.

(8)

Name the state where Tuticorin sea port is located.

[1 Marks]
Answer: Tuticorin sea port is located in the state of Tamil Nadu. This strategic port plays a vital role in easing the traffic at Chennai port and handles a variety of cargo, contributing to the economic development of the region.
Key Points: Located in Tamil Nadu-Tuticorin port's role in relieving Chennai port-pressure-variety of cargo handled

(9)

Name the state where Khetri copper mines are located.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The Khetri copper mines are located in the state of Rajasthan, India. This region is known for its significant deposits of copper and other minerals, which are associated with the Aravali range.
Key Points: Khetri copper mines-Rajasthan-mineral resources-copper deposits-Aravali range

(10)

Name the place where an international airport is located in Punjab.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The international airport located in Punjab is in Amritsar. The Sri Guru Ram Dass Jee International Airport serves as the primary international gateway for the northern region, offering various domestic and international flights.
Key Points: Amritsar - location of international airport; Sri Guru Ram Dass Jee International Airport; serves northern India; connects various domestic and international destinations

(11)

Name the leading rice producing state.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The leading rice producing state in India is West Bengal. It plays a significant role in the country's overall rice production, contributing to approximately 22.07 percent of the world’s rice supply. Additionally, rice farming in West Bengal is mainly supported by irrigated land, ensuring high yield levels. Along with West Bengal, states like Uttar Pradesh and Punjab also contribute significantly to rice production in India.
Key Points: West Bengal, leading rice producer, contributes 22.07% of world rice, irrigated land supports high yields

(12)

Name the place where oil refinery is located in Uttar Pradesh.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The oil refinery located in Uttar Pradesh is situated in the city of Mathura. This refinery is significant as it plays a crucial role in meeting the petroleum needs of northern India and contributes to India's energy resources.
Key Points: Mathura - location of the oil refinery in Uttar Pradesh - significant for petroleum needs - part of India's energy resources

(13)

Name the state where Jharia coal mines are located.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The Jharia coal mines are located in the state of Jharkhand. This region is known for its rich coal deposits and is part of the larger Damodar Valley coal belt, which includes important coal fields such as Raniganj, Bokaro, Giridih, and Karanpura.
Key Points: Jharia coal mines-Jharkhand-coal deposits-Damodar Valley-coal fields

(14)

Name the state with highest density of population.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The state with the highest density of population in India is Uttar Pradesh. This state has a high population density due to a large population in relation to its land area, as well as factors like agricultural productivity and economic opportunities that attract people to settle there. According to statistical data, Uttar Pradesh accounts for a significant portion of the overall population of India, highlighting its demographic significance.
Key Points: Uttar Pradesh-highest density of population-factors include large population, agricultural productivity, economic opportunities

Section B

Question 10. Which one of the following language groups is the smallest in India?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Sanskrit, Bodo and Manipuri
  • (B) Kannada, Tamil and Telugu
  • (C) Dogri, Punjabi and Konkani
  • (D) Maithili, Gujarati and Bangla
Explanation: The correct answer is 'Sanskrit, Bodo and Manipuri.' According to the provided context, it is stated that the smallest language groups include the speakers of Sanskrit, Bodo, and Manipuri as of 2011.
Question 11.

Which one of the following is able to purchase merchandise more economically, by contacting the manufacturers to produce the goods according to their specification?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Departmental Stores
  • (B) Chain Stores
  • (C) Consumer Cooperatives
  • (D) Trading Centres
Explanation: Chain stores are able to purchase merchandise most economically as they often contact manufacturers to have goods produced according to their specifications. This allows them to negotiate better prices and control the quality of the products, leveraging their buying power and economies of scale.
Question 12. Synthetic fibre and plastic manufacturing is an example of which one of the following?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Mineral-based industry
  • (B) Chemical-based industry
  • (C) Forest-based industry
  • (D) Animal-based industry
Explanation: The correct answer is 'Chemical-based industry' because synthetic fibres and plastics are derived from natural chemicals and undergo chemical processes during their production. This aligns with the context provided, which states that industries focused on synthetic fibre and plastic fall under the umbrella of chemical-based industries due to their reliance on chemical raw materials.
Question 13. Which one of the following pairs is matched correctly?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Hill Area Development Programme - Semi-arid and Arid tracts of India
  • (B) Drought Prone Area Programme - 15 Hilly Districts
  • (C) Indira Gandhi Canal Command Area - Ganganagar, Hanumangarh
  • (D) Integrated Tribal Development Project - Rajasthan and Gujarat
Explanation: The correct pair is 'Indira Gandhi Canal Command Area - Ganganagar, Hanumangarh'. This is accurate because the Indira Gandhi Canal primarily benefits the districts of Ganganagar and Hanumangarh in Rajasthan, focusing on irrigation and agricultural development in these arid areas.
Question 14.

Read the following objectives regarding National Policy for Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (2015) carefully and choose the most appropriate option:

I. To improve the literacy rate of different age groups in India.

II. To provide umbrella framework to all skilling activities.

III. To align all skilling activities to common standards.

IV. To link skilling activities with demand centres.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Only II, III and IV are correct.
  • (B) Only I, III and IV are correct.
  • (C) Only I, II and IV are correct.
  • (D) Only I, II and III are correct.
Explanation: The correct option is 'Only II, III and IV are correct.' This is because the context highlights that the National Policy for Skill Development and Entrepreneurship aims to provide an umbrella framework for skilling activities, align them to common standards, and link them with demand centres. However, improving the literacy rate itself is not explicitly mentioned as an objective of this policy.
Question 15. What is the other name of Rainfed type of farming?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Protective farming
  • (B) Productive farming
  • (C) Zaid
  • (D) Barani
Explanation: The correct answer is 'Barani' because, according to the context provided, rainfed farming is explicitly classified as 'barani'. This term is used to describe farming that relies solely on rainfall for moisture, as outlined in the section discussing types of farming based on the source of moisture.
Question 16. Which one of the following is not the objective of Namami Gange Programme?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Developing sewerage treatment systems in towns
  • (B) Monitoring of industrial effluents
  • (C) Afforestation along the banks of the river
  • (D) To divert the flow of the river from the cities
Explanation: The correct answer is 'To divert the flow of the river from the cities'. This option is not an objective of the Namami Gange Programme, which primarily focuses on cleaning the river, improving sewage treatment, and enhancing biodiversity, rather than altering the river's natural flow.
Question 17. Choose the correct option regarding the stretch of National Waterways No. 1:
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Allahabad/Prayagraj - Haldia
  • (B) Sadiya - Dhubri
  • (C) Kottapuram - Kollam
  • (D) Kakinada - Puducherry
Explanation: The correct option is 'Allahabad/Prayagraj - Haldia'. National Waterway No. 1 stretches from Allahabad to Haldia, covering 1,620 km. This waterway is significant as it is navigable by mechanical boats up to Patna and by ordinary boats up to Haridwar, and it is divided into three parts for development: Haldia-Farakka, Farakka-Patna, and Patna-Allahabad.
Question 18.

Study the following statements carefully and choose the correct option:

Statement I : In India, after independence, some old towns around metropolitan cities developed as satellite towns.

Statement II : Delhi is a good example of such metropolitan cities.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Both statements I and II are correct, but statement II is not the correct example of statement I.
  • (B) Only statement I is correct.
  • (C) Both statements I and II are correct and statement II is the correct example of statement I.
  • (D) Only statement II is correct.
Explanation: Both statements I and II are correct and statement II is the correct example of statement I. After independence, numerous towns developed as satellite towns around metropolitan cities, and Delhi, with towns like Ghaziabad and Gurugram, serves as a prime example of this phenomenon.
Question 19. Which one of the following is a reason for the emergence of clustered settlements in Rajasthan? Choose the most appropriate option.
[1 Marks]
  • (A) For the maximum utilization of land resources.
  • (B) For external security and defence.
  • (C) For maximum utilization of available water resources.
  • (D) For internal security and defence.
Explanation: The correct answer is 'For maximum utilization of available water resources.' Due to the scarcity of water in Rajasthan, it is necessary for people to live in compact settlements to make the best use of the limited water resources available. This factor significantly influences the formation of clustered settlements in the region.
Question 20. Which one of the following is the biggest government undertaking in the country?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) National Highways Authority of India
  • (B) Indian Railways
  • (C) Border Roads Organization
  • (D) All India Radio
Explanation: The correct answer is 'Indian Railways.' It is one of the largest railway networks in the world and a significant government undertaking, providing essential connectivity and transportation across the country. The National Highways Authority of India oversees the development of national highways, while Border Roads Organization focuses on specific strategic roads, and All India Radio serves as a broadcasting entity.
Question 21. Choose the correct option regarding mining towns of India:
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Kandla, Kochchi and Kozhikode
  • (B) Ankaleshwar, Singrauli and Digboi
  • (C) Mumbai, Salem and Modinagar
  • (D) Varanasi, Roorki and Aligarh
Explanation: The correct option is 'Ankaleshwar, Singrauli and Digboi' because these towns are explicitly mentioned in the provided context as examples of mining towns that have developed in mineral-rich areas in India.
Question 22. Which of the following organisations sets the rules for the global trading among its member nations? Choose the most appropriate option.
[1 Marks]
  • (A) United Nations
  • (B) World Trade Organisation
  • (C) North American Free Trade Association
  • (D) South Asian Free Trade Agreement
Explanation: The correct answer is World Trade Organisation because it is the only international organization that deals with the global rules of trade between nations. It was established from the General Agreement for Tariffs and Trade (GATT) on January 1, 1995, and is responsible for promoting free and fair trade, as well as resolving disputes among its member nations.
Question 23.

Read the case study given below and answer Q.

Stages of Demographic Transition Theory

The first stage of demographic transition theory has high fertility and high mortality because people reproduce more to compensate for the deaths due to epidemics and variable food supply. The population growth is slow and most of the people are engaged in agriculture, where large families are an asset. Life expectancy is low, people are mostly illiterate and have low levels of technology. Two hundred years ago, all the countries of the world were in this stage.

Fertility remains high in the beginning of second stage but it declines with time. This is accompanied by reduced mortality rate. Improvements in sanitation and health conditions lead to decline in mortality. Because of this gap, the net addition to population is high.

In the last stage, both fertility and mortality decline considerably. The population is either stable or grows slowly. The population becomes urbanized, literate and has high technical know-how and deliberately controls the family size.

This shows that human beings are extremely flexible and are able to adjust their fertility.

In the present day, different countries are at different stages of demographic transition.

Choose the most appropriate option from the following regarding components of population change:

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Births, deaths and migration
  • (B) Deaths, literacy and sex ratio
  • (C) Births, density and migration
  • (D) Density, literacy and age structure
Explanation: The correct option is 'Births, deaths and migration'. This is because the demographic transition theory describes how populations change over time through variations in fertility (births), mortality (deaths), and migration patterns, which are essential components in analyzing population dynamics.

Section C

Question 24. Explain the criticisms faced by the World Trade Organization.
[3 Marks]
Answer: The World Trade Organization (WTO) has faced significant criticism from various groups concerned about the ramifications of free trade and economic globalization. Critics argue that free trade has not improved the lives of ordinary people but instead has widened the gap between rich and poor nations. Wealthy countries often prioritize their own commercial interests, which disproportionately benefits them and exacerbates global inequalities. Additionally, many developed nations have been accused of failing to uphold the principles of fair trade, leading to an imbalance in the global trading system. This criticism stems from the belief that while the WTO aims to promote free trade, it often neglects the socioeconomic impacts on marginalized populations. As a result, the organization challenges the equitable distribution of wealth and can perpetuate cycles of poverty in developing nations.
Question 25.

What is 'Balance of trade' ? Explain the characteristics of Balance of Trade.

[3 Marks]
Answer: The Balance of Trade (BOT) is a crucial economic indicator that represents the difference between a country's exports and imports of goods and services. A positive balance occurs when exports exceed imports, indicating that the country is earning more from its sales abroad than it spends on foreign goods. Conversely, a negative balance occurs when imports exceed exports, which can lead to financial strain. Key characteristics include the ability to impact a nation's currency value, influence economic policies, and reflect the health of the economy. A persistent negative balance may deplete reserves, while a positive balance can enhance national income and promote growth.
Question 26. Explain any three characteristics of Phase II of growth of population in India.
[3 Marks]
Answer: Phase II of India’s population growth, spanning from 1921 to 1951, is characterized by steady growth due to various factors. Firstly, there was an overall improvement in health and sanitation, which significantly reduced mortality rates. Secondly, while the fertility rates remained high during this phase, the advancements in health led to a widening gap between birth and death rates, resulting in a net population increase. Lastly, socio-economic reforms during this period contributed to the better quality of life, leading to longer life expectancy. This phase thus laid the groundwork for the significant population explosion that followed in the succeeding decades.
Question 27. Explain with example the concept of environmental determinism.
[3 Marks]
Answer: Environmental determinism is the theory that human behaviors and societal development are defined by their physical environment. This concept suggests that, especially in primitive societies, people are greatly influenced by natural surroundings. For instance, early human communities relied heavily on nearby rivers for water, leading to settled agricultural practices and the development of civilizations. Their limited technology meant they had to adapt to the forces of nature rather than control them. Therefore, environmental determinism emphasizes how environmental factors shape human life, restricting social progress until technology advances allow greater interaction with the environment.
Question 28.

"The dichotomy between physical and human is not a very valid one." Explain the statement with example.

[3 Marks]
Answer: The statement underscores the inseparable relationship between the physical environment and human activities. For instance, consider a river's influence on a settlement. The river not only provides essential resources such as water and food but also shapes human culture, economy, and social structures around it. This dynamic interplay reflects that human geography cannot be separated from physical geography. Scholars like Ellen C. Semple and Paul Vidal de la Blache emphasize this integration, highlighting how human beings adapt to, modify, and enhance their natural surroundings, thereby creating a holistic understanding of geography that reinforces the idea that humans and the earth are inextricably linked.
Question 29. Explain any three problems of slums in India.
[3 Marks]
Answer: Slums in India face numerous challenges, significantly impacting the quality of life of their residents. Firstly, inadequate housing and poor infrastructure are primary issues. Slums consist of dilapidated structures that lack basic amenities such as potable water, sanitation facilities, and proper waste management systems. This leads to unsanitary living conditions. Secondly, health issues are rampant in these areas due to overcrowding and exposure to environmental hazards. Residents are prone to various diseases, exacerbated by poor nutrition and limited healthcare access. Lastly, the socio-economic challenges, such as low-paying jobs in unorganized sectors, prevent families from breaking the cycle of poverty, thereby restricting their children’s access to education and a better future.

Section D

Question 30.

How is the "Human Development Index" measured? Explain key areas of human development.

[5 Marks]
Answer: The Human Development Index (HDI) is a composite statistic used to rank countries based on human development levels. It is calculated through three key dimensions: health, education, and standard of living. Health is measured by life expectancy at birth, reflecting the longevity of a population. Education encompasses both the mean years of schooling and expected years of schooling, which assesses the educational attainment of citizens. The standard of living is gauged by Gross National Income (GNI) per capita, adjusted for purchasing power parity. Each dimension contributes equally to the final HDI score, which ranges from 0 (lowest level of human development) to 1 (highest). The HDI offers insights into the overall well-being of citizens beyond mere economic indicators, influencing policies aimed at improving quality of life. Countries with higher HDI scores typically enjoy better health outcomes, educational resources, and greater economic opportunities. Since 1990, the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) releases the Human Development Report annually, providing a global ranking of countries and promoting strategies to enhance human development and eradicate poverty.
Question 31. Name the canal connecting the Atlantic Ocean and the Pacific Ocean. Explain its main features.
[5 Marks]
Answer: The Panama Canal is the vital waterway that connects the Atlantic Ocean to the Pacific Ocean, running through the narrow Isthmus of Panama. Its construction was initiated by the U.S. government, which created a unique Canal Zone by acquiring 8 km of land on either side of the canal. This strategic channel significantly reduces maritime travel time, shortening the distance between New York and San Francisco by 13,000 km. The canal plays an essential role in global trade, linking major ports in North America such as Los Angeles and San Francisco with Asian cities like Yokohama and Shanghai. In addition, it facilitates trade connections between Western Europe and the Americas with routes extending to Australia and New Zealand. Economically, while its significance is viewed as less than that of the Suez Canal, it remains crucial for Latin American economies, thus enhancing international maritime transportation and trade efficiency.
Question 32. Explain the main features of the Rhine Waterways.
[5 Marks]
Answer: The Rhine Waterways are among the most significant inland transport routes in Europe. Stretching for 700 km from Rotterdam in the Netherlands to Basel in Switzerland, the Rhine is navigable for large vessels, including ocean-going ships that can reach as far as Cologne. A critical feature of the Rhine is its connection to industrial regions, particularly the Ruhr valley, which is rich in coal and has thriving manufacturing industries. This connectivity enables the efficient movement of goods across borders. Major ports such as Mannheim and Duisburg facilitate the exchange of cargo from over 20,000 ocean-going and 200,000 inland vessels each year, contributing significantly to the economy. The continuous flow of water and the relatively deep channels allow for year-round navigation, enhancing its utility as a trade route. Furthermore, urban centers along its banks, like Düsseldorf, play a vital role in commerce and transport logistics, making the Rhine Waterways an essential artery for trade in Western Europe.
Question 33. Analyze the main features of Plantation Agriculture in the world.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Plantation agriculture is a system of large-scale farming that originated from European colonization in tropical regions. Characteristically, it involves extensive landholdings dedicated to the cultivation of a single crop, a method known as monoculture. Major plantation crops include tea, coffee, cocoa, rubber, sugarcane, and bananas, which cater to global markets. This type of farming requires significant capital investment and modern techniques, often relying on cheap labor to maximize profits. Notably, plantation agriculture is heavily integrated into international trade, with well-established transportation systems linking estates to export markets. The French, British, Spanish, Dutch, and Americans have all historically invested in various plantations across the tropics. Overall, plantation agriculture is marked by its profit-oriented approach and reliance on large estates and scientific methods, emphasizing exploitation of resources to meet global demand.
Question 34. Analyze the main features of extensive commercial grain cultivation in the world.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Extensive commercial grain cultivation is a critical agricultural practice found predominantly in the interior semi-arid lands of midlatitudes. This system is characterized by large-scale farming operations, primarily focused on the production of wheat, but also includes other crops like corn, barley, oats, and rye. Typically, these farms are vast, and mechanization plays a vital role, leading to efficient processes from ploughing to harvesting. In regions such as the Eurasian steppes, the Canadian and American Prairies, the Pampas of Argentina, the Velds in South Africa, the Australian Downs, and the Canterbury Plains in New Zealand, agricultural practices are highly systematic. The modern farm management employs advanced machinery and division of labor, which allows combine crews to harvest significant hectares in a single day. However, amidst the growth of extensive commercial practices, there remains a segment of smallholder farmers focused on subsistence farming, as they typically lack the resources for large-scale cultivation and produce primarily for self-consumption. Therefore, while extensive grain cultivation exemplifies high efficiency and productivity, the contrasting realities of small-scale and subsistence farming highlight the diversity of agricultural practices globally.
Question 35. Explain the Indian sea ports as gateways of international trade.
[5 Marks]
Answer: India, with its extensive coastline of about 7,517 km, plays a pivotal role in international trade through its numerous sea ports. The 12 major and around 200 minor ports serve as crucial gateways where cargoes are loaded, unloaded, and stored, facilitating smooth maritime transport. Approximately 95% of India's foreign trade by volume, and 70% by value, is conducted via these oceanic routes. This rich maritime tradition, along with the infrastructural support of harbors, makes India a significant player in global commerce. Moreover, Indian ports have a historical significance, dating back to ancient sea-faring practices, and have been shaped by colonization and trade dynamics. Therefore, the Indian sea ports are vital for economic connectivity with international markets, influencing trade patterns and contributing significantly to the nation's economy.
Question 36. Analyze the relationship between the conservation of mineral resources and sustainable development in India.
[5 Marks]
Answer: The conservation of mineral resources is intrinsically linked to sustainable development in India. Sustainable development emphasizes the need to balance economic growth with environmental protection. Traditional resource extraction techniques lead to significant waste and environmental degradation, highlighting the urgency of conservation practices. By reducing the export of scarce minerals and promoting recycling, especially of metals like copper and lead, India can prolong the lifespan of its resources. This approach not only preserves minerals for future generations but also mitigates environmental impact, thus supporting a sustainable future. Effective management and assessment of mineral resources are crucial to managing conflicts over resource distribution among communities and states. Furthermore, investing in alternatives to scarce minerals can reduce dependency on non-renewable resources. Overall, a commitment to conserving mineral resources is essential for ensuring economic stability and ecological balance, two key pillars of sustainable development.
Question 37. Analyze the advantages of non-conventional energy sources by giving the example of solar energy in India.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Non-conventional energy sources, particularly solar energy, present significant advantages for India in its quest for sustainable development. Solar energy is 7% more effective than traditional coal or oil-based power plants and 10% more effective than nuclear energy. Its applications span from residential heating to agricultural uses, such as crop drying. India has particularly advantageous geographic conditions for solar energy production, especially in the sun-rich states of Gujarat and Rajasthan. The use of solar thermal technology offers a cost-competitive, environmentally friendly alternative to fossil fuels. Additionally, the installation of solar energy systems can be more easily scaled according to the local needs, allowing for greater energy self-sufficiency in rural areas. Overall, harnessing solar energy supports India's goals for energy security, reduces reliance on imported fuels, and minimizes environmental pollution.

Paper Details

CBSE Board Exam 2024

Class

CLASS 12-HUMANITIES

Subject

GEOGRAPHY

Year

2024

Set

Set 1

Other Years — GEOGRAPHY

2022 Set-1

2022 Set-2

2022 Set-3

2022 Set-4

2022 Set-5

2023 Set-1

2023 Set-2

2023 Set-3

2023 Set-4

2023 Set-5

2024 Set-1

2024 Set-2

2024 Set-3

2024 Set-4

2024 Set-5

2025 Set-1

2025 Set-2

2025 Set-3

2025 Set-4

2025 Set-5

2025 Set-6