SOLUTIONS
2024 BOARD EXAM
CBSE CLASS 12-HUMANITIES GEOGRAPHY Board Paper 2024 — Set 2
2024
GEOGRAPHY
CLASS 12-HUMANITIES
CBSE EXAMINATION PAPER-2024
GEOGRAPHY
(Solved)
General Instructions :
Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :
- This question paper contains 32 questions. All questions are compulsory.
- This question paper is divided into 4 sections.
- Section A – questions number 1 to 4 are case based questions
- Section B – questions number 5 to 18 are multiple choice questions
- Section C – questions number 19 to 24 are short answer
- Section D – questions number 25 to 32 are long answer
- There is no overall choice given in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions.
- Use of calculator is NOT allowed.
Section A
Question 1.
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:
Land Degradation.
The pressure on agricultural land increases not only due to the limited availability but also by deterioration of quality of agricultural land. Soil erosion, waterlogging, salinisation and alkalinisation of land lead to land degradation. What happens if land is consistently used without managing its fertility ? Land is degraded and productivity declines. Land degradation is generally understood either as a temporary or a permanent decline in productive capacity of the land.
Though all degraded land may not be wasteland, but unchecked process of degradation may lead to the conversion to wasteland.
There are two processes that induce land degradation. These are natural and created by human beings. National Remote Sensing Centre (NRSC) has classified wastelands by using remote sensing techniques and it is possible to categorise these wastelands according to the processes that have created them. There are a few types of wastelands such as gullied/ravinous land, desertic or coastal sands, barren rocky areas, steep sloping land, and glacial areas, which are primarily caused by natural agents. There are other types of degraded lands such as waterlogged and marshy areas, land affected by salinity and alkalinity and land with or without scrub, which have largely been caused by natural as well as human factors. There are some other types of wastelands such as degraded shifting cultivation area, degraded land under plantation crops, degraded forests, degraded pastures, and mining and industrial wastelands, that are caused by human action.
(1) Explain any one man-made process which is responsible for land degradation.
[1 Marks]
Answer: One significant man-made process responsible for land degradation is the practice of intensive agriculture without proper management of soil fertility. When land is consistently used for agricultural production without replenishing the nutrients in the soil, it leads to the depletion of essential minerals and reduces soil quality. This process ultimately results in decreased agricultural productivity and may lead to permanent land degradation, making the land less capable of supporting crops. Over time, this unchecked practice can contribute to the conversion of fertile land into wasteland, as the soil becomes unfit for cultivation due to nutrient loss and degradation of its structure.
Key Points: intensive agriculture, soil fertility management, nutrient depletion, decreased productivity, conversion to wasteland
(2) Explain the meaning of land degradation.
[1 Marks]
Answer: Land degradation refers to the decline in the productive capacity of the land, which can occur either temporarily or permanently. This decline primarily results from insufficient management of soil fertility, leading to issues such as soil erosion, waterlogging, salinisation, and alkalinisation. These factors contribute to reduced agricultural productivity. While not all degraded lands are considered wastelands, unchecked degradation processes could result in land being classified as such. The causes of land degradation can be both natural and human-induced, and they affect the quality of agricultural land, further compounding the difficulties of sustaining agricultural productivity.
Key Points: definition of land degradation; temporary or permanent decline in productivity; causes include soil erosion, waterlogging, salinisation, alkalinisation; impacts on agricultural land management; distinction between degraded land and wasteland; both natural and human-induced factors
(3) Suggest any two measures to solve the problem of land degradation.
[1 Marks]
Answer: To address the problem of land degradation, it is essential to implement sustainable agricultural practices. Firstly, crop rotation can be employed, whereby different crops are planted in a specific sequence over the years to maintain soil fertility and reduce soil erosion. Secondly, the use of organic fertilizers instead of chemical fertilizers can enhance soil health, improve its structure, and prevent salinisation and alkalinisation. These measures can help restore the productivity of degraded lands and ensure long-term agricultural sustainability.
Key Points: Crop rotation-Use of organic fertilizers-Maintenance of soil fertility
Question 2.
Study the given map and answer the questions that follow:
(1) Explain the importance of the railway line given on the map.
[1 Marks]
Answer: The railway line connecting Winnipeg to Thunder Bay is crucial for Canada's economy as it serves as a significant transport route for the export of key products like wheat and meat. This line integrates with one of the world's important waterways at Lake Superior, enhancing its role as an economic artery by facilitating efficient transportation of goods. The construction of this railway line was driven by the need to enhance economic connectivity and support trade across the region, making it not only vital for local industries but also for international trade. Moreover, as a component of the Trans-Canadian Railway network, it contributes to the overarching goal of linking various regions of Canada, thus fostering economic development and political cohesion.
Key Points: Connects Winnipeg to Thunder Bay - Economic artery for Canada - Important for wheat and meat exports - Links with significant waterways - Enhances trade and connectivity
(2) Name the places marked as (A) and (B) in the given map.
Answer: In the given map of India, the place marked as (A) is 'Delhi', which is the capital city of India, known for its rich history and cultural heritage. The place marked as (B) is 'Mumbai', which is the financial capital of India and one of the largest cities in the country.
Key Points: Identify key landmarks; Mention the significance of the places; Relate to cultural features or historical context
(3) Name the railway line given in the map.
[1 Marks]
Answer: The railway line shown in the map is the Trans–Siberian Railway. This significant route connects St. Petersburg in Russia to its eastern regions, facilitating economic and political links across the continent. It is noted for its length and importance in boosting connectivity to West European markets.
Key Points: Trans–Siberian Railway- connects St. Petersburg to eastern Russia- facilitates economic connections- major trans–continental railway
(4) Explain any three characteristics of the 'Australian Trans-Continental Railway'.
Answer: The Australian Trans-Continental Railway is a significant rail line that runs from Perth on the west coast to Sydney on the east coast, covering a vast distance across the continent. First, it serves as a major economic corridor, facilitating the movement of goods and people between the two ends of Australia, thus boosting trade and commerce. Second, its construction links several important cities, including Kalgoorlie, Broken Hill, and Port Augusta, promoting regional connectivity and development. Lastly, the railway enhances national integration, supporting both economic and political unification in Australia by enabling efficient transportation across different regions.
Key Points: Economic corridor linking major cities; Promotes regional connectivity; Enhances national integration
Question 3.
On the given political outline map of the World , seven geographical features have been marked as A, B, C, D, E, F and G. Identify any five with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them :
(1) An area of commercial livestock rearing
Answer: The area marked as A on the political outline map is recognized as an area of commercial livestock rearing. This includes major countries such as New Zealand, Australia, Argentina, Uruguay, and the United States of America. These regions are characterized by extensive pastures and favorable climatic conditions that support livestock farming, making them ideal for the industry.
Key Points: New Zealand- Australia - Argentina - Uruguay - United States of America
(2) An area of extensive commercial grain farming
Answer: The area of extensive commercial grain farming is primarily represented by the United States, particularly in regions such as the American Corn Belt. This region is known for its vast expanses of flat land and favorable climatic conditions, which support the cultivation of grain crops like maize and wheat on a large scale. Other notable areas include parts of Canada, Russia, Ukraine, and Argentina, which also have significant production of grains due to their agricultural practices and economic focus on farming.
Key Points: United States - Corn Belt; Canada - Prairie Provinces; Russia - Black Soil Region; Ukraine - Fertile Crescent; Argentina - Pampas
(3) An area of 'nomadic herding'
Answer: One of the identified areas of nomadic herding is located in the Central Asian steppe region, primarily inhabited by pastoral nomads such as the Mongols. This area is characterized by vast grasslands that support the movement and grazing patterns necessary for herding livestock, such as sheep and goats. Nomadic herding varies seasonally, with these communities migrating based on the availability of pasture and water resources.
Key Points: Central Asia - Nomadic pastoralism - Seasonal migration patterns
(4) A terminal station of Trans-Siberian Railway
Answer: The terminal station of the Trans-Siberian Railway is Vladivostok, located on the Pacific coast of Russia. This station is significant as it marks the eastern terminus of the longest railway line in the world, stretching over 9,332 kilometers from St. Petersburg in the west to Vladivostok in the east. Vladivostok serves not only as a transportation hub but also as a vital port city that connects Russia to the Asia-Pacific region.
Key Points: Vladivostok-Trans-Siberian Railway-terminal station-significance-port city
(5) A major international airport of Europe
Answer: One of the major international airports in Europe is Frankfurt Airport, located in Frankfurt, Germany. It is one of the busiest airports in the world and serves as a key hub for international flights, connecting Europe with various destinations globally.
Key Points: Frankfurt Airport- major international hub- located in Frankfurt, Germany- one of the busiest airports in the world
(6) A major sea port of Asia
Answer: The major sea port of Asia marked on the map is Mumbai. Mumbai is not only the largest city in India but also serves as a crucial natural harbor facilitating significant trade and shipping activities. It is strategically located to connect various countries in the Middle East, North Africa, and North America, making it an important hub in Asia's maritime trade.
Key Points: Mumbai is the largest port in India-Mumbai serves as a natural harbor-Mumbai is strategically located for international trade
(7) A major shipping canal
Answer: The Suez Canal, a vital shipping waterway constructed in 1869, connects the Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea. It significantly facilitates maritime trade by allowing ships to avoid the lengthy journey around Africa, acting as a critical conduit for international maritime commerce.
Key Points: Suez Canal-constructed in 1869-connects Mediterranean and Red Sea-vital for global trade-reduces shipping distance
(8) Name the eastern terminal station of Trans-Siberian Railway .
Answer: The eastern terminal station of the Trans-Siberian Railway is Vladivostok. It is located on the Pacific coast and serves as a significant port and transportation hub, making it an essential point of connectivity for trade and travel in and out of the region.
Key Points: Eastern terminal station - Vladivostok - Pacific coast - significant port - critical for trade and travel
(9) Name an area of nomadic herding in Africa.
Answer: An area of nomadic herding in Africa is the Sahel region. This area is characterized by its semi-arid climate and serves as a traditional grazing ground for pastoral nomads such as the Tuareg and Fulani who raise livestock, including cattle, goats, and camels. The Sahel is significant for its unique ecological systems and the adaptation strategies of nomadic herders to the changing environmental conditions.
Key Points: Sahel region - semi-arid climate - traditional grazing ground - Tuareg and Fulani nomads - livestock raising
(10) Name the major country of commercial livestock rearing of South America.
Answer: The major country of commercial livestock rearing in South America is Argentina. It is renowned for its Pampas region, which is characterized by extensive cattle and sheep ranching, contributing significantly to the country’s agricultural output.
Key Points: Argentina - Pampas region - Commercial livestock - Cattle and sheep ranching - Major agricultural output
(11) Name the place where a major international airport is located in Japan.
Answer: The major international airport located in Japan is Tokyo's Narita International Airport (NRT). Narita serves as a primary gateway for international air traffic into Japan and connects multiple global destinations.
Key Points: Major international airport located in Japan - Narita International Airport, serves as a primary gateway, connects global destinations
(12) In which country is Vancouver International Airport located ?
Answer: Vancouver International Airport is located in Canada. It is situated in the city of Vancouver, which is known for its scenic beauty and serves as a major gateway for international flights.
Key Points: Location: Canada; City: Vancouver; Importance: Major international gateway; Features: Scenic region, economic significance.
(13) Name a major area of extensive commercial grain farming of South America.
Answer: A major area of extensive commercial grain farming in South America is the Pampas region of Argentina. This area is known for its fertile soils and favorable climate, making it ideal for the cultivation of grains such as wheat and corn. The Pampas, along with the coffee growing region of Brazil, accounts for a significant portion of agricultural production in the continent.
Key Points: Pampas of Argentina - extensive agriculture - includes wheat and corn - significant agricultural region in South America
(14) Name the shipping canal linking Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea.
Answer: The shipping canal linking the Mediterranean Sea and the Red Sea is the Suez Canal. Constructed in 1869, it serves as a vital maritime route that connects Europe to the Indian Ocean, significantly reducing travel time compared to the route around the Cape of Good Hope.
Key Points: Suez Canal-constructed in 1869-Egypt-connects Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea-reduces travel time for shipping routes
Question 4.
On the given political outline map of India (on page 27), locate and label any five of the following seven geographical features with appropriate symbols :
(1) Name the state which is leading in cotton production.
Answer: The state that is leading in cotton production in India is Gujarat. It is known for its significant contribution to the cotton cultivation industry due to its favorable climatic conditions and extensive agricultural practices.
Key Points: Gujarat is the leading cotton producer-cotton is a significant crop in India-cotton production is influenced by climatic conditions
(2) Name the state where Tuticorin sea port is located.
Answer: The Tuticorin sea port is located in the state of Tamil Nadu, which is situated on the southern coast of India, extending into the Indian Ocean.
Key Points: Tuticorin port location-Tamil Nadu-coastal state-important for cargo
(3) Name the place where an international airport is located in Assam.
Answer: The international airport located in Assam is the Lokpriya Gopinath Bordoloi International Airport, situated in Guwahati. This airport serves as a key hub for international flights in the northeastern region of India, enhancing connectivity and supporting economic activities.
Key Points: Lokpriya Gopinath Bordoloi International Airport-Guwahati-International connectivity-Importance for the northeastern region
(4) Name the state where Jamnagar oil refinery is located.
Answer: The Jamnagar oil refinery is located in the state of Gujarat. It is one of the largest oil refineries in the world, owned by Reliance Industries Limited, and plays a significant role in India's oil production and energy sector.
Key Points: Location: Gujarat - Largest oil refinery - Owned by Reliance Industries - Significant for oil production
(5) Name the state which is leading in rice production.
Answer: West Bengal is the leading state in rice production in India. It contributes significantly to the total rice output and is known for its favorable climatic conditions and agricultural practices that support high rice yield.
Key Points: West Bengal is the leading rice producing state-India is the second largest rice producer in the world-Other states like Uttar Pradesh and Punjab also contribute significantly to rice production
(6) Name the area of iron-ore mines in Maharashtra.
Answer: The primary area of iron-ore mining in Maharashtra is the Bhandara district. This region is known for its rich deposits of iron ore, which contribute significantly to the state's mineral wealth. The Bhandara district is part of the South-Western Plateau Region, where mineral extraction is prominent due to the presence of various minerals including iron ore.
Key Points: Bhandara district - location of iron ore mines - part of the South-Western Plateau Region
(7) Name the state with highest density of population.
Answer: The state with the highest density of population in India is Uttar Pradesh. According to demographic data, Uttar Pradesh has a significantly high population density compared to other states and Union Territories in the country. This high density is attributed to its large population, which is over 200 million, and the limited land area available, resulting in a concentration of people in urban and rural regions alike. The population density reflects various factors including economic opportunities, agricultural productivity, and migration patterns, contributing to its status as the most densely populated state in India.
Key Points: Uttar Pradesh has the highest population density-Over 200 million population-Limited land area contributes to high density-Influenced by economic opportunities and migration
(8) State with highest density of population
Answer: The state with the highest density of population in India is Uttar Pradesh. According to the data presented, it is evident that Uttar Pradesh has the largest share of the population compared to any other state in the country. This high density is influenced by various factors including its agricultural economy, historical significance, and urban centers that attract a large population for employment and education.
Key Points: Uttar Pradesh-highest density of population-influencing factors-agricultural economy-urban centers
(9) State leading in cotton production
Answer: Gujarat is the leading state in India in terms of cotton production. The state is known for its extensive cotton cultivation, benefiting from suitable climatic and soil conditions, which contribute to high per hectare yield. Along with Gujarat, Maharashtra and Telangana are also significant producers, but Gujarat consistently tops the list due to its well-developed irrigation facilities and farming practices.
Key Points: Gujarat - leading state in cotton; high per hectare yield; suitable climate; major cotton producing states include Maharashtra and Telangana
(10) State leading in rice production
Answer: The state leading in rice production in India is West Bengal. It is recognized for its extensive cultivation of rice, contributing significantly to the country's overall rice production. West Bengal benefits from favorable climatic conditions and ample water supply for irrigation, enabling high rice yields. Other leading states in rice production include Uttar Pradesh and Punjab, but West Bengal tops the list.
Key Points: West Bengal-leading rice producer-high yields-favorable climate-irrigation
(11) Major iron-ore mines of Maharashtra
Answer: To locate and label the major iron-ore mines of Maharashtra on the political outline map of India, I would identify the key locations where iron ore is mined in the state. The major iron-ore mining regions in Maharashtra include places like: 1) Bhandara district, where the Bhandara iron ore mines are located, and 2) Nagpur district's iron ore mines. I would use appropriate symbols such as '♦' for iron ore to mark these sites on the map clearly and provide a legend for better understanding.
Key Points: Bhandara district; Nagpur district; use '♦' symbol; label locations on map; include a legend for clarity.
(12) An international airport of Assam
Answer: Guwahati, the capital city of Assam, is home to the Lokpriya Gopinath Bordoloi International Airport. This airport is the primary international airport in Assam and serves as a significant hub for air travel in the Northeast region of India, connecting various domestic and international locations. It is strategically located, enhancing air connectivity and supporting trade and tourism in the region.
Key Points: Guwahati-located in Assam-Lokpriya Gopinath Bordoloi International Airport-air travel hub for Northeast-connection to domestic and international locations
(13) A major sea port of Odisha
Answer: A major sea port of Odisha is Paradip. It is located on the eastern coast of India along the Bay of Bengal and serves as a significant hub for cargo handling and foreign trade. Paradip plays a crucial role in the economy of Odisha and contributes extensively to maritime trade. The port is well-connected through road and rail networks, enhancing its strategic importance for transportation of goods.
Key Points: Paradip is located on the eastern coast; important for cargo handling; significant for foreign trade; contributes to Odisha's economy; well-connected through transport networks.
(14) An oil refinery of Uttar Pradesh
Answer: In Uttar Pradesh, one of the prominent oil refineries is located at Mathura. It is operated by the Indian Oil Corporation and is strategically situated as it supplies fuel across the northern region of India. The refinery is represented on the map using the symbol '⚙️' which denotes industrial facilities. The geographical coordinates of Mathura are approximately 27.49° N latitude and 77.68° E longitude. This refinery plays a crucial role in catering to the energy needs of the local population as well as surrounding areas.
Key Points: Location: Mathura - Symbol: ⚙️ - Operated by Indian Oil Corporation - Coordinates: 27.49° N, 77.68° E - Importance in energy supply
Section B
Question 5.
Which one of the following is an approach of Human Development?
[1 Marks]
Explanation: The correct option is 'Capability'. The Capability Approach, associated with Prof. Amartya Sen, emphasizes building human capabilities in health, education, and access to resources as key to increasing human development. This aligns with the given context that outlines various approaches to human development, including the capabilities approach.
Question 6.
[1 Marks]
Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option:
Explanation: Lenders require collateral mainly to mitigate the risk of loan default. If the borrower fails to repay the loan, the lender can seize the collateral to recover some or all of the lost funds, providing a safety net against possible financial risk.
Question 7.
Production of information is related to which one of the following sectors?
[1 Marks]
Explanation: The correct answer is Quaternary. The context states that quaternary activities involve the collection, production, and dissemination of information, indicating that this sector is focused on knowledge-based services and advanced forms of services that utilize specialized knowledge and technical skills.
Question 8.
[1 Marks]
Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A) : Countries need to be cautious about dumped goods under free trade.
Reason (R) : Dumping of goods can harm the domestic producers.
Explanation: Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). The assertion correctly states that countries should be cautious about dumped goods, and the reason explains that dumping can harm domestic producers, which reinforces the need for caution.
Question 9.
[1 Marks]
Choose the correct option to fill in the blank:
The groundwater utilization is very high in _______. If the present trend of groundwater utilization continues, it would be very difficult to meet the water needs.
Explanation: The correct option is 'Punjab'. The context clearly states that the groundwater utilization is very high in the states of Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan, and Tamil Nadu. It mentions that these states utilize a large proportion of their groundwater potential, leading to concerns about meeting future water needs.
Question 10.
[1 Marks]
Read the programmes related to the proposed Bharatmala umbrella scheme carefully and choose the correct option:
I. Backward areas, religious and tourist places connectivity programme
II. To interconnect the four metropolitan cities of the country
III. To develop State roads in adjoining coastal areas
IV. To connect non-major ports in coastal states
Explanation: The correct option is 'Only I, III and IV are correct.' because the Bharatmala scheme focuses on connectivity for backward areas and religious and tourist places (I), the development of state roads along coastal areas (III), and connecting non-major ports (IV). It does not specifically aim to interconnect the four metropolitan cities (II), which is outlined in the Golden Quadrilateral scheme.
Question 11.
[1 Marks]
'Swachh Bharat Mission' has been launched by which one of the following?
Explanation: The correct answer is 'Government of India' because the Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM) is part of the urban renewal mission launched by the Government of India to improve the quality of life in urban slums.
Question 12.
Which one of the following diseases is caused by water pollution?
[1 Marks]
Explanation: Hepatitis is caused by water pollution as it is a water-borne disease resulting from contaminated water, as mentioned in the context. Other diseases like diarrhoea and intestinal worms are also linked to polluted water.
Question 13.
[1 Marks]
In comparison to 1950-51, which of the following categories has decreased the most in 2014-15?
Explanation: Based on the context, both 'barren and unculturable wasteland' and 'culturable wasteland' have experienced significant declines due to increased pressure for agricultural use and non-agricultural development. However, the text indicates a specific mention of a overall decline of 'culturable wasteland', suggesting it has likely faced the most substantial decrease compared to the other categories over this period.
Question 14.
[1 Marks]
In comparison to 1950-51, which one of the following categories has the highest difference of increase in 2014-15?
Explanation: The category with the highest difference of increase is 'Area under non-agricultural uses.' The context notes that this category has shown the highest rate of increase due to expansion of building activity on agricultural land, indicating significant changes in land use over the years.
Question 15.
[1 Marks]
Which one of the following is the percentage change of land reporting between 1950-51 and 2014-15?
Explanation: The correct answer is 3.6% (of reporting area). This percentage reflects the calculated change in land reporting from the data presented in Fig. 3.1, which indicates shifts in land use over the specified period based on the reporting area.
Question 16.
[1 Marks]
Which of the following is an example of barren and unculturable wasteland ?
Explanation: The correct answer is 'Desert and ravines' because, according to the provided context, barren and wastelands include desert lands, barren hilly terrains, and ravines, which cannot be brought under cultivation with the available technology.
Question 17.
[1 Marks]
If any land remains uncultivated for more than five years, then it falls in which of the following categories ?
Explanation: The correct answer is 'Culturable wasteland' because, as stated in the provided context, any land that is left fallow (uncultivated) for more than five years is categorized as culturable wasteland. This type of land can potentially be brought under cultivation after certain reclamation practices.
Question 18.
[1 Marks]
Which of the following departments maintains the record of land-use in India ?
Explanation: The correct option is 'Revenue' because, according to the provided context, land-use records are maintained by the land revenue department in India. This department is responsible for categorizing and recording land use, which distinguishes it from other departments such as income tax or sales tax.
Section C
Question 19.
[3 Marks]
How has the use of technology helped people to overcome nature's obstacles? Analyse
Answer: The use of technology has significantly enabled humanity to overcome various natural obstacles. For instance, in Trondheim, advanced engineering allows for the construction of infrastructures like bridges and tunnels, facilitating movement despite challenging terrains. Similarly, irrigation systems converted arid lands into cultivable areas, enhancing agricultural productivity. Technology facilitates adaptation, marking a transition from reliance on natural cycles to controlled environments. This progression empowers societies to shape their surroundings, enhancing their quality of life and stimulating economic growth.
Question 20.
How does neo-determinism try to achieve balance between two concepts of man-environment relationship? Analyze.
[3 Marks]
Answer: Neo-determinism attempts to reconcile the dualistic views of man-environment interactions by introducing a balanced framework. Unlike environmental determinism, which suggests that the environment wholly predetermines human actions, or possibilism, which emphasizes human agency and environmental modification, neo-determinism posits that while the environment influences human behavior, there is also room for human adaptation and innovation within ecological constraints. This perspective acknowledges contemporary environmental issues like climate change and land degradation, advocating for sustainable practices that minimize harm while prioritizing social welfare. Hence, neo-determinism serves as a middle path that promotes a cooperative relationship between human agency and environmental limits, allowing societies to thrive without inflicting irreversible damage on the planet.
Question 21.
Explain, with examples, any three economic factors affecting population distribution in the world.
[3 Marks]
Answer: Economic factors significantly influence population distribution across the globe. Firstly, employment opportunities are crucial; regions with thriving industries, like Silicon Valley in the USA, attract a workforce eager for high-paying jobs. Secondly, resource availability plays a vital role; areas rich in natural resources, such as the oil-rich Middle East, draw populations seeking employment in extraction and related services. Lastly, infrastructure development, including transportation and healthcare facilities, can lead to population growth in specific areas, for instance, urban centers like Mumbai in India, where robust infrastructure supports diverse economic activities. These economic factors shape where people choose to live and work.
Question 22.
Explain any three basic differences between rural and urban settlements in India.
[3 Marks]
Answer: Rural and urban settlements in India exhibit several fundamental differences. Firstly, the population density varies significantly; rural areas tend to have lower population densities, leading to more open spaces, while urban areas are densely populated, resulting in a compact built environment. Secondly, the economic activities differ; rural settlements primarily engage in agriculture and allied activities, whereas urban settlements focus on secondary and tertiary activities like manufacturing and services. Lastly, social structures and relationships vary; rural communities often have close-knit social ties with informal interactions, while urban environments feature more formal and complex relationships due to anonymity and a fast-paced lifestyle.
Question 23.
[3 Marks]
The ways to measure human development are constantly being refined. Support the statement with suitable arguments.
Answer: Human development measurement is increasingly nuanced, incorporating various indicators beyond mere income levels. Traditional approaches like the income and welfare models offer foundational insights but fail to encompass the full spectrum of human progress. The capabilities approach is especially vital, emphasizing individuals’ freedoms and capabilities to lead fulfilling lives. Additionally, the Minimum Needs approach addresses essential societal needs. Recent studies linking corruption and policy effectiveness to development highlight the need for comprehensive analysis. International comparisons often challenge stereotypes about cultures affecting development levels, suggesting that systemic factors are more critical than perceived cultural limitations.
Question 24.
[3 Marks]
"Equity refers to making equal access to opportunities available to everybody." Support the statement with suitable arguments.
Answer: Equity is essential for fostering a just society where everyone has equal access to opportunities. Discrimination based on gender, race, income, or caste often leads to unequal access, which stifles the potential of a significant portion of the population. For instance, despite economic growth in various countries, issues like poverty persist due to unequal distribution of resources. This inequity can hinder overall development. Therefore, concepts such as equity and redistribution must be integrated into development strategies to ensure everyone's well-being and participation, helping to build a more inclusive society.
Section D
Question 25.
Describe any five features of extensive commercial grain farming in the world.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Extensive commercial grain farming is predominantly found in semi-arid regions of the midlatitudes, characterized by several prominent features. Firstly, the farms are exceptionally large, often covering vast areas, which allows the cultivation of significant quantities of grains. Secondly, mechanization plays a pivotal role, as the entire farming process, from planting to harvesting, is accomplished using advanced machinery, enabling efficiency and high productivity. Thirdly, wheat serves as the principal crop, although crops like corn, barley, oats, and rye are also cultivated, contributing to agricultural diversity. Fourthly, this farming style is concentrated in specific global regions such as the Eurasian steppes, North American Prairies, Pampas in Argentina, South African Velds, Australian Downs, and New Zealand's Canterbury Plains, which are all known for their favorable climatic conditions for grain production. Finally, extensive grain farming is characterized by lower population density, allowing farmers to focus solely on the large-scale production of grains without the complications of urban proximity affecting operations. In essence, extensive commercial grain farming epitomizes large-scale agriculture, effectively utilizing technology and regional advantages for grain production.
Question 26.
Explain the difference between cottage and large scale industries in the world, with examples.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Cottage industries and large scale industries differ significantly in various aspects. Cottage industries are small-scale operations typically run from home, focusing on localized production with minimal capital investment. They employ family members or a few local artisans to produce handicrafts, textiles, or food items, such as handwoven baskets or handmade pottery. In contrast, large scale industries involve mass production of goods using advanced technologies and considerable capital investment, often employing specialized labor. The automotive industry exemplifies large scale manufacturing, where assembly-line techniques allow for the production of thousands of vehicles efficiently. While cottage industries emphasize local materials and craftsmanship, large scale industries capitalize on global markets and economies of scale, leading to higher production volumes and lower costs. Each type of industry plays a crucial role in the economy, catering to different market needs and employment opportunities.
Question 27.
Analyse the major problems of youth population in India. Suggest two measures to overcome the problems.
[5 Marks]
Answer: The youth population in India faces several pressing challenges, including high rates of illiteracy, particularly among females, school dropouts, malnutrition, mental health issues, substance abuse, and juvenile delinquency. The prevalence of maternal mortality among adolescent mothers and a rising rate of HIV/AIDS infections further exacerbate the situation. To address these issues, two crucial measures can be implemented. Firstly, improving access to quality education and vocational training can empower young people, reduce dropouts, and enhance employability. Initiatives under the National Youth Policy (NYP-2014) can be expanded to address skill development aligned with market demands. Secondly, increasing awareness about health and nutrition through community programs can tackle malnutrition and promote mental wellbeing, thereby fostering a supportive environment for youth development. By emphasizing education and health awareness, we can significantly improve the circumstances faced by the youth in India and enable them to contribute positively to society.
Question 28.
How is discrimination on the basis of gender a crime against humanity? Suggest two measures to overcome the problem.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Discrimination on the basis of gender is considered a crime against humanity as it fundamentally denies individuals their basic rights and dignity. It excludes over half of the world's population from opportunities related to education, employment, and political representation, inhibiting overall societal development. Such discrimination perpetuates inequality, manifests in different forms such as low wages for women, and reinforces harmful social constructs. To combat this issue, governments and societies must implement comprehensive measures. Firstly, education campaigns should be established to raise awareness about gender equality, highlighting the importance of inclusion in all spheres of life. Secondly, legal frameworks must be strengthened to protect against gender-based discrimination, ensuring that policies are enforced effectively. By promoting equality and protecting individual rights, societies can advance toward a more just and civilized future.
Question 29.
[5 Marks]
"Nuclear power has emerged as a viable source in recent years." Examine the statement with suitable arguments in the context of India.
Answer: Nuclear power has increasingly emerged as a viable energy source in India, particularly in light of the country’s growing energy demands and commitment to reducing carbon emissions. The Atomic Energy Commission, established in 1948, marked the beginning of India's journey into nuclear energy. Key minerals for nuclear energy, such as uranium and thorium, are sourced from local deposits in states like Andhra Pradesh and Odisha. Major nuclear projects, including those at Tarapur, Rawatbhata, and Kalpakkam, demonstrate India's commitment to developing this energy sector.\n\nNuclear energy offers a substantial output of energy with a relatively low environmental impact compared to fossil fuels, supporting India's transition to more sustainable energy practices. Moreover, while the initial costs of establishing nuclear facilities are high, the long-term benefits, including lower operational costs and less environmental degradation, enhance its viability. As India continues to explore and invest in nuclear technology, it positions itself better in the quest for energy security, balancing growth and environmental responsibility. Thus, harnessing nuclear power represents a strategic approach to meet India’s increasing energy requirements while striving for environmental sustainability.
Question 30.
Explain the importance of rail transport in India.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Rail transport plays a pivotal role in India's socio-economic development, serving as a backbone for both freight and passenger movement. It facilitates the transportation of goods, including essential commodities, across long distances at relatively low costs. Moreover, the extensive rail network connects remote areas with urban centers, promoting regional development and ensuring accessibility. Railways are also energy-efficient and capable of carrying large volumes of passengers and cargo, reducing road congestion. Additionally, the role of railways in job creation, tourism, and enhancing trade cannot be understated, making it indispensable for India's growth trajectory. Overall, rail transport significantly contributes to enhancing the efficiency and effectiveness of the transport system within the nation.
Question 31.
Explain sea port as a gateway for international trade in India.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Sea ports in India are vital gateways for international trade, facilitating the movement of goods and people across the globe. With approximately 7,517 km of coastline, India boasts twelve major and 200 minor ports that serve as crucial nodes in maritime trade. The strategic location and infrastructure of these ports enable them to handle about 95% of India’s foreign trade by volume and 70% by value. Ports such as Mumbai, Chennai, and Kolkata have historical significance and extensive operational capacity, allowing for efficient docking, loading, and unloading of cargo. The central government regulates major ports, ensuring standardization and efficiency in operations. Additionally, sea routes are cost-effective, providing smooth transport compared to other modes, provided there is no turbulence. The historical development of these ports, rooted in India’s sea-faring tradition, reflects their importance in both trade and cultural exchanges. Overall, the efficient functioning of sea ports not only bolsters India’s economy but also strengthens its global trading relationships.
Question 32.
[5 Marks]
Describe any five features of 'plantation agriculture' in the world.
Answer: Plantation agriculture is characterized by several key features. Firstly, it involves large estates or plantations, which allow for extensive land use dedicated to single crop cultivation. Secondly, significant capital investment is required to establish and maintain these plantations, as they rely on modern machinery and technology. Thirdly, plantation agriculture typically focuses on single crop specialization, ensuring maximum efficiency and productivity. Fourthly, it employs a considerable amount of cheap labor, often sourced from local populations or migrants. Finally, a good system of transportation is essential, linking plantations to markets and facilitating the export of crops like tea, coffee, and rubber. These characteristics contribute to the profit-oriented nature of plantation farming, which was largely introduced by European colonial powers in tropical regions.
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