geography/
previous-year-question-paper-2025-set-3

SOLUTIONS

2025 BOARD EXAM

CBSE CLASS 12-HUMANITIES GEOGRAPHY Board Paper 2025 — Set 3

2025

GEOGRAPHY

CLASS 12-HUMANITIES

CBSE EXAMINATION SOLVED PAPER-2025 GEOGRAPHY

CBSE EXAMINATION PAPER-2025

GEOGRAPHY

(Solved)

Time allowed : 3 hours

Maximum Marks : 75

General Instructions :

Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :

  1. This question paper contains 39 questions. All questions are compulsory.
  2. This question paper is divided into 4 sections.
  3. Section A – questions number 1 to 8 are case based questions
  4. Section B – questions number 9 to 26 are multiple choice questions
  5. Section C – questions number 27 to 30 are short answer
  6. Section D – questions number 31 to 39 are long answer
  7. There is no overall choice given in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions.
  8. Use of calculator is NOT allowed.

Section A

Question 1.

Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:

In agriculturally important countries, agro products are exchanged for manufactured goods, whereas industrialised nations export machinery and finished products and import food grains and other raw materials. Foreign investment can boost trade in developing countries which lack in capital required for the development of mining, oil drilling, heavy engineering, lumbering and plantation agriculture. By developing such capital intensive industries in developing countries, the industrial nations ensure import of food stuffs, minerals and create markets for their finished products. This entire cycle steps up the volume of trade between nations.

(1) What types of items are exported by the industrialised nations?

[1 Marks]
Answer: Industrialized nations primarily export machinery and finished products. These items include a wide range of manufactured goods that are produced using advanced technology and skilled labor. In contrast, they import food grains and other raw materials from agriculturally important countries. This trade pattern highlights the specialization in production, where industrialized nations focus on high-value goods while relying on other countries for essential raw materials.
Key Points: Industrialized nations export machinery, finished products, manufactured goods, focus on high-value goods, import food grains and raw materials.

(2) Mention the way by which trade could be boosted in developing countries.

[1 Marks]
Answer: Trade in developing countries can be significantly boosted through increased foreign investment. Foreign investment plays a vital role by providing the necessary capital for the development of capital-intensive industries, such as mining, oil drilling, and heavy engineering. These developments not only help in producing goods locally but also facilitate the importation of foodstuffs and minerals, ensuring a steady supply of raw materials for industrialized nations. Moreover, as these industries grow, they create markets for manufactured goods, thereby enhancing trade volume between nations. This mutual trade relationship benefits both developing and industrialized countries, ultimately leading to economic growth and improved living standards in the developing nations.
Key Points: Foreign investment; Development of capital-intensive industries; Import of foodstuffs and minerals; Creation of markets for manufactured goods; Economic growth and improved living standards.

(3) Finished products of industrialised nations find the market in which types of countries?

[1 Marks]
Answer: Finished products of industrialised nations primarily find their market in developing countries. These nations, which often lack the capital for industrial development, tend to exchange their agricultural products for manufactured goods. The trade relationship is characterized by industrialized countries exporting machinery and finished products while importing raw materials such as food grains and minerals from these developing regions. This trade dynamic ultimately enhances the volume of trade between nations.
Key Points: Finished products exported to developing countries - Developing nations exchange agro products for manufactured goods - Industrialized nations import raw materials from these countries
Question 2. Study the map of the Rhine waterway and answer the questions that follow:

(1) Identify both the terminal ports of the Rhine waterway.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The terminal ports of the Rhine waterway are Rotterdam in the Netherlands, located at its mouth, and Basel in Switzerland. These ports mark the beginning and the end of the navigable stretch of the Rhine, which is significant for trade and transportation in Europe.
Key Points: Terminal ports: Rotterdam (Netherlands), Basel (Switzerland)

(2) On the map, which river joins the Rhine waterway from the east?

[1 Marks]
Answer: The river that joins the Rhine waterway from the east is the Ruhr river. This river flows through a rich coalfield, contributing to the prosperity of the manufacturing area surrounding it. The Ruhr river is significant as it enhances the navigability and economic activity of the Rhine waterway.
Key Points: Ruhr river joins Rhine from the east-Ruhr flows through a rich coalfield-significance for manufacturing area

(3) Identify any two countries through which the Rhine waterway passes.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The Rhine waterway passes through multiple countries, two of which are Germany and the Netherlands. The river flows from Switzerland, and is navigable for 700 kilometers until it reaches the North Sea at Rotterdam, making it an important trade route for these countries.
Key Points: Germany-Netherlands
Question 3.

Answer the following questions.

(1)

Name both the terminal ports of the Rhine waterway.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The terminal ports of the Rhine waterway are Rotterdam, located at its mouth in the Netherlands, and Basel, situated in Switzerland. Rotterdam serves as the major port for ocean-going vessels, while Basel acts as the southern terminal for the Rhine river.
Key Points: Terminal ports: Rotterdam, Basel

(2)

Name any two countries through which the Rhine waterway passes.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The Rhine waterway passes through several countries, two of which are Germany and the Netherlands. This waterway is a vital transport route that facilitates trade and commerce between various industrial regions in Europe.
Key Points: Germany-Netherlands

(3)

Write the name of any one tributary which joins the Rhine waterway from the east.

[1 Marks]
Answer: One tributary that joins the Rhine waterway from the east is the Ruhr River. It flows through a significant coalfield area and has contributed to making the Rhine basin a prosperous manufacturing region.
Key Points: Ruhr River - joins Rhine from the east - significant coalfield - prosperous manufacturing area
Question 4.

Study the following table carefully and answer the questions that

follow :

(1)

In which decade is the maximum increase in number of

towns/UAs observed ?

[1 Marks]
Answer: The maximum increase in the number of towns and urban agglomerations (UAs) in India was observed in the 1990s. During this decade, there was a significant rise in the establishment of urban centers fueled by economic reforms and increased migration from rural areas to cities. The data indicates a clear upward trend in urbanization as more towns emerged to accommodate the growing urban population.
Key Points: 1990s - decade of maximum increase; significant rise in urban centers; fueled by economic reforms; increased rural to urban migration; clear upward trend in urbanization

(2)

Describe the trend of urbanisation in India.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The trend of urbanisation in India has shown a significant increase from 1901 to 2011, with the urban population growing at a much faster pace compared to the rural population. As of the latest census, the proportion of the urban population stands at approximately 31.16%, which is relatively low compared to global standards; however, this figure reflects a notable rise attributable to various factors such as economic development and improved health and hygienic conditions. Moreover, since 1961, about 60% of urban growth can be traced back to migration from rural areas. This shift indicates a pattern of socio-economic development in urban areas, with increased rural-urban migration being prominent in locales along major roadways, further underscoring the trend towards urbanization. Overall, the urban population is experiencing a consistent upward trajectory, demonstrating India's ongoing urban transformation.
Key Points: Urban population growth, Economic development, Health improvements, Rural-urban migration, Socio-economic changes

(3)

The lowest increase in the percentage of total urban population is recorded in which decade ?

[1 Marks]
Answer: The lowest increase in the percentage of total urban population in India was recorded during the decade from 1971 to 1981. During this period, the rate of urbanisation was significantly lower compared to other decades, primarily due to economic challenges and less migration to urban areas. This slower growth contrasts with the overall trend of rising urbanisation witnessed in subsequent years, particularly in the decades following 1981.
Key Points: Lowest growth recorded between 1971 to 1981-Decadal growth rate lower than other decades-Economic challenges affecting migration and urbanization-Contrasts with higher urban growth post-1981.
Question 5.

On the given political outline map of the world , seven geographical features have been marked as A, B, C, D, E, F and Identify any five with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them.

(1)

A. A major sea port

[1 Marks]
Answer: Based on the information provided, a major sea port can be identified as the port of Mumbai. Mumbai is noted for being the largest port in India and is crucial due to its strategic location on important sea routes connecting the Middle East, Mediterranean countries, North Africa, and North America. This port handles a significant volume of cargo and also caters to passenger traffic, making it a comprehensive port.
Key Points: Mumbai is the largest port in India - Strategic location on important sea routes - Handles general cargo and passenger traffic - Comprehensive port classification

(2)

E. A major area of extensive commercial grain farming

[1 Marks]
Answer: The area marked 'E' on the map represents a major region of extensive commercial grain farming known as the American Prairies. This region is characterized by large-scale mechanized agriculture, primarily focusing on crops like corn and wheat. The American Prairie is instrumental in the global grain supply due to its fertile soil and favorable climatic conditions that support the growth of grains. Additionally, other regions known for extensive commercial grain farming include the Pampas of Argentina, the Canadian Prairies, and the Velds of South Africa, which also engage in similar agricultural activities.
Key Points: American Prairies-Pampas of Argentina-Canadian Prairies-Velds of South Africa

(3)

B. A major airport

[1 Marks]
Answer: One of the major airports in the world is O'Hare International Airport located in Chicago, USA. It serves as a significant hub for both domestic and international flights, making it one of the busiest airports globally. Additionally, in India, Indira Gandhi International Airport in New Delhi is a major airport that connects various domestic and international destinations, facilitating the convergence of numerous air routes.
Key Points: O'Hare International Airport, Chicago; Indira Gandhi International Airport, New Delhi; major hubs for domestic and international flights; significance of air routes convergence

(4)

F. A major area of commercial livestock rearing

[1 Marks]
Answer: The correct identification for point F, which is a major area of commercial livestock rearing, is the United States of America. The USA is recognized globally for its extensive livestock farming, particularly cattle, sheep, and dairy production. Other key countries involved in commercial livestock rearing include New Zealand and Australia, known for their beef and dairy industries. However, for this map, United States of America is the most prominent location marked as F.
Key Points: United States of America, major area for livestock, includes cattle and dairy farming, other notable countries are New Zealand and Australia.

(5)

C. A terminal station of a trans-continental railway

[1 Marks]
Answer: The terminal station of a trans-continental railway marked as 'C' on the map is likely to be either Vladivostok for the Trans-Siberian Railway in Russia or Sydney for the Australian Trans-Continental Railway. These terminal stations serve as the endpoints for major rail routes that connect distant regions, facilitating economic and political exchanges across continents. For instance, Vladivostok connects the Asian region to West European markets via the Trans-Siberian route, while Sydney serves as a key point for transport and trade in Australia.
Key Points: Vladivostok/ Sydney; Terminal station; Trans-Siberian/ Australian Trans-Continental Railway; Connectivity; Economic and political significance

(6)

D. A major area of nomadic herding

[1 Marks]
Answer: The area marked as D on the political outline map represents a major region of nomadic herding, particularly in the core region that extends from the Atlantic shores of North Africa, across the Arabian Peninsula, into Mongolia and Central China. This area is characterized by the movement of pastoral nomads who rely on herding livestock such as sheep, goats, and camels for their livelihood. The decline in pastoral nomadism here is influenced by political boundaries and new settlement plans, which have restricted traditional migration routes.
Key Points: Major area of nomadic herding-Livestock herding-Pastoral nomadism decline-Political boundaries-Settlement plans

(7)

G. A major area of subsistence gathering

[1 Marks]
Answer: A major area of subsistence gathering is commonly found in regions characterized by rich biodiversity and favorable climatic conditions, where local communities rely on natural resources for their livelihood. This includes areas such as the Amazon Rainforest where indigenous populations practice hunting, gathering, and fishing, integrating their activities with sustainable practices that respect environmental integrity. Such regions are crucial for the maintenance of traditional lifestyles as well as for the preservation of natural ecosystems. Overall, subsistence gathering areas are vital for understanding human-environment interactions and the socio-economic contexts of local populations.
Key Points: subsistence gathering-related regions; examples of specific areas (e.g., Amazon); significance of biodiversity; traditional lifestyles; human-environment interaction
Question 6.

Answer any five questions out of the following :

(1)

  1. Name any one sea port of North America.

[1 Marks]
Answer: One significant sea port of North America is the Port of Los Angeles. It is one of the busiest ports in the United States and plays a crucial role in international trade, linking North America with Asia.
Key Points: Port of Los Angeles - significant; busiest port in USA; crucial for international trade; links North America with Asia.

(2)

  1. Name the area of extensive commercial grain farming of South Africa.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The area of extensive commercial grain farming in South Africa is known as the Velds. This region is characterized by semi-arid lands where the primary crop grown is wheat, along with other grains such as corn, barley, oats, and rye. The farming practices in the Velds are highly mechanized, allowing for large-scale agricultural operations that optimize efficiency from ploughing to harvesting.
Key Points: Velds-Semi-arid-Dominate crop is wheat-Other crops include corn, barley, oats, rye-Mechanized farming practices

(3)

  1. Name any one area of commercial livestock rearing of Oceania.

[1 Marks]
Answer: One significant area of commercial livestock rearing in Oceania is South Eastern Australia. This region is known for its organized and capital-intensive livestock farming practices, particularly in the raising of sheep and cattle for meat and wool production.
Key Points: South Eastern Australia - Commercial livestock rearing - Organized and capital-intensive practices

(4)

  1. Name the area of nomadic herding in the eastern part of Africa.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The area of nomadic herding in the eastern part of Africa primarily includes the region known as the Horn of Africa. This area is characterized by the presence of pastoral nomadic communities who primarily rely on livestock such as camels, sheep, and goats for their livelihood. These communities move in search of pastures and water, adapting to the climatic challenges of the region.
Key Points: Horn of Africa - pastoral nomadic communities - livelihood based on livestock - camels, sheep, goats - movement in search of pastures and water

(5)

3. Name the terminal station at the western end of Australian Trans-Continental Railway.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The terminal station at the western end of the Australian Trans-Continental Railway is Perth. This railway connects Perth on the west coast of Australia with Sydney on the east coast, facilitating transportation across the continent.
Key Points: Perth is the western terminal station-Trans-Continental Railway runs west-east-Connects major cities

(6)

2. Name any one airport of South America.

[1 Marks]
Answer: One notable airport in South America is São Paulo/Guarulhos–Governador André Franco Montoro International Airport, commonly referred to as GRU Airport. Located in Brazil, it is the largest and busiest airport in the country, serving as a major hub for both domestic and international flights.
Key Points: São Paulo/Guarulhos International Airport - located in Brazil - largest in South America

(7)

  1. Name the area of subsistence gathering of Africa.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The area of subsistence gathering in Africa primarily involves regions where primitive subsistence agriculture, also known as shifting cultivation, is practiced. This includes many tropical areas, particularly in central and west Africa, where indigenous tribes rely on hunting, gathering, and basic agricultural practices to sustain their livelihoods. These activities are rooted in the use of natural resources available in their environment to procure food and materials necessary for survival.
Key Points: Primitive subsistence agriculture, shifting cultivation, tropical regions, central and west Africa, hunting and gathering
Question 7.

On the given political outline map of India , locate and label any five of the following seven geographical features with appropriate symbols :

(1)

The state leading in the production of wheat

[1 Marks]
Answer: The state leading in the production of wheat in India is Punjab. Punjab has an average yield of over 4,000 kg per hectare, making it the highest wheat-producing state in the country. The favorable climatic conditions, rich alluvial soil, and advanced agricultural practices contribute to this high production. Haryana also has significant wheat production, but Punjab remains in the leading position.
Key Points: Punjab is the leading state in wheat production- average yield over 4,000 kg per hectare- favorable climatic conditions and alluvial soil- Punjab's advanced agricultural practices

(2)

A major sea port of Andhra Pradesh

[1 Marks]
Answer: The major sea port of Andhra Pradesh is Visakhapatnam, also known as Vizag. It is one of the largest ports on the eastern coast of India and serves as a significant hub for cargo and shipping activities. The port is well-equipped with modern facilities and plays a crucial role in international trade.
Key Points: Visakhapatnam is a major port, located on the eastern coast, serves cargo and shipping, equipped with modern facilities

(3)

An oil refinery in Bihar

[1 Marks]
Answer: To locate and label an oil refinery in Bihar on the political outline map of India, I will use a suitable symbol, such as a small oil drop icon or a factory symbol. The oil refinery I will label is located in Barauni, which is notable for its contribution to the energy sector in Bihar. I will ensure that the symbol is clearly marked and the name 'Barauni Oil Refinery' is written next to it for clarity.
Key Points: Bihar is home to the Barauni Oil Refinery; use appropriate symbols, ensure clear labeling; important for energy resources in India.

(4)

Important manganese mines located in Karnataka

[1 Marks]
Answer: In Karnataka, the important manganese mines are primarily located in various districts such as Dharwar, Ballari, Belagavi, North Canara, Chikkmagaluru, Shivamogga, Chitradurg, and Tumakuru. These mines contribute significantly to the manganese production in India, thereby supporting the steel industry, despite their distance from major steel plants.
Key Points: Dharwar-Ballari-Belagavi-North Canara-Chikkmagaluru

(5)

4) Important coal mines located in West Bengal

[1 Marks]
Answer: In West Bengal, the most significant coal mines are located primarily in the Raniganj coalfield area. The Raniganj coalfields are situated in the Bardhaman district and are well-known for their high-quality coal production. Other important coal mining locations include the Asansol and Durgapur areas, which also contribute significantly to the state's coal output. These mines are part of the larger Damodar Valley coal reserves, which is a major coal-producing region in India and plays a crucial role in the country's energy sector.
Key Points: Raniganj coalfield - Bardhaman district; Asansol - significant coal mining town; Durgapur - industrial hub; part of Damodar Valley coal reserves; high-quality coal production

(6)

An important international airport in Punjab

[1 Marks]
Answer: The important international airport in Punjab is the Sri Guru Ram Dass Jee International Airport, located in Amritsar. This airport serves both domestic and international flights, connecting the region to several destinations around the globe.
Key Points: Sri Guru Ram Dass Jee International Airport-Amritsar-international flights-domestic connectivity-Punjab

(7)

Important iron ore mines located in Odisha

[1 Marks]
Answer: In Odisha, significant iron ore mines can be found in various locations within the hill ranges. The important mines include Gurumahisani, Sulaipet, Badampahar (in Mayurbhanj), Kiruburu (in Kendujhar), and Bonai (in Sundergarh). These mines are situated within the central part of the iron ore belt of India, which is advantageous for mining and resources extraction.
Key Points: Gurumahisani-Sulaipet-Badampahar-Kiruburu-Bonai
Question 8.

Answer any five questions out of the following :

(1)

1) Name the state leading in wheat production.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The leading state in wheat production in India is Punjab. Punjab is known for its high yield levels, which exceed 4,000 kg per hectare, making it the most productive region for wheat cultivation in the country.
Key Points: Punjab - leading wheat producing state - high yield - above 4,000 kg per ha

(2)

3) Name the place where a major sea port is located in Andhra Pradesh.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The major sea port located in Andhra Pradesh is Visakhapatnam Port. It is a land-locked harbour connected to the sea by a channel, and it has been developed to handle various cargo including iron-ore and petroleum. Visakhapatnam serves as an important gateway for the hinterland regions of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.
Key Points: Visakhapatnam Port- Land-locked harbour- Connected by channel- Handles iron-ore and petroleum- Hinterland: Andhra Pradesh and Telangana

(3)

2) Name the place of the oil refinery located in Bihar.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The oil refinery located in Bihar is the Barauni refinery. This refinery is an example of a market-based refinery and is significant in the context of India's oil processing capabilities.
Key Points: Barauni refinery - located in Bihar - market-based refinery - significant for oil processing

(4)

4) Name the place where important coal mines are located in West Bengal.

[1 Marks]
Answer: Important coal mines in West Bengal are primarily located in the following coal fields: Raniganj, Jharia, Bokaro, Giridih, and Karanpura. Among these, the Jharia coal field is the largest, followed closely by the Raniganj coal field, which are crucial for India's coal production.
Key Points: Raniganj-Jharia-Bokaro-Giridih-Karanpura

(5)

5) Name the place where important iron ore mines are located in Odisha.

[1 Marks]
Answer: In Odisha, important iron ore mines are primarily located in several hill ranges. The key locations include Gurumahisani, Sulaipet, and Badampahar in Mayurbhanj district, as well as Kiruburu in Kendujhar and Bonai in Sundergarh. These areas are part of the central iron ore belt of India and contribute significantly to the state’s mineral production.
Key Points: Odisha-iron ore mines-Gurumahisani-Sulaipet-Badampahar-Kiruburu-Bonai

(6)

6) Name the place where important manganese mines are located in Karnataka.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The important manganese mines in Karnataka are primarily located in several districts, namely Dharwar, Ballari, Belagavi, North Canara, Chikkmagaluru, Shivamogga, Chitradurg, and Tumakuru. These regions contribute significantly to the manganese production in the state.
Key Points: Dharwar-Ballari-Belagavi-North Canara-Chikkmagaluru-Shivamogga-Chitradurg-Tumakuru

(7)

7) Name the place where an international airport is located in Punjab.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The international airport located in Punjab is the Shri Guru Ram Dass Jee International Airport, situated in Amritsar. It serves as a significant hub for both domestic and international flights, enhancing connectivity for the region.
Key Points: Shri Guru Ram Dass Jee International Airport-Amritsar-international hub-connectivity

Section B

Question 9.

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A): Foot loose industries can be located in a wide variety of places.

Reason (R): Location of foot loose industries is determined by transport network accessibility.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (C) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (D) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
Explanation: Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). Foot loose industries can indeed be located in various places due to their flexibility and minimal dependence on specific raw materials. However, while transport accessibility does play a role in their location, it is not the sole determining factor for foot loose industries, as they are more influenced by the availability of component parts than by transport logistics alone.
Question 10.

Read the following statements related to intensive subsistence agriculture' other than paddy in the world carefully and choose the correct option.

I. Wheat is grown in western parts of the Indo-Gangetic plains in India.

II. Wheat is grown in monsoonal areas only.

III. Millets are grown in dry parts of western and southern India.

IV. Wheat, soya bean etc. are grown in northern China.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Only I, II and III are correct.
  • (B) Only I, III and IV are correct.
  • (C) Only II, III and IV are correct.
  • (D) Only I, II and IV are correct.
Explanation: The correct option is 'Only I, III and IV are correct.' Statement I is true as wheat is indeed cultivated in the western parts of the Indo-Gangetic plains in India. Statement III is correct as millets are grown in the dry parts of western and southern India. Statement IV is also true because wheat and soybeans are grown in northern China. Statement II is false as wheat is not restricted to monsoonal areas; it is also grown in temperate zones.
Question 11.

Identify the correct option related to transport services from the following.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Roads, railways, television and internet are some of its examples.
  • (B) It comes under the quaternary sector of economic activities.
  • (C) It is concerned with digital sending and receiving of information.
  • (D) It is an organised industry which provides man's basic of physical mobility.
Explanation: The correct option is 'It is an organised industry which provides man's basic of physical mobility.' This is because the provided context describes transportation as an organised service industry created to satisfy the basic needs of society, which includes the movement of people and goods.
Question 12.

Arrange the following sea ports from Europe to India before the operation of Suez Canal and choose the correct option.

I. Cape Town

II. Mombasa

III. London

IV. Mumbai

[1 Marks]
  • (A) I,III,II,IV
  • (B) I,II,III,IV
  • (C) III,I,II,IV
  • (D) III,II,I,IV
Explanation: The correct arrangement is I, III, II, IV. Before the construction of the Suez Canal, the sea route from Europe to India was significantly longer, primarily passing around the Cape of Good Hope (Cape Town) and then making its way to India. The journey would typically start from ports in Europe such as London, then continue to ports like Mombasa before reaching the destination of Mumbai.
Question 13.

Choose the correctly matched pair of sea ports and their examples.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Ports of Call-Piraeus
  • (B) Out Ports-Duisburg
  • (C) Oil Ports-Tripoli
  • (D) Naval Ports-Kolkata
Explanation: The correct option is 'Oil Ports - Tripoli'. The context states that Tripoli is a tanker port, which is specifically associated with the processing and shipping of oil. This aligns with the definition of oil ports, making this pair correctly matched.
Question 14. Choose the correct option of group of states of iron ore reserves from high to low.
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Odisha, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh
  • (B) Odisha, Tamil Nadu, Telangana
  • (C) Maharashtra, Jharkhand, Andhra Pradesh
  • (D) Chhattisgarh, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh
Explanation: The correct order of states with iron ore reserves from high to low is Odisha, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Karnataka, Goa, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, and Tamil Nadu. The provided context highlights that approximately 95% of iron ore reserves are located in Odisha, Jharkhand, and Chhattisgarh, with Odisha having significant iron ore deposits followed by Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh. Other states like Karnataka and Goa also contribute, but to a lesser extent.
Question 15.

Read the following features and identify the crop.

>It is a tropical plantation crop and has three varieties.

>Karnataka alone accounts for more than two-third of its total

production of India.

>It is grown in the highlands of Western Ghats in Karnataka and

Kerala.

Crop:

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Sugarcane
  • (B) Coffee
  • (C) Tea
  • (D) Cotton
Explanation: The correct crop is Coffee, as it is explicitly mentioned in the context that Karnataka accounts for more than two-thirds of India's coffee production, and it is grown in the highlands of Western Ghats in Karnataka and Kerala.
Question 16. The objective of Border Roads Organisation is :
[1 Marks]
  • (A) To construct roads in high altitude mountainous terrains.
  • (B) To construct roads in moderately elevated plateau areas.
  • (C) To construct roads in low lying plain areas.
  • (D) To construct roads in coastal areas for linking ports.
Explanation: The correct option is 'To construct roads in high altitude mountainous terrains.' This is because the Border Roads Organisation (BRO) was established to accelerate economic development and enhance defense preparedness by improving strategically important roads, particularly in the northern and northeastern border areas of India, which include high altitude and mountainous regions.
Question 17.

Two statements are given below.

They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A): The significance of Kolkata sea port has declined in the recent times.

Reason (R): Kolkata port is confronted with the problem of silt accumulation in the Hugli river.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
  • (B) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
  • (C) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Explanation: Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). The context indicates that the significance of Kolkata port has declined due to the diversion of exports to other ports and the issue of silt accumulation in the Hugli river, which affects its operational capacity.
Question 18.

Which one of the following is not a challenge of adolescent population faced by the society?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Low female literacy
  • (B) Dropouts from school
  • (C) High marriage age
  • (D) Drug abuse and alcoholism
Explanation: The correct answer is 'High marriage age'. This is because the context highlights challenges such as low female literacy, school dropouts, and drug abuse, which are prevalent issues faced by adolescents. In contrast, a high marriage age is not presented as a challenge within the context provided.
Question 19.

Identify the characteristics of 'Phase-I' of growth in India and

choose the correct option.

I. Stagnant phase of population growth

II. Low or negative net growth of population

III. Rapid fall in the mortality rate

IV. Poor health and medical services

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Only I, III and IV are correct.
  • (B) Only II, III and IV are correct.
  • (C) Only I, II and IV are correct.
  • (D) Only I, II and III are correct.
Explanation: The correct option is 'Only I, II and IV are correct.' During Phase-I (1901-1921), the Indian population experienced a stagnant or stationary growth phase with both high birth and death rates, often resulting in negative net growth during 1911-1921. This is characterized by poor health and medical services and a general lack of improvement in health conditions. Rapid fall in mortality rate is not applicable to this phase and is instead a feature of later phases.
Question 20.

Which one of the following is incorrectly matched?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Physiological density - Total population/ Net cultivated area
  • (B) Agricultural density - Total agricultural population/ Net cultivable area
  • (C) Population density - Total population/ Total area
  • (D) Marginal worker - Total population/ Total working population
Explanation: The option 'Marginal worker - Total population/ Total working population' is incorrectly matched. Marginal workers are typically defined as those who are engaged in work for less than 183 days in a year, not as a ratio of total population to total working population. The other options correctly match their definitions as per the context provided.
Question 21.

"A very large Of workers are engaged in other services in

highly urbanized areas."

With reference to the given statement choose the correct option.

I. Large scale urbanisation and industrialisation require more

workers.

II.Historically, it is a sectoral shift in the of the country.

III. Percentage of female workers is relatively high in secondary sector.

IV. It is a shift of workers from farm-based to non-farm-based

occupations.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Only II, III and IV are correct.
  • (B) Only I, II and III are correct.
  • (C) Only I, III and IV are correct.
  • (D) Only I, II and IV are correct.
Explanation: The correct option is 'Only I, II and IV are correct.' This is because the relevant context highlights the shift from farm-based occupations to non-farm-based ones, indicating a sectoral shift in the economy (II and IV). It also mentions that large scale urbanization and industrialization require more workers (I). However, the statement about the percentage of female workers being relatively high in the secondary sector (III) is not supported by the context.
Question 22.

Which one of the following is the characteristic of 'Phase-III' of population growth in India ?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) High female literacy and declining population
  • (B) Improvisation in medical facilities and living conditions
  • (C) Great Economic Depression and effects of World War II
  • (D) Low population growth and low net increase
Explanation: The correct answer is 'Improvisation in medical facilities and living conditions.' During Phase III (1951-1981), India experienced a significant decline in the mortality rate due to improvements in health and sanitation, contributing to a population explosion characterized by a high fertility rate.
Question 23.

Which one of the following stages of demographic transition theory is indicative of primitive stage?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Stage I
  • (B) First part of stage II
  • (C) Stage III
  • (D) Second part of stage II
Explanation: Stage I is indicative of the primitive stage in the demographic transition theory because it is characterized by high birth and death rates. Society is primarily agrarian and illiterate, with low life expectancy and limited technology, which reflects the conditions of early human populations.
Question 24.

The highest difference between the crude birth rate and crude death rate is observed in which one of the following stages of demographic transition theory?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) End of the first part of stage II
  • (B) End of the second part of stage II
  • (C) End of stage III
  • (D) End of stage I
Explanation: The correct answer is 'End of the second part of stage II'. This stage is characterized by a high birth rate that remains relatively constant while the death rate declines significantly due to improvements in sanitation and health conditions. This leads to a large discrepancy between the two rates, resulting in rapid population growth.
Question 25.

Net increase in population during third stage of demographic transition theory is low due to which one of the following reasons?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) High birth rate and high death rate
  • (B) High birth rate and low death rate
  • (C) Low birth rate and high death rate
  • (D) Low birth rate and low death rate
Explanation: The correct option is 'Low birth rate and low death rate'. In the third stage of the demographic transition, both fertility (birth rate) and mortality (death rate) decline considerably, leading to a stabilization or slow growth of the population.
Question 26.

Identify the stage of demographic transition theory characterising the primitive society from the following.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Stage I
  • (B) Second part of stage II
  • (C) Stage III
  • (D) First part of stage II
Explanation: The correct answer is Stage I. According to the Demographic Transition Theory, primitive or rural agrarian societies are characterised by high birth rates and high death rates due to epidemics and variable food supply. This leads to slow population growth, low life expectancy, and low levels of technology and literacy. These features describe the first stage of the demographic transition.

Section C

Question 27.

Human geography is a highly interdisciplinary subject. Analyse the statement.

[3 Marks]
Answer: Human geography serves as a bridge between various disciplines, highlighting the interplay between human entities and spatial contexts. It draws on sociology, economics, anthropology, and environmental studies to comprehend how humans interact with their surroundings. This integration allows for a deeper exploration of cultural landscapes, urban dynamics, and demographic changes. Moreover, human geography's holistic approach acknowledges that social phenomena cannot be understood in isolation but rather in correlation with geographical factors, thus affirming its interdisciplinary essence.
Question 28.

Human geography tries to explain the relationship of human beings with the physical environs of their occupance. Analyse the statement.

[3 Marks]
Answer: Human geography seeks to understand how humans interact with their physical environment, shaping and being shaped by it. This discipline highlights the interconnectedness between social and cultural factors and their spatial distributions, influenced by natural conditions. For example, agricultural practices, urban development, and resource management depend heavily on physical geography. Additionally, human geography emphasizes that the environment impacts human behavior, culture, and economy, illustrating a dynamic interplay between humans and nature. This relationship is vital for sustainable development.
Question 29.

'Tertiary activities include production and exchange." Explain the statement.

[3 Marks]
Answer: Tertiary activities primarily involve the provision of services rather than tangible goods. Production in this context means offering services that are consumed, where the output is reflected in wages rather than physical products. Additionally, exchange refers to activities like trade, transport, and communication, which facilitate overcoming geographical barriers. Tertiary sectors, including roles like plumbers and electricians, do not process raw materials; instead, they enhance the economy by providing necessary services that support both production and consumption.
Question 30.

Distinguish between metallic and non-metallic minerals with example.

[3 Marks]
Answer: Metallic minerals are those that contain metals and are primarily classified into ferrous and non-ferrous minerals. Ferrous minerals, like iron ore and manganese, contain iron, while non-ferrous minerals, such as copper and bauxite, do not. In contrast, non-metallic minerals do not yield metals upon smelting and can be categorized into fuel minerals (e.g., coal, petroleum) and non-fuel minerals (e.g., mica, limestone). The distinction lies in their composition and usability.

Section D

Question 31. Differentiate between growth and development by citing examples.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Growth and development, while often used interchangeably, imply different concepts. Growth refers to the quantitative increase in size or number, which can be positive or negative. For instance, if a city's population rises from 100,000 to 200,000, this indicates growth. However, if this population surge occurs without an accompanying rise in essential services like healthcare, education, or infrastructure, it does not equate to development. Development, on the other hand, signifies a qualitative change, enhancing the overall well-being and living standards of individuals. For example, if a city's population increases while simultaneously improving access to healthcare, education, and employment opportunities, this reflects true development. In essence, growth without development may lead to overcrowding and strain on resources, while development ensures sustainable progress and improved quality of life.
Question 32.

"High-tech industries are regionally concentrated, self-sustained and highly Justify the statement.

[5 Marks]
Answer: High-tech industries, known as technopolies, are characterized by their regional concentration, self-sustaining nature, and specialization. These industries thrive in specific geographic areas, such as Silicon Valley and Silicon Forest, which benefit from a rich ecosystem of innovation, skilled labor, and research institutions. The spatially concentrated nature of these industries fosters collaboration and knowledge sharing among firms and professionals. Moreover, they are self-sustained due to the availability of a skilled workforce, adequate infrastructure, and supportive government policies. In India, emerging technopolies are evident, especially in Bangalore, where IT and biotechnology sectors are rapidly developing. Modern high-tech landscapes are often marked by low, dispersed office-plant-lab buildings, contrasting with traditional manufacturing setups. Overall, high-tech industries not only drive economic growth but also contribute to advancements in science and technology through continuous research and development.
Question 33.

Market gardening and horticulture specialise in the cultivation Of high value crops. Justify the statement.

[5 Marks]
Answer: Market gardening and horticulture are highly specialized agricultural practices that focus on the production of high-value crops such as vegetables, fruits, and flowers. These crops are cultivated primarily for urban markets where consumer demand is high, and therefore they command better prices. Such farms are typically small and strategically located near cities for efficient transportation. The practices are labor and capital-intensive, relying on advanced agricultural techniques, including the use of high-yield varieties (HYV) of seeds, irrigation, fertilizers, and pest control measures. This intensity leads to higher productivity per unit area compared to traditional agriculture, maximizing the profitability of relatively small patches of land. Additionally, trends like intercropping and greenhouse farming further enhance yield and resource efficiency. Market gardening thrives in regions with dense populations and industrial activity, notably in Europe and North America, where these methods have been pivotal in meeting the needs of urban consumers. Thus, the justification lies in how these practices harness technology, strategic location, and the economic landscape to deliver lucrative agricultural outputs.
Question 34.

India's water demand is highly dominated by irrigational needs. Evaluate the statement.

[5 Marks]
Answer: India’s water demand is significantly influenced by its agricultural sector, which relies heavily on irrigation due to the uneven distribution of rainfall. Approximately two-thirds of India's population is engaged in agriculture, contributing greatly to the demand for water. Currently, agriculture accounts for about 89% of surface water and 92% of groundwater use. Regions such as north-western India and the Deccan plateau face drought conditions, necessitating the need for irrigation to sustain crop production. The government's investment in irrigation infrastructure, including multipurpose river valley projects like Bhakra-Nangal and Hirakud, reinforces the priority of agricultural needs in national water management. Consequently, with rising instances of water scarcity, particularly attributed to declining freshwater resources and the high costs of alternative solutions like desalination, enhancing irrigation efficiency is vital. This agricultural dependence on water not only underscores the immediate challenges faced but also indicates the need for comprehensive water conservation strategies to ensure sustainable development and food security in the future.
Question 35.

In India, water resources are getting polluted with industrial effluents, domestic waste and insecticides used in agriculture. Evaluate the statement.

[5 Marks]
Answer: Water pollution in India is a critical issue that severely impacts public health and the environment. Industrial effluents, domestic waste, and agricultural chemicals are primary contributors to this problem. Industries, especially those located near urban centers, often discharge untreated waste into nearby rivers and lakes, introducing harmful substances into the water ecosystem. Domestic sewage also contributes significantly, as many urban areas lack proper waste treatment facilities. Furthermore, the use of insecticides in agriculture finds its way into water bodies through runoff, leading to increased nitrate levels that are detrimental to aquatic life and human health. The contamination of water resources not only affects drinking water quality but also disrupts biodiversity and agricultural sustainability. Cultural events and tourism exacerbate the situation through improper waste disposal. As a result, a large majority of India’s surface water sources are now unfit for human consumption, highlighting the urgent need for sustainable waste management practices and stricter regulations to combat this pressing issue.
Question 36.

"In India, sea ports have emerged as gateways of international trade." Substantiate the statement.

[5 Marks]
Answer: India's geographical advantage, being surrounded by the sea on three sides and having a lengthy coastline of approximately 7,517 km, has established its sea ports as crucial gateways for international trade. With 12 major and 200 minor ports, India's infrastructure supports its trade efficiently. Ports facilitate essential activities such as docking, loading, unloading, and storage of cargo, thereby promoting economic activities. Approximately 95% of India's foreign trade volume and 70% by value is conducted through maritime routes. The historical significance of ports was accentuated during colonization when European traders focused on port development, leading to varied port sizes and infrastructures. Major ports are regulated by the central government, ensuring a structured trade environment. Hence, India's sea ports serve as vital links in global trade networks.
Question 37.

Satellites are mode of communication in themselves as well as they regulate the use of other means of communication. Substantiate the statement.

[5 Marks]
Answer: Satellites play a crucial role in modern communication systems, serving both as individual communication platforms and as regulators of other communication methods. Their ability to provide comprehensive coverage across vast geographic areas ensures that remote and rural regions can connect to the communication network, thereby enhancing accessibility and inclusivity. For example, the Indian National Satellite System (INSAT) and Indian Remote Sensing Satellite System (IRS) deliver essential services such as television broadcasting, internet connectivity, and essential data for weather forecasting and disaster management. Moreover, satellite communication supports global connectivity, allowing users to access information and entertainment from around the world, thereby demonstrating its significance in both economic and strategic realms. Satellites also bolster traditional media like newspapers and live broadcasts, enabling them to cover events globally in real time. Ultimately, satellite communication has transformed how we connect and interact, making it a cornerstone of contemporary society.
Question 38.

Evaluate the impact of urban waste disposal problem and suggest any two measures to overcome it.

[5 Marks]
Answer: Urban waste disposal is a significant challenge in India, especially in metropolitan cities where rapid urbanization has led to a surge in waste generation. The impact is multifaceted, contributing to environmental pollution, health hazards, and social disparities. Inadequate management of solid waste can lead to the contamination of water bodies, causing severe health issues for communities reliant on these water sources. Additionally, urban areas face air pollution and unpleasant living conditions due to waste accumulation, which can aggravate respiratory diseases. To mitigate these issues, two effective measures can be implemented. First, the government should invest in waste segregation at the source, promoting recycling and composting initiatives that can reduce the volume of waste heading to landfills. Second, public awareness campaigns are essential to educate citizens about responsible waste disposal practices, instilling a sense of responsibility towards the environment. By fostering a culture of sustainability, cities can improve sanitation, protect public health, and preserve the environment.
Question 39.

Suggest any five measures to solve the problem of land degradation in India.

[5 Marks]
Answer: To address the pressing issue of land degradation in India, several measures can be implemented. Firstly, promoting sustainable agricultural practices is crucial. This includes the use of organic fertilizers and crop rotation to enhance soil fertility. Secondly, the adoption of land-saving technologies, such as precision farming techniques, can help in optimizing the yield per unit area of land. Thirdly, implementing watershed management programs is vital, as they improve the relationship between land, water, and vegetation, crucially enhancing soil quality and productivity. Fourthly, afforestation and reforestation initiatives can restore degraded land and prevent soil erosion. Lastly, creating awareness and educating farmers on the detrimental effects of overexploitation and improper irrigation practices plays a key role in sustainable land management. Together, these measures can significantly reduce land degradation and promote ecological sustainability in India.

Paper Details

CBSE Board Exam 2025

Class

CLASS 12-HUMANITIES

Subject

GEOGRAPHY

Year

2025

Set

Set 3

Other Years — GEOGRAPHY

2022 Set-1

2022 Set-2

2022 Set-3

2022 Set-4

2022 Set-5

2023 Set-1

2023 Set-2

2023 Set-3

2023 Set-4

2023 Set-5

2024 Set-1

2024 Set-2

2024 Set-3

2024 Set-4

2024 Set-5

2025 Set-1

2025 Set-2

2025 Set-3

2025 Set-4

2025 Set-5

2025 Set-6