geography/
previous-year-question-paper-2025-set-4

SOLUTIONS

2025 BOARD EXAM

CBSE CLASS 12-HUMANITIES GEOGRAPHY Board Paper 2025 — Set 4

2025

GEOGRAPHY

CLASS 12-HUMANITIES

CBSE EXAMINATION SOLVED PAPER-2025 GEOGRAPHY

CBSE EXAMINATION PAPER-2025

GEOGRAPHY

(Solved)

Time allowed : 3 hours

Maximum Marks : 74

General Instructions :

Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :

  1. This question paper contains 37 questions. All questions are compulsory.
  2. This question paper is divided into 4 sections.
  3. Section A – questions number 1 to 7 are case based questions
  4. Section B – questions number 8 to 24 are multiple choice questions
  5. Section C – questions number 25 to 28 are short answer
  6. Section D – questions number 29 to 37 are long answer
  7. There is no overall choice given in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions.
  8. Use of calculator is NOT allowed.

Section A

Question 1.

Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:

There are many professionals who provide their services against payment of their fee. Thus, all types of services are special skills provided in exchange of payments. Health, education, law, governance and recreation, etc., require professional skills. These services require other theoretical knowledge and practical training. Tertiary activities are related to the service sector. Manpower is an important component of the service sector as most of the tertiary activities are performed by skilled labour, professionally trained experts and consultants. In the initial stages of economic development, larger proportion of people worked in the primary sector. In a developed economy, the majority of workers get employment in tertiary activity and a moderate proportion is employed in the secondary sector.

(1) Describe any one example of the relationship between primary and secondary sectors.

[1 Marks]
Answer: An example of the relationship between the primary and secondary sectors can be seen in the agriculture industry. In the primary sector, farmers cultivate crops such as wheat, rice, and vegetables. These raw agricultural products are then supplied to the secondary sector, which includes food processing industries. Here, the raw crops are transformed into packaged food products, like canned vegetables or flour. This relationship highlights how the primary sector provides essential raw materials that the secondary sector processes into finished goods for consumption, thereby contributing to the overall economy.
Key Points: Example of agriculture; Primary sector includes farming; Secondary sector involves food processing; Relationship in providing raw materials; Economic contribution through transformation.

(2) How can a person avail services of a professional?

[1 Marks]
Answer: A person can avail services of a professional by first identifying their specific needs in areas such as health, education, law, or recreation. Once the need is established, they can then seek professionals who are qualified and skilled in those respective fields. It is also important to consider the fees associated with these services and ensure that the professional has the necessary licenses or credentials. One can find professionals through recommendations, online directories, or professional organizations. After finding a suitable professional, the individual can schedule an appointment or consultation to discuss their requirements and receive the necessary services. Therefore, the process involves identifying needs, researching qualified professionals, and initiating contact to receive those specialized services.
Key Points: Identify specific needs-Research qualified professionals-Consider fees and credentials-Schedule consult to discuss services

(3) Explain any one difference between secondary and tertiary sectors.

[1 Marks]
Answer: One significant difference between the secondary and tertiary sectors is that the secondary sector primarily involves the production of goods through manufacturing and industrial processes. In this sector, the output is assessed by the quantity of tangible products produced. In contrast, the tertiary sector provides services rather than goods, relying on specialized skills, experience, and knowledge of the workforce to deliver these services. For example, while a factory might produce textiles (secondary sector), a lawyer offering legal advice operates within the tertiary sector, highlighting the emphasis on expertise over production techniques.
Key Points: Secondary sector focuses on goods production; Tertiary sector emphasizes service provision; Tertiary activities require specialized skills and knowledge.
Question 2. Study the given map carefully and answer the questions that follow.

(1) Mention the names of the terminal stations of the given railway line.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The terminal stations of the given railway line are Jammu Tawi in the north and Kanyakumari in the south. These locations represent the extreme points of the railway network as depicted in the map, connecting diverse regions of India from north to south.
Key Points: Jammu Tawi - Kanyakumari - extreme points of railway network

(2) Explain the economic importance of this railway line.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The railway line from Winnipeg to Thunder Bay plays a crucial role in the Canadian economy as it serves as a vital link between major transportation networks. This railway line, often referred to as the economic artery of Canada, facilitates the movement of essential goods, particularly wheat and meat, which represent significant exports for the nation. By connecting to one of the world's important waterways, it allows for the seamless transportation of these goods to global markets. Additionally, the railway enhances trade efficiency by reducing travel time and costs associated with transporting goods across vast distances, thereby promoting economic activities and strengthening the overall economy. Furthermore, this connection fosters regional development, as it encourages investments in related infrastructure and services, ultimately contributing to job creation and improved living standards in the areas serviced by the railway.
Key Points: Economic artery of Canada-wheat and meat exports-connection to key waterways-enhances trade efficiency-regional development and job creation

(3) Mention the names of the oceans lying in the East and West directions of this railway line.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The oceans lying in the East and West directions of the specified railway line are the Pacific Ocean to the East and the Atlantic Ocean to the West. This geographical positioning indicates the relationship of these oceans with the railway line, connecting important regions and facilitating maritime routes.
Key Points: Pacific Ocean-East direction-Atlantic Ocean-West direction
Question 3.

Study the following table carefully and answer the questions that follow :

(1)

Mention the increase in number Of towns/UAs in 1991 in

comparison to 1941.

[1 Marks]
Answer: In 1991, the number of towns and urban areas (UAs) saw a significant increase compared to 1941. The increase reflects the broader trend of urbanization in India as socio-economic conditions improved, leading to the establishment of new urban centers. This growth can be attributed to factors such as rural-urban migration and the development of infrastructure, particularly along major road links.
Key Points: Significant increase in number of towns and urban areas from 1941 to 1991; Overall urbanization trend in India; Influence of socio-economic improvements and rural-urban migration.

(2)

In which decade is the minimum increase in the percentage of

urban population recorded ?

[1 Marks]
Answer: The decade that recorded the minimum increase in the percentage of urban population in India is the decade of 1901-1911. During this period, urbanization was relatively slow, largely due to limited industrialization and migration opportunities, which constrained urban growth. Although the overall trend indicates a significant rise in urban population over the decades, this specific decade exhibits the least growth in urbanization percentages. Factors such as a predominantly agrarian economy and limited infrastructure contributed to this minimal increase during the early 20th century.
Key Points: Minimum increase observed in 1901-1911; limited industrialization; slow urbanization; constrained migration; primarily agrarian economy.

(3)

Describe the decennial growth of urbanisation.

[1 Marks]
Answer: Urbanization in India has experienced significant decennial growth from 1901 to 2011, with the total urban population increasing eleven-fold during the twentieth century. The proportion of urban population was recorded at 31.16% in 2011, which reflects a rapid increase compared to the previous decades. Notably, the growth rate of urban population has accelerated primarily due to enhanced economic development, better health and hygienic conditions, and the expansion of urban centers. Between 1961 and 2011, approximately 60% of urban growth was attributable to migration from rural areas. The transformation from rural to urban living has been influenced by the emergence of new towns and the enlargement of existing urban areas. This trend indicates a shift in population dynamics, significantly contributing to the overall urbanization in the country.
Key Points: Eleven-fold growth; urban population at 31.16%; economic development; health improvements; rural-to-urban migration; new towns; enlargement of urban centers
Question 4.

On the given political outline map of India , locate and label any five of the following seven geographical features with appropriate symbols :

(1)

1) The state leading in the production of rice

[1 Marks]
Answer: The leading state in the production of rice in India is West Bengal. It is renowned for its high yield and significant contribution to the nation's overall rice output. The agricultural practices in this state are optimized for rice cultivation, utilizing seasonal variations and irrigation methods, particularly during the kharif season. On the political map of India, West Bengal can be located in the eastern part of the country, bordered by the Bay of Bengal to the south.
Key Points: West Bengal - leading rice producer - contributes to India's rice output - high yield - located in eastern India

(2)

2) An oil refinery in Uttar Pradesh

[1 Marks]
Answer: To locate and label an oil refinery in Uttar Pradesh on the political outline map of India, I will identify the nearest well-known oil refinery, which is the Mathura Oil Refinery. I will mark it approximately in the coordinates of Mathura city located in the western part of Uttar Pradesh. I will use a standard symbol for oil refineries, typically represented by a small oil rig or a barrel symbol, and label it clearly as 'Mathura Oil Refinery'.
Key Points: Identify the Mathura Oil Refinery- Locate it in western Uttar Pradesh- Use an appropriate symbol for oil refineries- Label it clearly on the map

(3)

3) The sea port situated at the head of Vembanad Kayal

[1 Marks]
Answer: The sea port situated at the head of Vembanad Kayal is the port of Kochi (Cochin) in Kerala. It is a major port city located on the southwestern coast of India, known for its natural harbor and backwaters. Kochi plays a significant role in maritime trade and tourism, contributing to the regional identity of Kerala, famous for its rich cultural heritage and beautiful landscapes. It serves as a gateway to the backwaters of Vembanad and is a crucial point for fishing, tourism, and inland navigation.
Key Points: Kochi, located at Vembanad Kayal, major port city, natural harbor, maritime trade, tourism, cultural heritage of Kerala

(4)

4) Important bauxite mines located in southern Odisha

[1 Marks]
Answer: In southern Odisha, the important bauxite mines are located primarily in Kalahandi and Sambalpur, which are the leading producers of bauxite in the region. Bolangir and Koraput are also significant as they have been increasing their bauxite production. These areas should be marked on the map with symbols representing mineral resources.
Key Points: Kalahandi - leading bauxite producer; Sambalpur - significant bauxite mine; Bolangir - increasing production; Koraput - important for bauxite; southern Odisha region.

(5)

6) Important iron ore mines located in southern Chhattisgarh

[1 Marks]
Answer: In southern Chhattisgarh, the important iron ore mines include the Bailadila mines located near Dantewada. These mines are significant due to their large reserves of high-quality iron ore. The Bhansi mine and the Dalli Rajhara mines are also notable iron ore locations in the region. These mines are strategically located close to coal fields, enhancing their accessibility and logistics for transportation. The Bailadila group of mines, in particular, is known for its rich deposits and contributes significantly to the iron ore production in India.
Key Points: Bailadila mines-Bhansi mine-Dalli Rajhara mines-strategic location near coal fields-contribution to iron ore production

(6)

5) The international airport in Assam

[1 Marks]
Answer: In Assam, the international airport is Lokpriya Gopinath Bordoloi International Airport, located in Guwahati. On the political outline map of India, it can be marked and labeled appropriately, using a specific symbol for international airports. This airport serves as a major hub for international and domestic flights, contributing to the connectivity of the northeastern region with the rest of India and the world.
Key Points: Lokpriya Gopinath Bordoloi International Airport is located in Guwahati- serves as an international hub- contributes to Northeastern connectivity

(7)

7) Important copper mines located in southern Rajasthan

[1 Marks]
Answer: In southern Rajasthan, one of the significant copper mining areas is located in the Khetri region. I have labeled the Khetri copper mine on the map using a specific symbol for copper mines, typically represented by a small pickaxe or copper ore symbol. This area is known for its rich copper deposits, which are economically important for metal production in India.
Key Points: Khetri region-located in southern Rajasthan-copper mining-rich deposits-symbols used for labeling
Question 5.

Answer any five questions out of the following

(1)

Name the state leading in the production of rice.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The leading state in the production of rice in India is West Bengal. It has favorable climatic conditions that allow farmers to grow three different crops of rice known as 'aus', 'aman', and 'boro' throughout the agricultural year. Additionally, West Bengal's significant contribution to the total rice production in India highlights its importance in the country's agriculture sector.
Key Points: West Bengal is the leading state in rice production; it allows for multiple crops per year; rice varieties include 'aus', 'aman', 'boro'; India ranks second globally in rice production.

(2)

Name the place where an oil refinery is located in Uttar Pradesh.

[1 Marks]
Answer: In Uttar Pradesh, the Barauni oil refinery is a notable facility. This refinery is classified as a market-based refinery, emphasizing its strategic importance in the region's oil production and supply chain.
Key Points: Barauni refinery-oil refinery-Uttar Pradesh-market-based

(3)

Name the sea port situated at the head of Vembanad Kayal.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The sea port situated at the head of Vembanad Kayal is Kochchi Port. It is also known as the 'Queen of the Arabian Sea' and serves as a natural harbor. Kochchi Port’s strategic location near the Suez-Colombo route makes it significant for trade and caters to the needs of various regions including Kerala, southern Karnataka, and southwestern Tamil Nadu.
Key Points: Kochchi Port-Head of Vembanad Kayal-Queen of the Arabian Sea-Natural harbor-Strategic location-Suez-Colombo route-Caters to Kerala and surrounding regions

(4)

Name the place where important iron ore mines are located in southern Chhattisgarh.

[1 Marks]
Answer: In southern Chhattisgarh, important iron ore mines are primarily located in the Bastar district. This region benefits from its proximity to the coal fields in the northeastern plateau region, enhancing its significance in iron ore production.
Key Points: Bastar district-southern Chhattisgarh-proximity to coal fields

(5)

Name the international airport in Assam.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The international airport in Assam is Lokpriya Gopinath Bordoloi International Airport, located in Guwahati. This airport serves as a major hub for both domestic and international flights, facilitating air travel and trade for the region.
Key Points: Lokpriya Gopinath Bordoloi International Airport-Guwahati-Serves both domestic and international flights

(6)

Name the place where important copper mines are located in southern Rajasthan.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The important copper mines in southern Rajasthan are primarily located near the region of Khetri. The Khetri Copper Complex is one of the major mining areas in this region, known for its rich deposits of copper ore.
Key Points: Khetri Copper Complex - southern Rajasthan - rich copper deposits

(7)

Name the place where important bauxite mines are located in southern Odisha.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The important bauxite mines in southern Odisha are primarily located in Kalahandi and Sambalpur. These regions are noted for being the largest producers of bauxite in the state, contributing significantly to the overall bauxite production in India.
Key Points: Kalahandi-Sambalpur- largest producers of Bauxite in Odisha
Question 6.

On the given political outline map of the world (on page 25), seven geographical features have been marked as A, B, C, D, E, F and G. Identify any five with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them :

(1)

An area of nomadic herding

[1 Marks]
Answer: An area of nomadic herding is specifically characterized by regions where pastoral nomadism is practiced. This is primarily seen in areas such as the tundra regions of Eurasia, the Arabian peninsula, and parts of North Africa. In the case of the outline map, I would identify the region marked as 'C' representing the Mongolian steppes known for nomadic herding practices. Due to decreasing pastoralists and shrinking territories, these areas are increasingly significant in understanding the impact of human activities on nomadic lifestyles.
Key Points: Characteristics of nomadic herding; regions involved (e.g., tundra regions, Arabian peninsula); decreasing pastoral nomad populations; significance of identified areas on the map

(2)

A major sea port

[1 Marks]
Answer: One major sea port that can be identified on the map is the Port of Rotterdam, located in the Netherlands. Recognized as the busiest port in Europe, it serves as a crucial hub for international trade and shipping.
Key Points: Port of Rotterdam - location in Netherlands - busiest port in Europe - important for international trade

(3)

An area of extensive commercial grain farming

[1 Marks]
Answer: An area of extensive commercial grain farming can be identified as the American Prairie, which is part of the larger grain farming regions like the Canadian Prairies, Pampas of Argentina, and the Velds of South Africa. These areas are characterized by their vast landscapes that are ideal for mechanized agriculture, supporting significant grain production due to their favorable climatic conditions and advanced farming techniques. The map should clearly mark these regions to reflect their importance in global agriculture.
Key Points: American Prairies-Pampas of Argentina-Velds of South Africa-Canadian Prairies-mechanized agriculture-ideal climatic conditions

(4)

A major airport

[1 Marks]
Answer: One of the major airports that can be identified on the map is Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj International Airport, situated in Mumbai, India. It serves as a crucial hub for both domestic and international flights, thereby playing a significant role in the air transport network in the region.
Key Points: Identify a major airport; mention its location, importance, and functionality; cite its role in domestic and international connectivity.

(5)

An inland waterway

[1 Marks]
Answer: An example of an inland waterway is the Danube River. It is one of the most important navigable rivers in Eastern Europe, flowing through several countries from its source in the Black Forest to the Black Sea. The Danube is navigable up to Taurna Severin, and it primarily serves as a transportation route for goods such as wheat, maize, timber, and machinery.
Key Points: Definition of inland waterways-Importance of the Danube River as an inland waterway-Description of its navigable sections and key export items

(6)

A terminal station of a trans-continental railway

[1 Marks]
Answer: The terminal station of a trans-continental railway is Vladivostok. It serves as a major terminus for the Trans-Siberian Railway, connecting Russia to the eastern Pacific region.
Key Points: Trans-Siberian Railway-Vladivostok-terminal station-connection to Asia

(7)

A major airport

[1 Marks]
Answer: One of the major airports that can be identified on the map is 'Indira Gandhi International Airport' located in New Delhi, India. This airport serves as a significant hub for international and domestic flights and is known for its high passenger traffic and modern facilities.
Key Points: Indira Gandhi International Airport - Major hub - High passenger traffic - Serves international/domestic flights - Located in New Delhi
Question 7.

Answer any five questions out of the following :

(1)

Name the area of nomadic herding in Southern Africa.

[1 Marks]
Answer: In Southern Africa, the area of nomadic herding is primarily found among the pastoral communities known as the Maasai, who are renowned for their herding practices, predominantly involving cattle. The arid and semi-arid regions of Southern Africa provide the necessary resources for their nomadic lifestyle, as these communities move seasonally to find pastures and water for their livestock.
Key Points: Nomadic herding in Southern Africa-Maasai community-Cattle herding-Arid and semi-arid regions-Seasonal movement for resources

(2)

Name a major sea port located in South-eastern part of Australia.

[1 Marks]
Answer: A major sea port located in the South-eastern part of Australia is Sydney Harbour. It serves as a significant gateway for international trade and is one of the busiest ports in Australia, facilitating the movement of goods and passengers.
Key Points: Sydney Harbour - major sea port - South-eastern Australia - gateway for international trade - busy port

(3)

Name a major airport in Mexico.

[1 Marks]
Answer: A major airport in Mexico is Mexico City International Airport (Aeropuerto Internacional Benito Juárez). It is the busiest airport in the country and serves as a key hub for international flights and connections, facilitating travel to various destinations around the world.
Key Points: Mexico City International Airport-Aeropuerto Internacional Benito Juárez-busiest airport in Mexico-international connections

(4)

Name an area of extensive commercial grain farming of SouthAmerica.

[1 Marks]
Answer: An area of extensive commercial grain farming in South America is the Pampas of Argentina. This region is characterized by its vast fertile plains which are well-suited for the cultivation of various grains, particularly wheat and corn. The Pampas plays a significant role in Argentina's agricultural output and is known for its mechanized farming practices that enable large-scale production.
Key Points: Pampas of Argentina-Extensive commercial grain cultivation-Wheat and corn as principal crops-Mechanized farming

(5)

Name the major international airport of Japan.

[2 Marks]
Answer: The major international airport of Japan is Narita International Airport, located near Tokyo. It serves as a hub for both domestic and international flights, connecting Japan to various global destinations. Another significant airport is Kansai International Airport in Osaka, which also handles a large volume of international air traffic.
Key Points: Narita International Airport, located near Tokyo - major hub for international flights; Kansai International Airport - another key airport in Osaka; importance of international connectivity for Japan.

(6)

Name the inland waterway of Egypt.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The inland waterway of Egypt is the Suez Canal. It serves as a crucial navigable waterway connecting the Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea, facilitating international maritime trade and allowing for the transit of vessels between Europe and Asia without the need to navigate around Africa.
Key Points: Suez Canal - connects Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea - critical for trade - navigable inland waterway - established route

(7)

Name the terminal station of the western end of Trans-SiberianRailway.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The terminal station of the western end of the Trans-Siberian Railway is St. Petersburg. This city is located in the northwest region of Russia and serves as the starting point of the railway, which extends all the way to Vladivostok on the Pacific coast.
Key Points: St. Petersburg - terminal station - western end - Trans-Siberian Railway

Section B

Question 8.

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A): Industries based on cheap, bulky and weight-losing material are located close to the sources of raw materials.

Reason (R): It is followed to reduce the cost of products.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (B) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
  • (C) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (D) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
Explanation: Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) because industries that use heavy and bulky raw materials, like steel or cement, locate near their sources to minimize transportation costs. This directly aligns with the assertion that proximity to raw material sources aids in cost reduction.
Question 9.

Read the following statements related to 'gathering' carefully and choose the correct option.

I. Generally gathering is practised in the regions with harsh climatic conditions.

II. In modern times, some gathering is market-oriented.

III. Denmark is a classical example Of gathering activities.

IV. Gathering is practised mostly by primitive societies.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) I, II and IV are correct.
  • (B) I, III and IV are correct.
  • (C) I, II and III are correct.
  • (D) II, III and IV are correct.
Explanation:

The correct option is 'I, II and IV are correct.' This is because gathering is indeed practised in regions with harsh climatic conditions (I), many contemporary gathering practices are market-oriented (II), and it is mainly associated with primitive societies who rely on it for subsistence (IV). However, Denmark is not a classical example of gathering activities (III), making that statement incorrect.

Question 10.

Choose the correct statement related to 'retail trading.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) It is concerned with the sale of goods directly to the consumers.
  • (B) Retail traders primarily direct the goods to be manufactured to their specifications.
  • (C) It takes place in urban centres only.
  • (D) Retail traders are the collection and distribution centres.
Explanation: The correct option is 'It is concerned with the sale of goods directly to the consumers.' This statement accurately reflects the definition of retail trading provided in the context, which specifies that retail trading involves the direct sale of goods to consumers, often through various selling methods like stores, street peddling, and online platforms.
Question 11.

Which one of the following waterways uses the 'Panama Canal' ?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Between San Francisco and New York
  • (B) Between London and Aden
  • (C) Between Yokohama and Vancouver
  • (D) Between Auckland and Honolulu
Explanation: The Panama Canal connects the Atlantic Ocean to the Pacific Ocean and is used for trade routes linking Western Europe and North America with Australia, New Zealand, and Pacific islands. Therefore, the correct option is 'Between San Francisco and New York' as the canal significantly shortens the distance on this route.
Question 12.

The ports specialized in bulk cargo are called:

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Comprehensive Ports
  • (B) Inland Ports
  • (C) Out Ports
  • (D) Industrial Ports
Explanation: The correct option is Industrial Ports. According to the provided context, Industrial Ports specialize in bulk cargo such as grain, sugar, ore, oil, and chemicals, making them the appropriate classification for ports handling bulk materials.
Question 13.

Arrange the following states from the highest to the lowest order according to their production of Bauxite and choose the correct option.

I. Odisha

II. Gujarat

III. Chhattisgarh

IV. Madhya Pradesh

[1 Marks]
  • (A) IV, I, III, II
  • (B) III, IV, II, I
  • (C) III, II, I, IV
  • (D) I, III, II, IV
Explanation: The correct order of states based on Bauxite production is IV, I, III, II. Odisha is the largest producer of Bauxite, followed by Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, and Madhya Pradesh, which aligns with the provided context stating that Odisha has the leading deposits, specifically in Kalahandi and Sambalpur.
Question 14.

Choose the correct group of states utilizing their groundwater resource moderately.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Uttar Pradesh, Haryana, Rajasthan
  • (B) Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand
  • (C) Gujarat, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar
  • (D) Chhattisgarh, Kerala, Punjab
Explanation: The correct option is Gujarat, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar. According to the context, these states are deemed to be utilizing their groundwater resources at a moderate rate, unlike states like Punjab, Haryana, and Rajasthan, which overuse their groundwater, leading to depletion.
Question 15.

The world's longest highway tunnel, Atal Tunnel is constructed across which one Of the following ranges Of the Himalayas ?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Zaskar
  • (B) Pir Panjal
  • (C) Ladakh
  • (D) Karakoram
Explanation: The Atal Tunnel is constructed across the Pir Panjal range of the Himalayas, facilitating better connectivity in the region by providing an all-weather route.
Question 16.

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A): International trade is mutually beneficial to nations.

Reason (R): It helps in getting the needed items from other countries.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (B) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
  • (C) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (D) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
Explanation: Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) because international trade indeed allows countries to access goods and services they need, which supports the idea that it is mutually beneficial to all participating nations. The context mentions that international trade is based on regional specialization and efficiency, reinforcing that countries trade to obtain what they cannot produce themselves.
Question 17. Which one of the following is the main polluter of Yamuna water in Delhi?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Flood water spreading
  • (B) Dumping of domestic waste
  • (C) Use of fertilizers
  • (D) Use of pesticides
Explanation: The main polluter of Yamuna water in Delhi is the dumping of domestic waste, as stated in the context. The passage explicitly mentions that domestic and industrial waste from Delhi flows into the river, contributing significantly to the pollution of the Yamuna.
Question 18. Identify the correct set of water-borne diseases.
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Asthma, Headache and Diarrhoea
  • (B) Intestinal worms, Headache and Blood pressure
  • (C) Hepatitis, Diarrhoea and Intestinal worms
  • (D) Hepatitis, Asthma and Blood pressure
Explanation: The correct option is 'Hepatitis, Diarrhoea, and Intestinal worms' as these are explicitly mentioned in the context as diseases caused by contaminated water. Other options include conditions that are not classified as water-borne diseases.
Question 19.

Read the following factors of population migration in India from rural to urban areas carefully and choose the correct option of push factors.

I. Unemployment

II. Job opportunities

III. Economic backwardness

IV. Lack Of medical facilities

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Only I, III and IV are correct.
  • (B) Only I, II and III are correct.
  • (C) Only II, III and IV are correct.
  • (D) Only I, II and IV are correct.
Explanation: The correct option is 'Only I, III and IV are correct.' because push factors are conditions that drive people away from their current location. Unemployment, economic backwardness, and lack of medical facilities are all negative aspects of rural life that can compel individuals to migrate to urban areas in search of better opportunities. Job opportunities, on the other hand, are considered a pull factor because they attract people to urban areas.
Question 20.

The pressure on agricultural land increases not only due to the limited availability but also by deterioration of. In the context of this statement read the following reasons carefully and choose the correct option.

I. Soil erosion and waterlogging.

II. Salinisation and alkalinisation Of soil.

III. Rich land fertility and multiple cropping.

IV. Decline in land productivity.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Only I, III and IV are correct.
  • (B) Only I, II and IV are correct.
  • (C) Only II, III and IV are correct.
  • (D) Only I, II and III are correct.
Explanation: The correct answer is 'Only I, II and IV are correct.' This is because soil erosion and waterlogging (I) and salinisation and alkalinisation of soil (II) both contribute to the deterioration of agricultural land quality, leading to a decline in land productivity (IV). In contrast, 'Rich land fertility and multiple cropping' (III) do not represent deterioration; instead, they indicate positive aspects of agricultural land. Hence, only I, II, and IV are valid reasons for increased pressure on agricultural land.
Question 21.

Choose an objective of the Namami Gange Programme from the following:

[1 Marks]
  • (A) To develop the network of canals
  • (B) To monitor industrial effluents
  • (C) To construct dams for water management
  • (D) To develop 'Ganga Grams' in Assam
Explanation: The correct option is 'To monitor industrial effluents.' This is correct as the Namami Gange Programme specifically includes the objective of monitoring industrial effluents to control pollution in the Ganga River, as detailed in the context provided.
Question 22.

The maximum number of countries given in the table belong to which one of the following continents?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) South America
  • (B) Europe
  • (C) North America
  • (D) Asia
Explanation: The maximum number of countries mentioned in the context are located in Asia, as it states that 6 out of the 10 most populous countries are in Asia.
Question 23.

Arrange the following countries from low to high order of Human Development Index value and choose the correct option.

I. Singapore

II. Germany

III. Mexico

IV. Israel

[1 Marks]
  • (A) III, IV, I, II
  • (B) III, IV, II, I
  • (C) IV, III, I, II
  • (D) IV, III, II, I
Explanation: To arrange the countries from low to high Human Development Index (HDI) value, we rely on their relative standings based on known HDI data. Germany ranks 9th in the top countries listed, indicating a very high HDI. Singapore is recognized as a high HDI country, though its exact ranking is not mentioned here, it generally is positioned above Germany. Israel is also considered to have a high HDI but is below Germany in rankings. Mexico has a medium HDI and therefore ranks the lowest. Thus, the correct order is III (Mexico), IV (Israel), I (Singapore), II (Germany).
Question 24.

Choose the correctly matched pair.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Mexico - South America
  • (B) Chile - Asia
  • (C) Austria - Europe
  • (D) Cuba - Africa
Explanation: The correct option is 'Austria - Europe' because Austria is a country located in central Europe. The other options are incorrect as Mexico is in North America, Chile is also in South America, and Cuba is in North America, not Africa.

Section C

Question 25. Examine the concept of naturalisation of humans.
[3 Marks]
Answer: The naturalisation of humans refers to the process through which human beings integrate and adapt to their natural environment, reflecting a deep interdependence between people and nature. For instance, Benda, an inhabitant of the Abujh Maad area, exemplifies this concept through his engagement in a primitive form of agriculture shaped by the forest. This interaction indicates a mutual relationship where nature influences human practices, leading to a humanised environment. Theories like possibilism highlight how human beings utilize natural resources, subsequently imprinting their culture and needs onto the landscape. As societies evolve, so do their landscapes, creating a reality where differentiated human activity shapes natural spaces while also being shaped by them. Therefore, the concept emphasizes a holistic view of geography, recognizing how intertwined human and natural systems are.
Question 26. Examine the humanistic approach of human geography.
[3 Marks]
Answer: The humanistic approach in human geography emerged in the 1970s as a reaction to the quantitative revolution, which some found to be dehumanizing. This approach emphasizes the importance of individual human experiences and social well-being, examining aspects such as housing, health, and education. By focusing on the relationships between humans and their environments, humanistic geography strives to understand spatial distributions of human phenomena. It connects closely with other social sciences to address welfare and quality of life in various societies, fostering a more holistic view of geography. This perspective redefines geography to not only study landforms but also the lived experiences that shape communities and cultures, contributing significantly to social justice and advocacy. The humanistic approach challenges traditional methodologies by prioritizing subjective experiences and narratives, thus seeking to enhance understanding of people's interactions with their environment.
Question 27. Explain the importance of international trade in modern times.
[3 Marks]
Answer: International trade plays a pivotal role in the modern economy as it facilitates the exchange of goods and services across borders, fostering economic growth. By embracing specialization, countries can leverage their comparative advantages, leading to increased production efficiency and a better standard of living. Trade enables access to a diverse range of products, promoting consumer choice and competition. Furthermore, it aids in technology diffusion, cultural exchange, and can enhance diplomatic relations. In summary, international trade is essential for economic interdependence, development, and global cooperation.
Question 28.

Why does 'solar thermal energy' have greater advantage over 'non-renewable energy' in India ? Explain.

[3 Marks]
Answer: Solar thermal energy offers significant advantages over non-renewable energy sources in India due to its cost-effectiveness, environmental friendliness, and ease of construction. It is about 7% more effective than coal or oil-based plants and 10% more effective than nuclear energy. This renewable energy source can meet various domestic needs such as heating and cooking, and it leverages India's vast solar potential, particularly in regions like Gujarat and Rajasthan. As a sustainable alternative, solar thermal energy minimizes pollution and reduces dependency on finite resources, contributing to energy security and climate change mitigation.

Section D

Question 29. Analyse any five factors influencing the distribution of world population.
[5 Marks]
Answer: The distribution of world population is influenced by several key factors. Firstly, physical geography plays a crucial role; areas with fertile land, such as river valleys and plains, attract more people for agriculture. Secondly, climate significantly affects habitability; temperate zones tend to have denser populations than extreme climates like deserts or tundras. Thirdly, economic opportunities drive population concentration in urban areas where jobs are plentiful. Fourthly, political stability and governance contribute to population distribution; regions with better infrastructure and services see higher population densities. Lastly, cultural factors, including historical migration patterns and social norms, impact how and where populations are settled. Each of these factors interacts in complex ways, explaining why 90% of the world’s population resides in only 10% of its land area.
Question 30.

"Rearing of animals in ranches is organized on the scientific basis. Examine the statement.

[5 Marks]
Answer: The statement that rearing of animals in ranches is organized on a scientific basis is supported by several key factors. Commercial livestock rearing focuses specifically on one type of animal, such as sheep, cattle, goats, or horses, allowing for specialized care and management. The scientific approach emphasizes breeding and genetic improvements to enhance quality and productivity. Disease control and health care protocols are meticulously implemented to ensure optimal animal welfare and minimize losses. Additionally, ranching practices are capital-intensive and organized, with large parcels of land properly fenced to manage grazing efficiently. This systematic approach allows for the sustainable use of resources and maximizes output. The processing and packaging of animal products, including meat, wool, hides, and skin, are conducted scientifically to meet global market standards and demands. Thus, the organization and management of ranching on a scientific basis contribute significantly to both economic viability and animal health.
Question 31.

Mixed economies have public, private and joint sector industries. Examine the statement.

[5 Marks]
Answer: A mixed economy combines elements of both public and private sectors, allowing for diverse ownership models within the industrial framework. In this system, public sector industries are owned and managed by the government, playing a crucial role in ensuring that essential services and infrastructure are accessible to all citizens. In India, notable Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) exemplify this aspect. Conversely, private sector industries are run by individual investors and aim to profit from market competition. Finally, joint sector industries emerge as a collaboration between the public and private sectors, pooling resources and expertise for mutual benefit. Such industries foster innovation and efficiency, contributing to overall national development. This mix allows for balanced economic growth, as governments implement policies promoting regional development and agglomeration economies, enhancing industrial linkages and thus facilitating a shift from primary agriculture to secondary and tertiary sectors over time. This ongoing evolution is vital for developing economies like India.
Question 32.

How does personal communication system enable the user to establish direct contact with the world of knowledge and information ? Analyse.

[5 Marks]
Answer: The personal communication system, particularly through the internet, has revolutionized the way individuals access knowledge and information. The internet serves as a vast network connecting approximately 1,000 million users globally, allowing instant access to a plethora of information via email, websites, and social media platforms. E-commerce activities further enhance this system by facilitating online transactions, driving economic interactions. Additionally, communication mediums such as satellite technology enable real-time connectivity, thus creating a global village where information exchange occurs seamlessly. Webinars, online forums, and digital libraries are just a few examples of how the personal communication system bridges gaps between individuals and knowledge repositories, empowering users to learn, engage, and transact effectively. This direct access to information not only democratizes knowledge but also fosters a culture of continuous learning and global interconnectedness.
Question 33.

Analyse the changing pattern of imports in India.

[5 Marks]
Answer: The pattern of India's imports has undergone significant changes between 2015 to 2022. A notable decline in the import of capital goods reflects India's growing domestic manufacturing capabilities. The import of food and allied products has also decreased, suggesting improvements in agricultural production and self-sufficiency. Additionally, India has continued to import high-value items like pearls, precious stones, and metals, indicating a demand for luxury goods. Overall, the trend indicates a shift towards enhancing domestic production while still relying on certain imports for specific sectors. Despite the total volume of imports increasing, the value has highlighted the persistent trade imbalance, as imports consistently outpace exports. Thus, while India works towards a more balanced trade, certain consumer preferences and production needs ensure continued reliance on foreign goods.
Question 34.

Define the concept of 'Common Property Resource'. Explain any four characteristics of common property resources in India.

[5 Marks]
Answer: Common Property Resources (CPRs) are natural resources owned by the community rather than by individuals. They play a vital role in supporting the livelihoods of rural households by providing essential resources such as fodder, fuel, and water. In India, four key characteristics of CPRs are: 1) **Collective Ownership**: These resources are managed collectively by the community, ensuring equitable access. 2) **Community Rights**: Each member has the right to use the CPRs, fostering a sense of collective responsibility. 3) **Sustainability**: CPRs must be used sustainably to prevent depletion, promoting conservation efforts among community members. 4) **Cultural Significance**: They often hold cultural importance, serving as sites for community gatherings and rituals, thus integrating social and economic aspects of rural life.
Question 35.

Distinguish between 'irrigated' and 'rainfed agriculture' in India

with examples.

[5 Marks]
Answer: Irrigated agriculture relies on artificial water supply to crops through irrigation systems, aimed at achieving high productivity. This method ensures a regular moisture supply, particularly essential for high-yield varieties, leading to increased agricultural output. For instance, states like Punjab and Haryana practice irrigated farming primarily for crops such as wheat and rice, benefiting from canals and tube wells. Conversely, rainfed agriculture depends on natural rainfall for moisture, classified into dryland and wetland farming. Dryland farming, found in regions with less than 75 cm of annual rainfall, focuses on drought-resistant crops such as ragi and bajra, emphasizing soil conservation techniques. On the other hand, wetland farming, prevalent in areas with excess rainfall, supports water-intensive crops like rice and jute, but may face challenges like flooding. Both systems play crucial roles in India's agricultural landscape, balancing productivity with water resource management.
Question 36.

Spatial variation in population density is found in India. Explain the statement with examples.

[5 Marks]
Answer: India exhibits significant spatial variation in population density due to a combination of physical, socioeconomic, and historical factors. The northern states, particularly Uttar Pradesh, have the highest population density, which is attributed to fertile plains that support agriculture. In contrast, the Himalayan region and northeastern states like Arunachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand have low population densities, mainly due to their challenging terrain and harsh climates. In addition, Union Territories, excluding the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, often show very high densities due to urbanization and concentrated economic activities. For example, Delhi has a high population density due to its status as a political and economic hub. Furthermore, moderate densities are found in states like Assam, Gujarat, and Andhra Pradesh, illustrating the diversity in population distribution across the country. Such variations indicate the impact of geography on settlement patterns, as areas with suitable conditions tend to attract larger populations, while less hospitable regions remain sparsely populated.
Question 37.

Population distribution pattern in India is highly uneven. Explain the statement with examples.

[5 Marks]
Answer: The population distribution in India is characterized by significant unevenness, influenced by various physical, socioeconomic, and historical factors. For instance, Uttar Pradesh, with a population share of approximately 16.5%, is the most populous state, whereas states like Arunachal Pradesh (0.11%) and Jammu & Kashmir (1.04%) have much lower densities despite their larger geographical areas. This disparity can be attributed to the availability of resources, economic opportunities, and historical migration patterns. Regions with fertile land, like the Gangetic plains, attract higher populations due to agriculture and urbanization. Conversely, mountainous and remote areas often lead to lower population densities. Understanding these patterns helps in realizing the complexities of development and resource allocation across the nation.

Paper Details

CBSE Board Exam 2025

Class

CLASS 12-HUMANITIES

Subject

GEOGRAPHY

Year

2025

Set

Set 4

Other Years — GEOGRAPHY

2022 Set-1

2022 Set-2

2022 Set-3

2022 Set-4

2022 Set-5

2023 Set-1

2023 Set-2

2023 Set-3

2023 Set-4

2023 Set-5

2024 Set-1

2024 Set-2

2024 Set-3

2024 Set-4

2024 Set-5

2025 Set-1

2025 Set-2

2025 Set-3

2025 Set-4

2025 Set-5

2025 Set-6