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previous-year-question-paper-2024-set-4

QUESTION PAPER

2024 BOARD EXAM

CBSE CLASS 12-HUMANITIES GEOGRAPHY Board Paper 2024 — Set 4

2024

GEOGRAPHY

CLASS 12-HUMANITIES

CBSE EXAMINATION PAPER-2024 GEOGRAPHY

CBSE EXAMINATION PAPER-2024

GEOGRAPHY

(Solved)

Time allowed : 3 hours

Maximum Marks : 74

General Instructions :

Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :

  1. This question paper contains 34 questions. All questions are compulsory.
  2. This question paper is divided into 4 sections.
  3. Section A – questions number 1 to 4 are case based questions
  4. Section B – questions number 5 to 20 are multiple choice questions
  5. Section C – questions number 21 to 26 are short answer
  6. Section D – questions number 27 to 34 are long answer
  7. There is no overall choice given in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions.
  8. Use of calculator is NOT allowed.

Section A

Question 1.

Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow :

Tertiary Sector

When you fall ill you go to your family doctor or you call a doctor. Sometimes your parents take you to a hospital for treatment. While in school, you are taught by your teachers. In the event of any dispute, legal opinion is obtained from a lawyer. Likewise, there are many professionals who provide their services against payment of their fee. Thus, all types of services are special skills provided in exchange of payments. Health, education, law, governance and recreation etc. require professional skills. These services require other theoretical knowledge and practical training. Tertiary activities are related to the service sector. Manpower is an important component of the service sector as most of the tertiary activities are performed by skilled labour, professionally trained experts and consultants.

In the initial stages of economic development, larger proportion of people worked in the primary sector. In a developed economy, the majority of workers get employment in tertiary activity and a moderate proportion is employed in the secondary sector.

(1) Why is ‘manpower’ an important factor of service sector? Explain.

[1 Marks]

(2) Explain the difference between the activities of secondary and tertiary sectors.

[1 Marks]

(3) “Tertiary activities include both production and exchange.” Support the statement.

[1 Marks]
Question 2.

Study the given diagram carefully and answer the questions that follow:

India - Occupational Structure, 2011

(1) Write the names of two states with highest percentage of cultivators.

[1 Marks]

(2) Write the names of two Union Territories having the highest percentage of other workers.

[1 Marks]

(3) What is the approximate percentage of cultivators in Tripura?

[1 Marks]

(4)

“Spatial variation of work participation rate in different sectors in the country is very wide.” Support the statement.

[3 Marks]
Question 3.

On the given political outline Map of the World, seven geographical features have been marked as A, B, C, D, E, F and G. Identify any FIVE correctly with the help of following information and write their correct names on the lines marked near them :

(1)

An area of extensive commercial grain farming

[1 Marks]

(2)

Eastern most station of ‘Trans-Canadian Railways’

[1 Marks]

(3)

An area of commercial livestock rearing

[1 Marks]

(4)

A major international airport of Europe

[1 Marks]

(5)

A shipping canal

[1 Marks]

(6)

An area of ‘Nomadic Herding’

[1 Marks]

(7)

A major seaport of Asia

[1 Marks]

(8)

Name an area of commercial livestock rearing of South America.

[1 Marks]

(9)

Name a major international airport of France.

[1 Marks]

(10)

Name a major area of extensive commercial grain farming of New

Zealand.

[1 Marks]

(11)

Name the major seaport of Japan.

[1 Marks]

(12)

Name the canal linking Red sea with Mediterranean sea.

[1 Marks]

(13)

Name the easternmost station of ‘Trans-Canadian Railways’.

[1 Marks]

(14)

Name the major area of extensive commercial grain farming of

Argentina.

[1 Marks]
Question 4.

Locate and label any five of the following geographical features on the

given political outline Map of India with appropriate symbols :

(1)

Astate with highest population density

[1 Marks]

(2)

State leading in the production of coffee

[1 Marks]

(3)

Ratnagiri : Iron ore mines

[1 Marks]

(4)

Hazaribagh : Copper mines

[1 Marks]

(5)

Haldia : Major seaport

[1 Marks]

(6)

Name the state with highest population density.

[1 Marks]

(7)

Name the leading state in production of coffee.

[1 Marks]

(8)

In which state, Hazaribagh copper mines are located ?

[1 Marks]

(9)

Neyveli: Coal mines

[1 Marks]

(10)

Ahmedabad : Major international airport

[1 Marks]

(11)

In which state, Ahmedabad international airport is located ?

[1 Marks]

(12)

Name the state, where Ratnagiri iron-ore mines are located.

[1 Marks]

(13)

In which state, Haldia seaport is located ?

[1 Marks]

(14)

In which state, Neyveli coal mines are located ?

[1 Marks]

Section B

Question 5.

Read the following characteristics of wholesale trading carefully and choose the correct option:

I. It is constituted by numerous intermediaries, merchants and supply houses.

II. Wholesalers often extend credit to retail stores.

III. Generally, retailers operate very largely on the wholesaler's capital.

IV. Mall mode, automatic vending machines, and trot vendors are some of its examples.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Only I, III and IV are correct.
  • (B) Only I, II and IV are correct.
  • (C) Only I, II and III are correct.
  • (D) Only III and IV are correct.
Question 6. Which one of the following is the headquarter of the ‘World Trade Organization’?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) New York
  • (B) Geneva
  • (C) Delhi
  • (D) London
Question 7.

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A): Industries based on ores are located close to the sources of raw material.

Reason (R): Industries maximize profits by reducing transportation costs.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) (A) is correct and (R) is false.
  • (B) (A) is false and (R) is correct.
  • (C) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (D) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Question 8.

Which one of the following is the false reason for the high growth rate of urban population in India?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Higher economic development in cities
  • (B) Rapid expansion of urban areas
  • (C) Availability of employment opportunities in cities
  • (D) Improvement in health conditions in cities
Question 9. Which one of the following states has the highest percentage of urban population?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Maharashtra
  • (B) Kerala
  • (C) Gujarat
  • (D) Goa
Question 10.

The characteristics of an agricultural crop in India are given below. Read the following characteristics carefully and identify the crop:

I. It is a crop of tropical humid area.

II. West Bengal farmers grow it three crops in a year.

III. It is grown as a Kharif crop in north-western parts.

IV. West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh and Punjab are major producing states.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Gram
  • (B) Wheat
  • (C) Bajra
  • (D) Rice
Question 11.

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A): The economic development of a region depends upon its resources.

Reason (R): Economic development requires technologies as well as investment.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (C) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (D) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.
Question 12.

Match the Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) a - (iii), b - (iv), c - (ii), d - (i)
  • (B) a - (iv), b - (iii), c - (ii), d - (ii)
  • (C) a - (iii), b - (iv), c - (i), d - (ii)
  • (D) a - (iv), b - (iii), c - (i), d - (ii)
Question 13.

Which of the following is an example of a ‘Modern City’ ?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Hyderabad
  • (B) Surat
  • (C) Nagpur
  • (D) Madurai
Question 14.

Choose the correct option related to Garrison towns in India

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Modinagar, Jamshedpur and Bhilai
  • (B) Itarsi, Katni and Kandla
  • (C) Mhow, Babina and Udhampur
  • (D) Raniganj, Digboi and Jharia
Question 15.

Read the following characteristics of settlements carefully and identify its

type :

  1. It is seen in the form of isolated huts in the forest.

  2. It is visible on the slopes of small hills.

  3. This kind of settlements are found in different parts of Meghalaya,

Uttarakhand and Himachal Pradesh.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Nucleated
  • (B) Dispersed
  • (C) Hamleted
  • (D) Fragmented
Question 16.

Choose the correct option to fill the blanks :

Indian Railway was introduced in 1853 and a railway line was

constructed from ..............to................. covering a distance of 34 km.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Mumbai (Bombay), Thane
  • (B) Kolkata (Calcutta), Hugli
  • (C) Chennai (Madras), Madurai
  • (D) Bengaluru (Bangalore), Calicut
Question 17.

Which one of the following human body system gets affected the most by

water pollution ?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Nervous system
  • (B) Circulatory system
  • (C) Digestive system
  • (D) Respiratory system
Question 18.

Which of the following tribes is in majority in Jhabua district of Madhya

Pradesh ?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Bhil
  • (B) Gaddi
  • (C) Tharu
  • (D) Bakarwal
Question 19.

Demographic Transition Theory

The first stage has high fertility and high mortality because people reproduce more to compensate for the deaths due to epidemics and variable food supply. The population growth is slow and most of the people are engaged in agriculture where large families are an asset. Life expectancy is low, people are mostly illiterate and have low levels of technology. Two hundred years ago all the countries of the world were in this stage.

Fertility remains high in the beginning of second stage but it declines with time. This is accompanied by reduced mortality rate. Improvements in sanitation and health conditions lead to decline in mortality. Because of this gap the net addition to population is high.

In the last stage, both fertility and mortality decline considerably. The population is either stable or grows slowly. The population becomes urbanished, literate and has high technical know-how and deliberately controls the family size.

This shows that human beings are extremely flexible and are able to adjust their fertility.

  • In which of the following stage/stages, the death rate declined the most ?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Only I and II
  • (B) Only I and Last
  • (C) Only II
  • (D) Only I
Question 20.

Demographic Transition Theory

The first stage has high fertility and high mortality because people reproduce more to compensate for the deaths due to epidemics and variable food supply. The population growth is slow and most of the people are engaged in agriculture where large families are an asset. Life expectancy is low, people are mostly illiterate and have low levels of technology. Two hundred years ago all the countries of the world were in this stage.

Fertility remains high in the beginning of second stage but it declines with time. This is accompanied by reduced mortality rate. Improvements in sanitation and health conditions lead to decline in mortality. Because of this gap the net addition to population is high.

In the last stage, both fertility and mortality decline considerably. The population is either stable or grows slowly. The population becomes urbanished, literate and has high technical know-how and deliberately controls the family size.

This shows that human beings are extremely flexible and are able to adjust their fertility.

  • Which one among the following countries is an example of second stage?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Kenya
  • (B) Bangladesh
  • (C) Japan
  • (D) Canada

Section C

Question 21. How do differences in national resources become the basis of international trade? Explain with examples.
[3 Marks]
Question 22. Explain the differences between the inland and out-ports with examples.
[3 Marks]
Question 23. Analyse any three objectives of ‘Jal Kranti Abhiyan’ in India.
[3 Marks]
Question 24. Analyse any three key features of ‘Indian National Water Policy’.
[3 Marks]
Question 25. Explain the concept of ‘Humanisation of Nature’ by giving examples.
[3 Marks]
Question 26. Suggest any three measures to solve the problem of ‘Urban Waste Disposal in India’ and explain them.
[3 Marks]

Section D

Question 27. Which organisation publishes the ‘Human Development Report’ every year? Explain the four pillars of human development.
[5 Marks]
Question 28. Which country has the highest rank in the world in Human Development Index in 2020? Explain four approaches of human development.
[5 Marks]
Question 29. Describe any five features of commercial livestock rearing in the world.
[5 Marks]
Question 30. Explain with examples the importance of ‘Satellite Communication’ in the world.
[5 Marks]
Question 31. Explain any five measures for the conservation of mineral resources in India.
[5 Marks]
Question 32. Explain the importance of solar energy in the Indian context.
[5 Marks]
Question 33. “Pipelines are the most convenient and efficient mode of transportation in India.” Examine the statement with examples.
[5 Marks]
Question 34. “India has the second largest road networks in the world.” Examine the statement with examples.
[5 Marks]

Paper Details

CBSE Board Exam 2024

Class

CLASS 12-HUMANITIES

Subject

GEOGRAPHY

Year

2024

Set

Set 4

Other Years — GEOGRAPHY

2022 Set-1

2022 Set-2

2022 Set-3

2022 Set-4

2022 Set-5

2023 Set-1

2023 Set-2

2023 Set-3

2023 Set-4

2023 Set-5

2024 Set-1

2024 Set-2

2024 Set-3

2024 Set-4

2024 Set-5

2025 Set-1

2025 Set-2

2025 Set-3

2025 Set-4

2025 Set-5

2025 Set-6