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SOLUTIONS

2023 BOARD EXAM

CBSE CLASS 12-HUMANITIES GEOGRAPHY Board Paper 2023 — Set 4

2023

GEOGRAPHY

CLASS 12-HUMANITIES

CBSE EXAMINATION SOLVED PAPER-2023 GEOGRAPHY

CBSE EXAMINATION PAPER-2023

GEOGRAPHY

(Solved)

Time allowed : 3 hours

Maximum Marks : 70

General Instructions :

Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :

  1. This question paper contains 34 questions. All questions are compulsory.
  2. This question paper is divided into 4 sections.
  3. Section A – questions number 1 to 4 are case based questions
  4. Section B – questions number 5 to 21 are multiple choice questions
  5. Section C – questions number 22 to 27 are short answer
  6. Section D – questions number 28 to 34 are long answer
  7. There is no overall choice given in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions.
  8. Use of calculator is NOT allowed.

Section A

Question 1.

Study the given graph and answer the questions that follow:

(1) In which year was the gap between imports and exports the maximum?

[1 Marks]
Answer: The gap between imports and exports was the maximum in the year 2021-22.
Key Points: maximum gap-2021-22-imports higher than exports

(2) When was the gap between imports and exports minimum?

[1 Marks]
Answer: The gap between imports and exports was minimum during the financial year 2013-14, as indicated by the graph.
Key Points: Minimum gap observed in 2013-14-Analysis of imports and exports trends-Reference to the provided graph

(3)

In which year had India's exports shown highest upward trend?

[1 Marks]
Answer: India's exports showed the highest upward trend in the year 2020-21, reaching a total of Rs. 77,19,796 crore.
Key Points: 2020-21 highest exports-exports growth-India's foreign trade

(4)

These is a decline in India's exports of traditional items such as coffee, cashew etc. Give an appropriate reason.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The decline in India's exports of traditional items like coffee and cashew can be attributed to tough international competition which puts pressure on these products in the global market.
Key Points: tough international competition

(5)

Why is there a steep rise in India's import of petroleum products?

[1 Marks]
Answer: The steep rise in India's import of petroleum products can be attributed to several factors. Firstly, the increasing industrialization and improving living standards in the country have led to a higher demand for petroleum not just as fuel but also as an essential raw material for industries. Additionally, sporadic price rises in the international market have contributed to the increased imports as they drive up costs. Furthermore, shifts in the import patterns, such as the decline in food grain imports being replaced by fertilisers and petroleum, have also impacted the overall import scenario.
Key Points: Rising industrialization - Better living standards - Use as industrial raw material - International price fluctuations - Changing import patterns

(6)

Which sector has the highest share in India's total value of exports?

[1 Marks]
Answer: The manufacturing sector has the highest share in India's total value of exports, accounting for 67.8 percent of the total export value in 2021-22.
Key Points: Manufacturing sector; 67.8 percent; highest share; total value of exports; 2021-22
Question 2.

Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Methods of Mining.

Depending on the mode of occurrence and the nature of the ore, mining is of two types : surface and underground mining. The surface mining also known as open-cast mining is the easiest and the cheapest way of mining minerals that occur close to the surface. Overhead costs such as safety precautions and equipment are relatively low in this method. The output is both large and rapid.

When the ore lies deep below the surface, underground mining method (shaft method) has to be used. In this method, vertical shafts have to be sunk, from where underground galleries radiate to reach the minerals. Minerals are extracted and transported to the surface through these passages. It requires specially designed lifts, drills, haulage vehicles, ventilation system for safety and efficient movement of people and material. This method is risky. Poisonous gases, fires, floods and caving in lead to fatal accidents. Have you ever read about mine fires and flooding of coal mines in India ?

The developed economies are retreating from mining, processing and refining stages of production due to high labour costs, while the developing countries with large labour force and striving for higher standard of living are becoming more important. Several countries of Africa and few of South America and Asia have over fifty percent of the earnings from minerals alone.

(1) Why is open-cast mining the easiest way of mining?

[1 Marks]
Answer: Open-cast mining is considered the easiest way of mining because it involves extracting minerals that are located close to the surface. This method has lower overhead costs related to safety precautions and equipment, making the process more economical. Additionally, it allows for a large and rapid output of minerals.
Key Points: Easily accessible ore-close to surface-lower overhead costs-large output-rapid extraction

(2) Explain the main difference between surface and underground mining.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The main difference between surface and underground mining lies in their depth of operation. Surface mining, also known as open-cast mining, is used for minerals that are located close to the earth's surface and is characterized by lower costs and rapid output. In contrast, underground mining is required for ores that lie deep beneath the surface, involving greater risks and higher operational costs due to the need for specialized equipment and safety measures.
Key Points: Surface mining occurs close to the surface; Underground mining is for deep ores; Surface mining is cheaper and faster; Underground mining requires specialized equipment; Underground mining is riskier.

(3) Why is shaft mining more risky?

[1 Marks]
Answer: Shaft mining is more risky due to several hazards associated with working deep underground. The method involves sinking vertical shafts and creating underground galleries, which exposes miners to poisonous gases, the risk of fires, potential floods, and the danger of caving in. These conditions can lead to fatal accidents, making it a particularly hazardous form of mining.
Key Points: hazards of working underground - poisonous gases - risk of fires and floods - danger of caving in - potential for fatal accidents
Question 3.

On the given political outline map of the World, seven geographical features have been marked as A, B, C, D, E, F and G. Identify any five with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them :

(1)

An international airport in South America

[1 Marks]
Answer: The international airport located in South America is the São Paulo/Guarulhos–Governador André Franco Montoro International Airport (GRU) in Brazil.
Key Points: São Paulo/Guarulhos International Airport is one of the largest international airports in South America- It serves as a major hub for flights between South America and other continents- It plays a crucial role in connecting various air routes across the region

(2)

A major seaport in Australia

[1 Marks]
Answer: The major seaport in Australia is Sydney.
Key Points: Sydney is the largest city in Australia; it has a significant natural harbor; it serves as a major trading port.

(3)

A canal linking Atlantic Ocean with Pacific Ocean

[1 Marks]
Answer: The Panama Canal is the canal that links the Atlantic Ocean with the Pacific Ocean.
Key Points: connects Atlantic and Pacific; located in Panama; constructed by the U.S.; significant for global trade

(4)

A terminal station of Trans-Siberian Railway

[1 Marks]
Answer: The terminal station of the Trans-Siberian Railway is Vladivostok.
Key Points: Trans-Siberian Railway-terminal station-Vladivostok

(5)

A major seaport in Asia

[1 Marks]
Answer: Mumbai is a major seaport in Asia.
Key Points: Mumbai is a major seaport- located on the west coast of India- handles general cargo and passenger traffic

(6)

A major area of commercial livestock rearing

[1 Marks]
Answer: Argentina is a major area of commercial livestock rearing.
Key Points: Commercial livestock rearing; Important countries: New Zealand, Australia, Argentina, Uruguay, USA; Economically significant

(7)

An area of extensive commercial grain farming

[1 Marks]
Answer: The area of extensive commercial grain farming is identified as the 'American Prairies'.
Key Points: American Prairies-Mechanised farming-Wheat and other crops

(8)

Which canal links Atlantic Ocean with Pacific Ocean ?

[1 Marks]
Answer: The Panama Canal links the Atlantic Ocean with the Pacific Ocean.
Key Points: Panama Canal-Connects Atlantic and Pacific Oceans-Constructed across Panama Isthmus

(9)

Name any one major seaport located in Pakistan.

[1 Marks]
Answer: Karachi is a major seaport located in Pakistan.
Key Points: Karachi- major seaport- Pakistan- handles cargo

(10)

Which is the terminal station on the eastern end of Trans-Siberian Railway ?

[1 Marks]
Answer: The terminal station on the eastern end of the Trans-Siberian Railway is Vladivostok.
Key Points: Trans-Siberian Railway-terminal station-Vladivostok

(11)

Mention the major area of commercial livestock rearing in Argentina.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The major area of commercial livestock rearing in Argentina is the Pampas region.
Key Points: Pampas region-Commercial livestock rearing-Sheep and cattle farming

(12)

Name any one area of extensive commercial grain farming.

[1 Marks]
Answer: One area of extensive commercial grain farming is the American Prairies.
Key Points: American Prairies-Extensive commercial grain farming-Important agricultural region

(13)

Name any one major seaport of Australia.

[1 Marks]
Answer: Sydney is a major seaport of Australia.
Key Points: Sydney - Major seaport - Located on the east coast of Australia

(14)

Name any one international airport of Argentina.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The international airport of Argentina is Ministro Pistarini International Airport, commonly known as Ezeiza International Airport.
Key Points: Ezeiza International Airport is located in Buenos Aires; it is the largest airport in Argentina; serves as a major hub for international flights.
Question 4.

On the given political outline map of India, locate and label any five of the following seven geographical features with appropriate symbols :

(1)

The state with lowest level of population density

[1 Marks]
Answer: The state with the lowest level of population density in India is Arunachal Pradesh.
Key Points: Arunachal Pradesh-lowest population density-hill state-Northeastern region

(2)

The city of West Bengal having more than 10 million population

[1 Marks]
Answer: The city of West Bengal having a population of more than 10 million is Kolkata. It can be marked on the map at its geographical coordinates.
Key Points: Kolkata-population over 10 million-located in West Bengal

(3)

Bailadila iron-ore mines

[1 Marks]
Answer: The Bailadila iron-ore mines are located in Chhattisgarh in the southeastern part of India. They are situated in the Dantewada district and are known for their rich deposits of iron ore, which significantly contribute to the iron and steel industry in the region.
Key Points: Located in Chhattisgarh; Southeastern India; In Dantewada district; Rich iron ore deposits; Contributes to iron and steel industry

(4)

The state leading in the production of cotton

[1 Marks]
Answer: The state leading in the production of cotton in India is Gujarat.
Key Points: Gujarat is known for its high cotton production; India is the second-largest cotton producer globally; other notable cotton-producing states include Maharashtra and Telangana.

(5)

Mathura oil refinery

[1 Marks]
Answer: The Mathura oil refinery is located in the northern part of India, specifically in the Mathura district of Uttar Pradesh. It can be labeled on the map using a suitable symbol such as an oil drum or refinery symbol.
Key Points: Location: Mathura, Uttar Pradesh - Geographical feature: Oil Refinery - Symbol: Oil drum or refinery symbol

(6)

Marmagao seaport

[1 Marks]
Answer: Marmagao seaport is located on the southwestern coast of India in Goa, at the entrance of the Zuari estuary. It is marked as a natural harbour and is significant for its role in shipping and trade.
Key Points: Location: southwestern coast of India; Significance: natural harbour; Connection: entrance of the Zuari estuary

(7)

An international airport in Assam

[1 Marks]
Answer: The international airport in Assam is Lokpriya Gopinath Bordoloi International Airport, located in Guwahati. It is one of the major airports serving the northeastern region of India.
Key Points: Lokpriya Gopinath Bordoloi International Airport-Guwahati-International airport in Assam

(8)

Name the state with lowest level of population density.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The state with the lowest level of population density in India is Arunachal Pradesh.
Key Points: Arunachal Pradesh has a low population density; it is a North Eastern state; characterized by large geographical area.

(9)

On which coast of India is Marmagao seaport located ?

[1 Marks]
Answer: Marmagao seaport is located on the west coast of India.
Key Points: Marmagao seaport-west coast-Indian Ocean

(10)

Name the city of West Bengal having more than 10 million population.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The city in West Bengal that has a population of more than 10 million is Kolkata.
Key Points: West Bengal, population, city, Kolkata

(11)

Which is the state leading in the production of cotton ?

[1 Marks]
Answer: The leading state in the production of cotton in India is Gujarat.
Key Points: Gujarat is a leading producer-cotton is crucial to Indian agriculture-agricultural regions contributing to cotton production

(12)

In which state is Mathura oil refinery located ?

[1 Marks]
Answer: The Mathura oil refinery is located in the state of Uttar Pradesh.
Key Points: Mathura oil refinery - located in Uttar Pradesh - significant for crude oil refining

(13)

In which state are Bailadila iron-ore mines located ?

[1 Marks]
Answer: Bailadila iron-ore mines are located in the state of Chhattisgarh.
Key Points: Location: Bailadila; State: Chhattisgarh; Major iron ore mines context

(14)

Name the international airport in Assam.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The international airport in Assam is Lokpriya Gopinath Bordoloi International Airport, located in Guwahati.
Key Points: Lokpriya Gopinath Bordoloi International Airport - located in Guwahati - serves as the primary international airport in Assam

Section B

Question 5.

Which one among the following is the least populous country?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Brazil
  • (B) Indonesia
  • (C) Nigeria
  • (D) Mexico
Explanation:

Among the given options, Mexico, Nigeria, Indonesia, and Brazil, Nigeria has the highest population, followed by Indonesia, Brazil, and Mexico. Therefore, Mexico is the least populous country among these options.

Question 6. Which one of the following is the push factor responsible for migration?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Better job opportunities
  • (B) Unpleasant climate
  • (C) Peace and stability
  • (D) Security to life and property
Explanation: The correct answer is 'Unpleasant climate.' This is a push factor because it makes the place of origin less attractive, as discussed in the context where factors such as poor living conditions and unpleasant climate drive people to migrate for a better life.
Question 7. Which one of the following is a thickly populated region?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) The Himalayan region
  • (B) Osaka-Kobe region of Japan
  • (C) Central Chile
  • (D) Siberian region of Russia
Explanation: The Osaka-Kobe region of Japan is thickly populated because it has a significant presence of industries that provide job opportunities, attracting a large number of people. In contrast, the other options mentioned are not known for such high population density.
Question 8. Which one of the following features is correct regarding the gathering and hunting activities?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Involves primitive societies
  • (B) Practised in moderate climatic regions
  • (C) Depends on heavy capital investment
  • (D) Depends upon modern technology
Explanation: The correct option is 'Involves primitive societies'. Gathering and hunting activities are primarily associated with primitive societies that rely on their immediate environment for sustenance, including extracting plants and hunting animals to meet their basic needs for food, shelter, and clothing, as mentioned in the context.
Question 9.

Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option:
[1 Marks]
  • (A) i 4, ii 3, iii 2, iv 1
  • (B) i 3, ii 4, iii 2, iv 1
  • (C) i 1, ii 2, iii 3, iv 4
  • (D) i 2, ii 1, iii 4, iv 3
Explanation:

The correct option is i 3, ii 4, iii 2, iv 1

Question 10.

Read the following features of cottage manufacturing and choose the correct option:

I. Place of manufacturing outside the home

II. It is the smallest unit of manufacturing

III.Use local raw materials

IV. Simple tools are used
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Only I, II and IV are correct.
  • (B) Only I, III and IV are correct.
  • (C) Only II, III and IV are correct.
  • (D) Only I, II and III are correct.
Explanation:

The correct option is 'Only II, III and IV are correct.' because cottage manufacturing refers to small units that typically operate within the home (hence, III and IV are valid as they employ local raw materials and simple tools). I is incorrect as the production occurs inside the home.

Question 11. Which one of the following features is correct regarding nomadic herding?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Nomadism is a modern commercial activity.
  • (B) It is practised on permanent pastures.
  • (C) Nomadism is associated with modern technology.
  • (D) A wide variety of cattle are reared in different regions.
Explanation: A wide variety of cattle are reared in different regions. This option is correct because nomadic herding involves the raising of diverse livestock tailored to the environmental conditions of various regions, as mentioned in the context, where distinct types of animals are kept in different geographical areas.
Question 12. Which one of the following is the easternmost station of the East-West corridor?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Guwahati
  • (B) Bhopal
  • (C) Kolkata
  • (D) Silchar
Explanation: The correct answer is Silchar. It is located in the northeastern part of India, making it the easternmost option among the given choices, which include Guwahati, Bhopal, and Kolkata. Guwahati is also in the northeast but is west of Silchar.
Question 13. Retail trading comes under which of the following activities?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Primary
  • (B) Tertiary
  • (C) Secondary
  • (D) Quaternary
Explanation: The correct option is Tertiary. Retail trading involves the sale of goods directly to consumers and is categorized under tertiary activities, which include trade and services that do not involve the production of tangible goods.
Question 14. Which of the following is not true regarding the development of border roads?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Integration of people of remote areas with major cities
  • (B) Strengthening defence preparedness
  • (C) Helps in transporting goods to border villages
  • (D) Help in developing large scale industries
Explanation: The correct option is 'Help in developing large scale industries.' This statement is not true as the primary focus of border roads is on integrating remote areas with major cities, strengthening defence preparedness, and facilitating the transportation of goods to border villages, rather than directly supporting the development of large-scale industries.
Question 15. Which one of the following states has the highest population?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Bihar
  • (B) Uttar Pradesh
  • (C) Maharashtra
  • (D) West Bengal
Explanation: Uttar Pradesh has the highest population among the listed states, followed by Maharashtra, Bihar, and West Bengal, as stated in the provided context.
Question 16. Which of the following is the smallest linguistic group in India?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Austric
  • (B) Dravidian
  • (C) Indo-European
  • (D) Sino-Tibetan
Explanation: The correct answer is Austric. According to the provided context, the Austric linguistic group has a speaker percentage of 1.38%, which is smaller than the other groups listed: Dravidian (20%), Indo-European (73%), and Sino-Tibetan (0.85%). Therefore, Austric is identified as the smallest linguistic group in India.
Question 17.

Which of the following is not a feature of dryland farming?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) It is practised where the annual amount of rainfall is less than 75 cm
  • (B) Practised in Black soil areas
  • (C) Measures are taken to preserve soil moisture
  • (D) Drought resistant crops are grown
Explanation:

The correct option is 'Practised in Black soil areas.' Dryland farming is primarily practiced in regions with annual rainfall less than 75 cm, and it is not specifically confined to black soil areas, as various soil types can be found in dryland farming regions. The other options accurately describe features of dryland farming.

Question 18. Which one of the following is the feature of clustered settlements?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) They are isolated
  • (B) They are fragmented
  • (C) Closely built-up area of houses
  • (D) Units are known as panna, para, palli etc.
Explanation: The correct option is 'Closely built-up area of houses'. Clustered settlements are characterized by a compact layout where houses are built close together, distinct from surrounding agricultural land. This feature allows for recognizable patterns in the arrangement of the houses.
Question 19.

Case Study Integrated Tribal Development Project in Bharmaur Region

Bharmaur tribal area comprises Bharmaur and Holi tehsils of Chamba district of Himachal Pradesh. It is a notified tribal area since 21 November, 1975. Bharmaur is inhabited by 'Gaddi', a tribal community who have maintained a distinct identity in the Himalayan region as they practised transhumance and conversed through Gaddiali dialect.

Bharmaur tribal region has harsh climate conditions, low resource base and fragile environment. These factors have influenced the society and economy of the region. According to the 2011 census, the total population of Bharmaur sub-division was 39,113 i.e., 21 persons per sq km. It is one of the most (economically and socially) backward areas of Himachal Pradesh. Historically, the Gaddis have experienced geographical and political isolation and socio-economic deprivation. The economy is largely based on agriculture and allied activities such as sheep and goat rearing.

The process of development of tribal area of Bharmaur started in 1970s when Gaddis were included among 'schedule tribes'. Under the Fifth Five Year Plan, the tribal sub-plan was introduced in 1974 and Bharmaur was designated as one of the five Integrated Tribal Development Projects (ITDP) in Himachal Pradesh. This area development plan was aimed at improving the quality of life of the Gaddis.

Q. Bharmaur Tribal region belongs to which of the following states?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Uttar Pradesh
  • (B) Uttarakhand
  • (C) Himachal Pradesh
  • (D) Jammu and Kashmir
Explanation:

The correct answer is Himachal Pradesh because the Bharmaur tribal area comprises Bharmaur and Holi tehsils of Chamba district, which is located in Himachal Pradesh. It is specifically mentioned in the context that Bharmaur is a notified tribal area in this state.

Question 20.

Case Study Integrated Tribal Development Project in Bharmaur Region

Bharmaur tribal area comprises Bharmaur and Holi tehsils of Chamba district of Himachal Pradesh. It is a notified tribal area since 21 November, 1975. Bharmaur is inhabited by 'Gaddi', a tribal community who have maintained a distinct identity in the Himalayan region as they practised transhumance and conversed through Gaddiali dialect.

Bharmaur tribal region has harsh climate conditions, low resource base and fragile environment. These factors have influenced the society and economy of the region. According to the 2011 census, the total population of Bharmaur sub-division was 39,113 i.e., 21 persons per sq km. It is one of the most (economically and socially) backward areas of Himachal Pradesh. Historically, the Gaddis have experienced geographical and political isolation and socio-economic deprivation. The economy is largely based on agriculture and allied activities such as sheep and goat rearing.

The process of development of tribal area of Bharmaur started in 1970s when Gaddis were included among 'schedule tribes'. Under the Fifth Five Year Plan, the tribal sub-plan was introduced in 1974 and Bharmaur was designated as one of the five Integrated Tribal Development Projects (ITDP) in Himachal Pradesh. This area development plan was aimed at improving the quality of life of the Gaddis.

Q. Which of the following tribal communities dominate in Bharmaur region?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Gaddis
  • (B) Bakkarwals
  • (C) Gonds
  • (D) Bhils
Explanation:

The correct answer is Gaddis. The Gaddis are known for their distinct identity in the Himalayan region, practicing transhumance and speaking the Gaddiali dialect. The context mentions that the Gaddis have historically occupied the Bharmaur region and are one of the prominent tribal communities in that area.

Question 21.

Case Study Integrated Tribal Development Project in Bharmaur Region

Bharmaur tribal area comprises Bharmaur and Holi tehsils of Chamba district of Himachal Pradesh. It is a notified tribal area since 21 November, 1975. Bharmaur is inhabited by 'Gaddi', a tribal community who have maintained a distinct identity in the Himalayan region as they practised transhumance and conversed through Gaddiali dialect.

Bharmaur tribal region has harsh climate conditions, low resource base and fragile environment. These factors have influenced the society and economy of the region. According to the 2011 census, the total population of Bharmaur sub-division was 39,113 i.e., 21 persons per sq km. It is one of the most (economically and socially) backward areas of Himachal Pradesh. Historically, the Gaddis have experienced geographical and political isolation and socio-economic deprivation. The economy is largely based on agriculture and allied activities such as sheep and goat rearing.

The process of development of tribal area of Bharmaur started in 1970s when Gaddis were included among 'schedule tribes'. Under the Fifth Five Year Plan, the tribal sub-plan was introduced in 1974 and Bharmaur was designated as one of the five Integrated Tribal Development Projects (ITDP) in Himachal Pradesh. This area development plan was aimed at improving the quality of life of the Gaddis.

Q. What is the major aim of Integrated Tribal Development Project (ITDP)?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Improving irrigation
  • (B) Improving the quality of life of the Gaddis
  • (C) Improving soils of the region
  • (D) Improving sheep rearing
Explanation:

The correct answer is 'Improving the quality of life of the Gaddis' as the context specifically mentions that the ITDP was aimed at improving the quality of life of the Gaddis and reducing the development gap between Bharmaur and other areas. The emphasis on social benefits like increased literacy rates and improved social services further supports this aim.

Section C

Question 22.

"The basic emphasis is laid on the relationship between nature and human beings in all geographical studies." Explain the statement.
[3 Marks]
Answer: The interrelationship between nature and human activities is foundational to understanding geography. Primitive human societies relied directly on their environment for sustenance, demonstrating our dependence on nature for food, shelter, and cultural development. This relationship is reciprocal; nature influences human life, and in turn, human actions leave imprints on the natural world. As civilizations evolved, resource utilization accelerated, leading to environmental modifications. Today, this interplay is evident in urbanization, transportation networks, and resource management practices, underscoring the necessity of studying geography for sustainable development.
Question 23. Explain why all forms of transport are also referred to as lines of communication.
[3 Marks]
Answer: All forms of transport are referred to as lines of communication because they create networks that allow the exchange of messages, goods, and services. Historically, transport methods were the only means for transmitting information; messages were physically carried by hand, animals, or vehicles like boats, trains, and planes. As trade and the movement of ideas grew, so did the necessity for efficient communication systems, which were often reliant on transport infrastructure. Despite advancements in technology such as mobile telephony and satellites that have made communication less dependent on traditional transport modes, efficient transport aids in the rapid dissemination of information. Therefore, transport facilitates not just the movement of goods but also effective communication, linking people and communities together.
Question 24. Explain why modern society requires speedy and efficient systems of transport.
[3 Marks]
Answer: Modern society demands speedy and efficient transport systems primarily to enhance economic productivity. Efficient transport facilitates the production, distribution, and consumption of goods, ensuring that raw materials reach manufacturers quickly, and finished products are delivered to consumers without delay. With advancements in technology and infrastructure, like metalled roads and railways, large volumes of goods and people can be transported swiftly. Moreover, the globalization of trade relies on rapid transport options to connect distant markets, enhancing trade opportunities. Overall, efficient transport is crucial in meeting the complexities of modern economic activities and enhancing the quality of life by reducing travel times and costs.
Question 25.

"Petroleum is an essential source of energy for running transport and industry.'' Examine the statement.

[3 Marks]
Answer: Petroleum, often termed 'liquid gold', is vital for modern energy needs, particularly in transport and industry. It powers internal combustion engines in vehicles, aircraft, and trains, facilitating efficient transportation. Beyond transportation, petroleum's versatility is reflected in its by-products. It serves as a crucial industrial raw material in petrochemical industries, producing synthetic rubber, fertilizers, and fibers. As industries grow, their dependence on petroleum increases, highlighting its importance in fuel and manufacturing. Access to affordable petroleum directly affects industrialization and progressively improves the standard of living. However, fluctuating international prices pose significant challenges to its sustainable utilization. Understanding its multifaceted role underscores why petroleum remains essential for economic growth and energy supply.
Question 26. Explain the causes of negative growth of population in India between 1911 and 1921.
[3 Marks]
Answer: Between 1911 and 1921, India experienced negative population growth primarily due to a combination of high birth and death rates. Poor health and medical services contributed to the high mortality rate, exacerbated by widespread illiteracy, which hindered access to healthcare information. Additionally, the impact of the Great Economic Depression in the 1920s resulted in deteriorating living conditions, leading to food scarcity and increased death rates. This stagnant phase reflected a lack of effective sanitation and transportation systems essential for improving health and distributing resources. Consequently, despite a high crude birth rate, the overall population growth was negative.
Question 27. Explain the causes of rapid positive growth of population in India from 1951 to 1981.
[3 Marks]
Answer: The rapid positive growth of population in India from 1951 to 1981 can be attributed to several key factors. Firstly, there was a substantial decline in the mortality rate due to improvements in health services and sanitation, leading to increased life expectancy. Secondly, the fertility rate remained high, with an average annual growth rate of 2.2 percent. Additionally, the period marked the introduction of centralized planning for economic development, which improved living conditions. However, poor health services and widespread illiteracy still contributed to high birth rates. The combination of these factors resulted in a significant population explosion during this era.

Section D

Question 28. Describe income and welfare approaches to human development.
[5 Marks]
Answer: The Income Approach to human development posits that development is intrinsically linked to individual income levels. Higher incomes are associated with greater freedoms and opportunities, facilitating enhanced living standards and overall well-being. This approach emphasizes economic growth as a key driver of human progress, suggesting that as nations increase their income, they also improve citizens' quality of life. Conversely, the Welfare Approach views human beings as passive beneficiaries of developmental initiatives. It emphasizes government responsibility in providing welfare services by investing in education, health, and social amenities. This perspective critiques the income approach by highlighting that mere increases in income do not automatically lead to improvements in human welfare unless accompanied by government interventions. It underscores the necessity for targeted policies to enhance human development, ensuring that resources are directed towards the needs of the most vulnerable populations and that the benefits of development reach all segments of society. Overall, both approaches offer important insights, with the income approach focusing on economic metrics and the welfare approach prioritizing social equity and government responsibility in fostering human development.
Question 29. Examine the major characteristics of modern large scale manufacturing in the world.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Modern large scale manufacturing has revolutionized production processes over the last two centuries, characterized by several key features. First, there is a significant specialization of skills and methods, allowing for optimized production efficiency. This approach leverages advanced technology and complex machinery, resulting in mass production through assembly lines. Moreover, it operates on a vast scale requiring substantial capital investment, supported by a well-defined organizational structure with a clear stratification of roles and responsibilities. These manufacturing centers tend to concentrate in specific geographical areas, often comprising only a small fraction of the planet's surface, concentrating power and production capabilities. Despite these advancements, a stark contrast exists globally; while developed nations thrive with modern manufacturing methods, many developing countries still rely on traditional forms of production. This uneven geographic distribution highlights a critical inequality in global manufacturing, as industrial practices and technological advancements differ significantly worldwide.
Question 30. Explain balance of trade with examples and examine the role of World Trade Organisation (WTO) in international trade.
[5 Marks]
Answer: The balance of trade is an economic measure that reflects the difference between a country's exports and imports of goods and services. A country has a favorable balance of trade when its exports exceed its imports, as seen in countries like Germany, which exports cars and machinery, leading to a trade surplus. Conversely, countries such as the United States sometimes experience a trade deficit when imports surpass exports. The World Trade Organisation (WTO) was established in 1995 to promote free and fair trade among nations. It sets the global rules for trade and addresses disputes between member nations, thus aiming to ensure that trade flows as smoothly and predictably as possible. This includes overseeing international trade in goods, services, and intellectual property. While the WTO encourages reductions in trade barriers, it faces criticism for potentially favoring wealthy nations and causing negative impacts on developing countries. In summary, the balance of trade plays a crucial role in economic health, while the WTO aims to facilitate international trade through regulation and dispute resolution.
Question 31. Examine any five bases of international trade.
[5 Marks]
Answer: International trade is grounded in several fundamental bases that explain why countries engage in trade with one another. Firstly, **comparative advantage** allows countries to specialize in producing goods where they have a relative efficiency, leading to productivity and economic gains. Secondly, **resource endowment** plays a crucial role; countries rich in specific natural resources can trade these for other products they lack. Thirdly, **market expansion** enables businesses to access larger customer bases beyond their local markets, enhancing sales. Fourthly, **technological advancements** facilitate trade by improving communication and transportation, reducing costs and increasing trade efficiency. Lastly, the **diversification of products** allows countries to mitigate risks by trading various goods, ensuring supply stability. Together, these bases illustrate the interconnectedness and mutual benefits of international trade, driving global economic development.
Question 32. Explain with examples how watershed management and rainwater harvesting help in conserving water resources in India.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Watershed management and rainwater harvesting are vital methods for conserving water resources in India. Watershed management involves the efficient management of surface and groundwater resources, aiming to prevent runoff and enhance groundwater recharge. For instance, the construction of percolation tanks allows rainwater to seep into the ground, replenishing aquifers. Similarly, rainwater harvesting captures and stores rainwater from rooftops and open spaces, assisting communities in reducing their dependence on groundwater. An example is the setup of rainwater harvesting systems in urban areas, which divert rainwater to recharge wells. These practices not only help meet water demands but also mitigate energy costs associated with pumping groundwater. With increasing water scarcity, these methods promote sustainable water use and enhance local ecosystems.
Question 33.

"Urban waste disposal has become a serious problem in India." Justify the statement with examples.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Urbanization refers to the shift of populations from rural areas to urban centers, leading to an increase in the proportion of people living in cities. This phenomenon is characterized by various stages of demographic transition, involving the movement from an agrarian society to an industrial and urban one. The consequences of urbanization are multifaceted. Economically, it fosters growth in trade, manufacturing, and services, enhancing job opportunities. Socially, it can lead to increased literacy rates and access to education and healthcare. However, challenges such as overcrowding, inadequate infrastructure, pollution, and the creation of slums can also arise. Moreover, urbanization often exacerbates income inequality, with a significant disparity between affluent urban areas and poorer neighborhoods. To address these issues, urban planning and sustainable development are crucial to ensure that cities remain livable and inclusive.
Question 34.

"High tech industry is the largest generation of manufacturing in the world." Examine the statement.
[5 Marks]
Answer: The high-tech industry represents the pinnacle of manufacturing capabilities, primarily driven by intensive research and development efforts. This sector includes advanced sectors such as electronics, pharmaceuticals, and aerospace, which have revolutionized both product quality and production efficiency. Such industries not only contribute substantially to global economic growth but also create a significant amount of high-skilled employment opportunities. In contrast to traditional manufacturing, high-tech industries rely on cutting-edge technologies and innovation, leading to improved productivity and competitiveness on a global scale. As a result, these sectors are increasingly dominating the manufacturing landscape, influencing various other industries and lifestyle aspects. Therefore, it is reasonable to assert that high-tech industries stand as the foremost generation of manufacturing today, setting the stage for future advancements and economic development.

Paper Details

CBSE Board Exam 2023

Class

CLASS 12-HUMANITIES

Subject

GEOGRAPHY

Year

2023

Set

Set 4

Other Years — GEOGRAPHY

2022 Set-1

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2022 Set-2

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2022 Set-3

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2022 Set-4

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2022 Set-5

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2023 Set-1

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2023 Set-2

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2023 Set-3

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2023 Set-4

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2023 Set-5

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2024 Set-1

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2024 Set-2

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2024 Set-3

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2024 Set-4

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2024 Set-5

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2025 Set-1

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2025 Set-2

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2025 Set-3

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2025 Set-4

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2025 Set-5

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2025 Set-6

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