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SOLUTIONS

2023 BOARD EXAM

CBSE CLASS 12-HUMANITIES GEOGRAPHY Board Paper 2023 — Set 3

2023

GEOGRAPHY

CLASS 12-HUMANITIES

CBSE EXAMINATION SOLVED PAPER-2023 GEOGRAPHY

CBSE EXAMINATION PAPER-2023

GEOGRAPHY

(Solved)

Time allowed : 3 hours

Maximum Marks : 69

General Instructions :

Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :

  1. This question paper contains 33 questions. All questions are compulsory.
  2. This question paper is divided into 4 sections.
  3. Section A – questions number 1 to 4 are case based questions
  4. Section B – questions number 5 to 20 are multiple choice questions
  5. Section C – questions number 21 to 26 are short answer
  6. Section D – questions number 27 to 33 are long answer
  7. There is no overall choice given in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions.
  8. Use of calculator is NOT allowed.

Section A

Question 1. Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:

(1) Identify the shipping canal in the given picture and write its name.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The shipping canal in the given picture is the Panama Canal.
Key Points: Panama Canal - vital man-made navigation canal - serves as a gateway of commerce - constructed in 1869

(2) Name the terminal ports of this waterway.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The terminal ports of the Great Lakes – St. Lawrence Seaway waterway are Duluth and Buffalo.
Key Points: Duluth; Buffalo; Great Lakes; St. Lawrence Seaway

(3) Explain the main characteristic of this waterway.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The main characteristic of this waterway is its navigability, as it is wide, deep, and free of silt, which allows for the transport of cargo and passengers efficiently using boats and steamers.
Key Points: navigability-width-depth-silt-free

(4)

Explain any three characteristics of the Northern Atlantic Sea R

[1 Marks]
Answer: The Northern Atlantic Sea has several distinct characteristics. First, the average salinity of the Atlantic Ocean is around 36 o/oo, with maximum salinity reaching 37 o/oo between latitudes 20° N and 30° N. Second, the presence of warm ocean currents, such as the Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift, leads to warmer temperatures in this region and affects the distribution of salinity. Lastly, salinity gradually decreases as one moves northward from the equator, illustrating the influence of latitude on oceanic conditions.
Key Points: average salinity around 36 o/oo-maximum salinity reaches 37 o/oo between 20° N and 30° N-presence of warm currents like Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift leads to warmer temperatures-salinity decreases towards the north
Question 2.

Read the case study given below and answer the questions that follow:

A Role Model to Restore the Ecology and Safeguard Human Health in Daurala.

Based on universal law "Polluter pays", effort to restore the ecology and safeguard the human health with people's participation has taken place in Daurala near Meerut. These efforts are now bearing fruits after a span of three years when a Meerut based NGO had developed a model for ecological restoration. The meeting of the Daurala industries officials, NGOs, Government officials and other stakeholders at Meerut has brought out results. The powerful logics, authentic studies and the pressure of people have brought a new lease of life to the twelve thousand residents of this village. It was in the year 2003 that the pitiable condition of Dauralaites drew the attention of the civil society. The groundwater of this village was contaminated with heavy metals. The reason was that the untreated wastewater of Daurala industries was leaching to the groundwater table. The NGOs conducted a door-to-door survey of the health status of the residents and came out with a report. The organisation, the village community and people's representatives sat together to find out sustainable solutions to the health problem. The industrialists showed a keen interest towards checking the deteriorating ecology. The overhead water tank's capacity in the village was inhanced and a 900 m extra pipeline was laid to supply potable water to the community. The silted pond of the village was cleaned and recharged by desilting it. Large quantity of silt was removed paving way to large quantity of water so that it recharged the aquifers, Rainwater harvesting structures have been constructed at different places which has helped in diluting the contaminants of the groundwater after the monsoon. 1000 trees have also been planted which have improved the environment.

(1) Explain the role of industrialists in checking the deteriorating ecology.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The industrialists in Daurala played a crucial role in addressing the deteriorating ecology by actively participating in the restoration efforts. They showed a keen interest in checking the environmental damage caused by their industries, which included improving the quality of groundwater. Specifically, they collaborated with NGOs and government officials to enhance the overhead water tank's capacity and laid a new pipeline to ensure the supply of potable water to the community. Their involvement demonstrated a commitment to the universal law 'Polluter pays' by taking steps towards sustainable solutions for the health problems in the village.
Key Points: Industrialists' active participation-Interest in ecological restoration-Collaboration with NGOs and government officials-Enhancement of water supply systems-Support for sustainable solutions

(2) What is meant by water pollution?

[1 Marks]
Answer: Water pollution refers to the contamination of water bodies, such as rivers, lakes, and groundwater, due to harmful substances. This contamination can result from industrial discharges, sewage, and agricultural runoff, which can lead to serious health issues for humans and damage to ecosystems.
Key Points: Contamination of water bodies-harmful substances-industrial discharges-health issues

(3)

Analyse the contribution of the NGO in Daurala's problrm.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The NGO played a crucial role in addressing the health and ecological issues in Daurala. It conducted a door-to-door health survey to identify the extent of contamination and created a comprehensive report. Moreover, the NGO facilitated collaboration among various stakeholders, including industrialists and government officials, leading to actionable solutions such as enhanced water supply systems and the cleaning of local water bodies. Their efforts not only improved access to potable water but also helped in reviving the local ecosystem through initiatives like rainwater harvesting and tree plantation.
Key Points: Conducted health surveys - Facilitated stakeholder collaboration - Improved water supply systems
Question 3.

On the given political outline map of the World, seven geographical features have been marked as A, B, C, D, E, F and G. Identify any five with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them :

(1)

A major airport in Australia

[1 Marks]
Answer: The major airport in Australia is Sydney Kingsford Smith Airport.
Key Points: Sydney Kingsford Smith Airport

(2)

A terminal station of Trans-Canadian Railway

[1 Marks]
Answer: The terminal station of the Trans-Canadian Railway is Vancouver.
Key Points: Vancouver-Trans-Canadian Railway-terminal station

(3)

A major area of subsistence gathering

[1 Marks]
Answer: The major area of subsistence gathering is typically found in regions characterized by rich biodiversity, such as forests and coastal areas where hunting, fishing, and gathering of wild plants are prevalent. For example, areas in the Amazon rainforest or along the coastal regions of Southeast Asia are significant for subsistence gathering.
Key Points: subsistence gathering-rich biodiversity-forests-coastal areas-hunting-fishing-gathering

(4)

Largest country in terms of area in Africa

[1 Marks]
Answer: The largest country in terms of area in Africa is Algeria.
Key Points: Algeria is in North Africa; it is the largest country; covers an area of approximately 2.38 million sq. km.

(5)

Largest country in terms of area in Europe

[1 Marks]
Answer: The largest country in Europe by area is Russia.
Key Points: Identify Russia as the largest country in Europe by area.

(6)

Terminal station of Trans-Siberian Railway

[1 Marks]
Answer: The terminal station of the Trans-Siberian Railway is Vladivostok.
Key Points: Vladivostok is on the Pacific Coast; it is the eastern terminus of the Trans-Siberian Railway; connects Russia to the Asia-Pacific region.

(7)

Largest country in terms of area in Europe

[1 Marks]
Answer: The largest country in terms of area in Europe is Russia.
Key Points: Geography of Europe-Russia's area-Political map

(8)

Name any international airport of Australia.

[1 Marks]
Answer: Sydney Kingsford Smith Airport is an international airport located in Australia.
Key Points: Sydney Kingsford Smith Airport-International location-Australia

(9)

Name the easternmost terminal station of Trans-Siberian Railway.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The easternmost terminal station of the Trans-Siberian Railway is Vladivostok.
Key Points: Vladivostok-Trans-Siberian Railway-eastern terminal

(10)

Name the major seaport of Chile.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The major seaport of Chile is Valparaíso.
Key Points: Valparaíso is a key port for Chile - It handles significant cargo traffic - Located on the Pacific coast

(11)

Name the terminal station of Trans-Canadian railway on the western end.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The terminal station of the Trans-Canadian railway on the western end is Vancouver.
Key Points: Trans-Canadian railway-western terminal-Vancouver

(12)

Name the largest country in Africa in terms of area.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The largest country in Africa in terms of area is Algeria.
Key Points: Algeria is located in North Africa; it covers an area of approximately 2.38 million square kilometers; it is the largest country in Africa.

(13)

Name the important waterway that links the Great Lakes with the Atlantic Ocean.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The important waterway that links the Great Lakes with the Atlantic Ocean is the St. Lawrence Seaway.
Key Points: St. Lawrence Seaway; links Great Lakes to Atlantic Ocean; significant for commercial navigation

(14)

Mention the major area of subsistence gathering in Africa.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The major area of subsistence gathering in Africa is predominantly located in the tropical regions where primitive subsistence agriculture, such as shifting cultivation, is practiced by many tribes.
Key Points: Subsistence gathering, Major area in Africa, Tropical regions, Primitive subsistence agriculture, Shifting cultivation
Question 4.

On the given political outline map of India, locate and label any five of the following seven geographical features with appropriate symbols :

(1)

A state with highest level of urbanization

[1 Marks]
Answer: Maharashtra is the state with the highest level of urbanization in India, characterized by significant urban centers like Mumbai.
Key Points: Maharashtra-highest urbanization-Mumbai-urban centers

(2)

Balaghat manganese mines

[1 Marks]
Answer: The Balaghat manganese mines are located in the Balaghat district of Madhya Pradesh. To mark this on the political outline map of India, one should locate the state of Madhya Pradesh, identify the Balaghat district, and label it with the symbol used for manganese mines.
Key Points: Location in Madhya Pradesh-Balaghat district-Manganese mines symbol

(3)

A city with more than 10 million population in Maharashtra

[1 Marks]
Answer: Mumbai is a city in Maharashtra with a population of more than 10 million, making it one of the most populous cities in India.
Key Points: Mumbai-10 million population-Maharashtra-urbanisation

(4)

A state leading in the production of tea

[1 Marks]
Answer: The state leading in the production of tea in India is Assam. It is a major tea-growing area, with notable plantations located in the Brahmaputra valley.
Key Points: Assam-Tea production area-Brahmaputra valley-First introduced in the 1840s

(5)

Mayurbhanj iron-ore mines

[1 Marks]
Answer: The Mayurbhanj iron-ore mines are located in the state of Odisha, situated in the northeastern region of India. These mines are part of the hill ranges found in Mayurbhanj and are significant for the extraction of iron ore.
Key Points: Located in Odisha-Important for iron extraction-Hill ranges in Mayurbhanj

(6)

Ahmedabad Airport

[1 Marks]
Answer: Ahmedabad Airport is located in the state of Gujarat, India. It serves as a major domestic and international airport in the region and is labeled on the map using an airplane symbol at the position (latitude: 23.0637° N, longitude: 72.6346° E).
Key Points: Located in Gujarat-Label with airplane symbol-Coordinates 23.0637° N, 72.6346° E

(7)

Kochi seaport

[1 Marks]
Answer: Kochi Seaport is located at the head of Vembanad Kayal in Kerala, and is marked on the map with a symbol representing seaports. It is strategically positioned close to the Suez-Colombo route, making it a significant natural harbor for trade.
Key Points: Located in Kerala-Natural harbor-Strategic location near Suez-Colombo route-Serves southern Karnataka and Tamil Nadu

(8)

Name the state where Shimoga manganese mines are located.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The Shimoga manganese mines are located in the state of Karnataka.
Key Points: Shimoga is in Karnataka-Karnataka is a major producer of manganese

(9)

Mention the state having highest level of urbanization.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The state having the highest level of urbanization in India is Maharashtra.
Key Points: Maharashtra; highest level of urbanization; significant urban centers like Mumbai; economic development; rural-urban migration

(10)

Which state leads in the production of tea ?

[1 Marks]
Answer: The state that leads in the production of tea in India is Assam.
Key Points: Assam is a major tea-growing area-tea plantation started in Assam in the 1840s-India ranks second in tea export globally

(11)

In which state are Mayurbhanj iron-ore mines located ?

[1 Marks]
Answer: The Mayurbhanj iron-ore mines are located in the state of Odisha.
Key Points: Mayurbhanj-Iron ore mines-Odisha

(12)

Name one international airport located in Gujarat.

[1 Marks]
Answer: One international airport located in Gujarat is Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel International Airport, situated in Ahmedabad.
Key Points: Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel International Airport-Ahmedabad-international airport-Gujarat

(13)

Along which coast is Kochi seaport located ?

[1 Marks]
Answer: Kochi seaport is located along the west coast of India.
Key Points: Kochi seaport-west coast-natural harbour-Queen of the Arabian Sea

(14)

Name the city of West Bengal having more than 10 million population.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The city of West Bengal having more than 10 million population is Kolkata.
Key Points: Kolkata; West Bengal; population over 10 million

Section B

Question 5. Which one of the following features is correct about cottage industries?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Raw material is imported from outside markets.
  • (B) It is a large manufacturing unit.
  • (C) Finished products are sold in the open market.
  • (D) Goods produced by them have low commercial significance.
Explanation: The correct option is 'Finished products are sold in the open market.' Cottage industries typically produce goods for sale, either for consumption within the household or in the open market. This aligns with the context provided, which emphasizes that finished goods can be part of either household use or for broader market distribution.
Question 6. Which one of the following features is correct about large scale industries?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Raw material is procured locally.
  • (B) Large number of unskilled workers work in them.
  • (C) They require large amount of capital investment.
  • (D) They do not require advanced technology.
Explanation: The correct option is 'They require large amount of capital investment.' This is accurate because large scale industries typically involve substantial investments in advanced technology, specialized equipment, and the infrastructure necessary for mass production. The context emphasizes that large scale manufacturing developed in last 200 years and is characterized by large capital, among other factors.
Question 7. Which of the following industries produce raw material for other industries?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Small scale industries
  • (B) Basic or key industries
  • (C) Joint sector industries
  • (D) Household industries
Explanation: The correct option is 'Basic or key industries' because, as stated in the context, these industries produce goods that serve as raw materials for other industries. For example, iron and steel are basic industries that provide essential materials for the manufacturing of machines and tools.
Question 8. Which of the following is a tertiary activity?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Gathering
  • (B) Hunting
  • (C) Nomadic herding
  • (D) Trading
Explanation: The correct option is 'Trading'. Tertiary activities involve the provision of services rather than the extraction or production of goods. While gathering, hunting, and nomadic herding are all primary activities focused on resource extraction or production, trading falls under services that facilitate the exchange of goods and resources.
Question 9. Which of the following is a quarternary activity?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Catching fish
  • (B) Software developing
  • (C) Iron smelting
  • (D) Basket making
Explanation: The correct option is 'Software developing'. Quaternary activities involve activities related to knowledge and information, such as research and development, which is exactly what software development entails, as it requires specialized knowledge and technical skills.
Question 10. Transport activities come under which one of the following sectors?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Secondary
  • (B) Primary
  • (C) Tertiary
  • (D) Quarternary
Explanation: Transport activities are categorized under the Tertiary sector as they involve the provision of services that facilitate trade, communication, and the movement of people and goods. The relevant context explicitly states that transport, along with trade and communication, falls under tertiary activities.
Question 11. Which one of the following is the cause of acid rain?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Water pollution
  • (B) Land pollution
  • (C) Air pollution
  • (D) Noise pollution
Explanation: Air pollution is the correct answer because the context mentions that air pollution includes oxides of sulfur and nitrogen, which are primary contributors to acid rain. The release of these pollutants into the atmosphere leads to the formation of sulfuric and nitric acids when they combine with moisture, resulting in acid rain.
Question 12. Which one of the following rivers is highly polluted?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Kosi
  • (B) Ravi
  • (C) Narmada
  • (D) Yamuna
Explanation: The correct answer is 'Yamuna.' According to the provided context, the Yamuna river is identified as the most polluted river in the country, specifically between Delhi and Etawah, mainly due to the dumping of domestic and industrial waste. Other rivers were mentioned but did not indicate a higher level of pollution compared to the Yamuna.
Question 13. Which one of the following is a major polluting industry?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Cottage industry
  • (B) Food processing industry
  • (C) Foot loose industry
  • (D) Chemical industry
Explanation: The correct option is 'Chemical industry' because the context states that major water polluting industries include chemicals, which have significant impacts on the bio-system due to the various chemicals used in production, such as those in petrochemicals and synthetic materials.
Question 14. Which of the following features is not true regarding NHAI?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) It is an autonomous body under the Ministry of Surface Transport.
  • (B) It is responsible for constructing and maintaining National Highways.
  • (C) NHAI was operationalized in 1995.
  • (D) It also constructs village link roads.
Explanation: The option 'It also constructs village link roads.' is not true regarding NHAI, as NHAI is specifically responsible for the development, maintenance, and operation of National Highways, not for constructing village link roads.
Question 15. Which among the following is the westernmost station of East-West corridor?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Kolkata
  • (B) Guwahati
  • (C) Porbandar
  • (D) Mumbai
Explanation: The correct option is Porbandar, as it is located on the western coast of India in Gujarat, making it the westernmost point among the options listed. Kolkata and Guwahati are located in the eastern part of India, while Mumbai, although on the western coast, is further south compared to Porbandar.
Question 16. Which of the following seaports is located on Mahanadi delta?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Paradwip
  • (B) Ennore
  • (C) Vishakhapatnam
  • (D) Haldia
Explanation: Paradwip Port is located on the Mahanadi delta, specifically mentioned in the context as about 100 km from Cuttack. It is highlighted as having the deepest harbor suitable for handling large vessels, making it the correct answer.
Question 17.

Why has Kolkata port minimised its significance?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) It has a vast hinterland
  • (B) Accumulation of silt in Hugli river
  • (C) Diversion of exports to other ports
  • (D) Passenger traffic is very low
Explanation:

The correct answer is 'Diversion of exports to other ports'. Kolkata port has lost its significance primarily because exports have been redirected to other ports such as Vishakhapatnam, Paradwip, and Haldia, which are more modern and equipped to handle the current volume of trade. Additionally, silt accumulation in the Hugli river also contributes to its reduced significance.

Question 18.

Read the case study given below and answer the questions

Case Study : Indira Gandhi Canal (Nahar) Command Area

Indira Gandhi Canal, previously known as the Rajasthan Canal, is one of the largest canal systems in India. Conceived by Kanwar Sain in 1948, the canal project was launched on 31 March, 1958. The canal originates at Harike barrage in Punjab and runs parallel to Pakistan border at an average distance of 40 km in Thar Desert (Marusthali) of Rajasthan. The total planned length of the system is 9,060 km catering to the irrigation needs of a total culturable command area of 19.63 lakh hectares. Out of the total command area, about 70 percent was envisaged to be irrigated by flow system and the rest by lift system. The construction work of the canal system has been carried out through two stages. The command area of Stage-I lies in Ganganagar, Hanumangarh and northern part of Bikaner districts. It has a gently undulating topography and its culturable command area is 5.53 lakh hectares. The command area of Stage-II is spread over Bikaner, Jaisalmer, Barmer, Jodhpur, Nagaur and Churu districts covering culturable command area of 14.10 lakh ha. It comprises desert land dotted with shifting sand dunes and temperature soaring to 50 degree C in summers. In the lift canal, the water is lifted up to make it to flow against the slope of the land. All the lift canals of Indira Gandhi system originate at the left bank of main canal while all the canals on the right bank of main canal are flow channels.

Irrigation in Stage-I command area of the canal was introduced in early 1960s, whereas the command area of Stage-II began receiving irrigation in mid-1980s. The introduction of canal irrigation in this dry land has transformed its ecology, economy and society. It has influenced the environmental conditions of the region both positively as well as negatively. The availability of soil moisture for a longer period of time and various afforestation and pasture development programmes under CAD have resulted in greening the land. This has also helped in reducing wind erosion and siltation of canal systems. But the intensive irrigation and excessive use of water has led to the emergence of twin environmental problems of waterlogging and soil salinity.

Q. What is the major benefit of this Canal in the command area?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Crop production is still at lower level
  • (B) Transformation of ecology and economy
  • (C) People had not settled permanently
  • (D) Environmental conditions slightly changed
Explanation:

The correct option is 'Transformation of ecology and economy' because the introduction of canal irrigation has significantly altered the agricultural landscape of the region. It has improved soil moisture availability, increased cultivated area, and replaced traditional crops with more profitable ones, leading to enhanced ecological and economic conditions.

Question 19.

Read the case study given below and answer the questions

Case Study : Indira Gandhi Canal (Nahar) Command Area

Indira Gandhi Canal, previously known as the Rajasthan Canal, is one of the largest canal systems in India. Conceived by Kanwar Sain in 1948, the canal project was launched on 31 March, 1958. The canal originates at Harike barrage in Punjab and runs parallel to Pakistan border at an average distance of 40 km in Thar Desert (Marusthali) of Rajasthan. The total planned length of the system is 9,060 km catering to the irrigation needs of a total culturable command area of 19.63 lakh hectares. Out of the total command area, about 70 percent was envisaged to be irrigated by flow system and the rest by lift system. The construction work of the canal system has been carried out through two stages. The command area of Stage-I lies in Ganganagar, Hanumangarh and northern part of Bikaner districts. It has a gently undulating topography and its culturable command area is 5.53 lakh hectares. The command area of Stage-II is spread over Bikaner, Jaisalmer, Barmer, Jodhpur, Nagaur and Churu districts covering culturable command area of 14.10 lakh ha. It comprises desert land dotted with shifting sand dunes and temperature soaring to 50 degree C in summers. In the lift canal, the water is lifted up to make it to flow against the slope of the land. All the lift canals of Indira Gandhi system originate at the left bank of main canal while all the canals on the right bank of main canal are flow channels.

Irrigation in Stage-I command area of the canal was introduced in early 1960s, whereas the command area of Stage-II began receiving irrigation in mid-1980s. The introduction of canal irrigation in this dry land has transformed its ecology, economy and society. It has influenced the environmental conditions of the region both positively as well as negatively. The availability of soil moisture for a longer period of time and various afforestation and pasture development programmes under CAD have resulted in greening the land. This has also helped in reducing wind erosion and siltation of canal systems. But the intensive irrigation and excessive use of water has led to the emergence of twin environmental problems of waterlogging and soil salinity.

Q. What is the negative impact of this Canal?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Water logging and salinity
  • (B) Command area becomes green
  • (C) Multiple cropping system
  • (D) Soils become fertile
Explanation:

The correct answer is 'Water logging and salinity'. The context describes how intensive irrigation from canal systems has led to significant environmental issues, namely waterlogging and soil salinity. These problems arise from the excessive use of water, which negatively affects soil fertility and hampers the sustainability of agriculture in the long run.

Question 20.

India's foreign trade is largely carried out by which of the following routes?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Land and air routes
  • (B) Land and sea routes
  • (C) Only sea routes
  • (D) Air and sea routes
Explanation:

The correct option is 'Land and sea routes'. According to the provided context, approximately 95 per cent of India's foreign trade by volume and 70 per cent by value is carried out through ocean routes, which implies the significant use of sea routes in foreign trade. While land routes are also mentioned, the primary emphasis is on the importance of oceanic routes for trade.

Section C

Question 21. Examine any three causes for the development of compact rural settlements in India.
[3 Marks]
Answer: The development of compact rural settlements in India can be attributed to several key factors. Firstly, physical terrain plays a crucial role; fertile alluvial plains and river valleys support larger populations, leading to denser settlements. Secondly, security concerns also contribute; the clustering of houses enhances safety against thefts and robberies, particularly in regions like Bundelkhand and Nagaland where defense is essential. Lastly, the availability of water resources dictates settlement patterns; in arid regions like Rajasthan, compact settlements enable maximum utilization of limited water. These elements combined promote the formation of clustered rural communities in India.
Question 22. Examine any three causes for the low level of human development in some countries of the world.
[3 Marks]
Answer: Low levels of human development in certain countries can be attributed to several interconnected causes. First, political instability is a significant factor; nations experiencing civil war or ongoing conflicts often struggle to prioritize development and provide essential services. Second, inadequate investment in the social sector, particularly health and education, limits people’s capabilities and choices, perpetuating poverty. Lastly, a high incidence of diseases not only affects the workforce but also drains resources that could otherwise be utilized for development initiatives. Addressing these issues through targeted policies is crucial for fostering human development.
Question 23. Explain any three causes for the high level of human development in some countries of the world.
[3 Marks]
Answer: Three significant causes for the high level of human development in certain countries are robust investment in social sectors, effective governance, and political stability. First, countries with high human development scores prioritize education and healthcare, ensuring that citizens have access to quality resources that enhance their quality of life. Second, good governance plays a crucial role; transparent and accountable governments create a conducive environment for development. Lastly, political stability fosters an environment where policies can be consistently implemented, enabling long-term planning and progress in social sectors.
Question 24. Explain any three factors responsible for the depletion of water resources in India.
[3 Marks]
Answer: Three significant factors contributing to the depletion of water resources in India are population growth, agricultural demands, and industrialization. Firstly, India has a rapidly growing population, which increases the demand for freshwater for domestic use. Secondly, the agricultural sector, which consumes around 90% of the available freshwater, is heavily dependent on irrigation, leading to the over-exploitation of water sources. Lastly, industrialization intensifies the demand for water, as industries require substantial amounts for manufacturing processes. Together, these factors result in a critical water scarcity in India, necessitating immediate conservation efforts.
Question 25.

The strong forces of nature used to control the human activities in the primitive societies. Examine the statement.

[3 Marks]
Answer: In primitive societies, human activities were significantly influenced by the strong forces of nature, which dictated the ways in which people lived. Due to low levels of technology and social development, humans were highly dependent on their environment for essential resources such as food, shelter, and water. This led to a deep reverence for nature, as it was seen as both a mother and a powerful force to be respected. Over time, humans began to understand their environment, adapting their lifestyles to align with natural elements. Environmental determinism highlights this relationship, showing that early societies were guided by nature's dictates in various aspects, including agriculture, shelter, and social structures. Worship and conservation of nature were common, reflecting the interdependence of humans and the natural world.
Question 26.

The cities are connected, directly or indirectly, with villages and also with each other. Examine the statement.

[3 Marks]
Answer: The statement highlights the intricate relationships between urban and rural areas. Cities serve as critical points for economic activities, providing goods and services to both urban and rural residents. This connection is often facilitated through a robust transportation and communication network that enables the flow of resources. Urban settlements, which are defined as areas with municipalities, often engage in various non-agricultural functions, thereby creating a dependency on rural areas for raw materials and food. This dynamic illustrates not only the direct connections but also the indirect links formed through market towns, enhancing regional economic development.

Section D

Question 27.

Economic and cultural factors influence the distribution of world population. Examine the statement.

[5 Marks]
Answer: The distribution of world population is significantly influenced by both economic and cultural factors, which determine where people choose to live and work. Economically, areas with abundant job opportunities, resources, and infrastructure attract larger populations. For instance, urban centers like New York and Tokyo provide numerous employment opportunities, leading to high population density. Conversely, regions lacking economic prospects experience depopulation. Cultural factors also play a critical role; regions rich in cultural heritage, such as India with its festivals and culinary traditions, attract tourists and migrants alike. For instance, China is renowned for its porcelain and textiles, drawing individuals interested in these cultural products. Additionally, places of religious significance often see higher populations, boosting local economies. However, areas of social unrest tend to deter stable populations, illustrating the dual impact of both economic advantages and cultural significance on demographic distribution. Government efforts, such as incentives for relocating to less populated areas, also indicate the strategic importance of these factors in shaping population distribution.
Question 28.

Explain any five features of 'plantation agriculture' in the world.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Co-operative farming involves a group of farmers forming a society to pool their resources for enhanced agricultural productivity and efficiency. The main characteristics include voluntary collaboration among farmers, where individual farms remain operational but work together for common goals. Co-operative societies assist members in acquiring essential farming inputs, marketing products effectively, and processing goods at lower costs. This approach not only improves the economic conditions of farmers but also encourages collective decision-making and shared risks. Historically, co-operative farming emerged over a century ago, achieving notable success in various Western European countries, such as Denmark and Sweden. The movement supports the notion of social collaboration in agriculture, and has evolving forms, notably in mixed farming and collective farming approaches, enhancing food security and promoting sustainable agricultural practices. Overall, cooperative farming serves as a robust model for fostering agricultural efficiency and strengthening rural economies.
Question 29.

Explain any five features of 'market gardening and horticulture' in the world.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Market gardening and horticulture are vital practices focused on cultivating high-value crops, primarily targeted towards urban markets. One key feature is that these farms are usually small and strategically located near urban centers, facilitating easy transport of fresh produce. Another prominent aspect is the emphasis on labor and capital intensity, utilizing advanced techniques like irrigation and the use of high-yield variety (HYV) seeds. The cultivation practices employed are highly intensive, producing vegetables, fruits, and flowers in small plots. Moreover, market gardening often includes truck farming, where crops are grown close to markets for faster distribution. Lastly, modern horticulture involves innovative practices such as greenhouses and artificial heating in colder climates, making it adaptable to various environmental conditions.
Question 30.

Describe the development of railways in Europe and Russia.
[5 Marks]
Answer: The development of railways in Europe has been pivotal since the 19th century, promoting economic integration and mobility. Europe's extensive railway network, particularly in industrialized regions, supports both freight and passenger transport despite competition from highways and aviation. Countries like Germany, France, and the UK boast well-developed systems. In contrast, Russia's railways account for about 90% of the transport system, primarily serving its vast geography. The Trans-Siberian Railway, a critical artery running from St. Petersburg to Vladivostok, facilitates transcontinental connections and boosts trade with Asian markets. Moscow serves as a key hub for this network, where underground and commuter services also enhance urban transport. The rich history of railways in both regions illustrates their role in societal advancement and economic development, making them essential for trade and connectivity.
Question 31. Describe the benefits of water transport over railways.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Water transport offers several advantages over railways. Firstly, it does not require extensive infrastructure like railway tracks; instead, it utilizes natural waterways such as rivers and oceans, which significantly reduces construction costs. Secondly, the energy efficiency of water transport is higher, as it experiences less friction compared to land transport, leading to lower fuel consumption. Additionally, water transport is the most economical way to carry heavy and bulky goods, making it particularly beneficial for transporting materials like coal, cement, and metallic ores. Furthermore, water transport is environmentally friendly, producing fewer emissions compared to railways. Lastly, navigating through inland waterways is crucial in regions where railways cannot be established, providing vital connectivity. Overall, the lower costs, fuel efficiency, and eco-friendliness position water transport as a superior alternative for specific cargo needs.
Question 32. Explain the various factors affecting density of population in India.
[5 Marks]
Answer: The density of population in India, calculated as the number of persons per square kilometer, reveals significant variations influenced by several factors. Firstly, geographic features, such as mountains and rivers, affect habitation patterns; locations in Himalayan regions often have low population density due to harsh conditions, while fertile plains like the Gangetic Valley experience high density due to favorable living conditions. Secondly, climate plays a crucial role; states with moderate climates, like Gujarat and Andhra Pradesh, attract more people compared to arid or extreme regions. Thirdly, economic opportunities impact population density; bustling urban areas offer jobs, leading to higher densities. Additionally, social and cultural factors, such as migration trends and historical settlement patterns, also contribute. Urbanization has seen cities like Mumbai and Delhi grow rapidly. Lastly, government policies, including incentives for agriculture and infrastructure development, influence where populations settle, ultimately affecting regional density. Overall, India’s population density is shaped by a complex interplay of environmental, economic, and social factors.
Question 33.

"Most of the metallic minerals in India occur in the peninsular plateau region in the old crystalline rocks." Examine the statement.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Geography plays a crucial role in shaping the economic viability of a region, as it directly influences land use, resource availability, and the types of economic activities that can thrive. For instance, fertile plains may support agriculture, while coastal areas can promote trade and fishing industries. Moreover, geographical features, such as mountains or rivers, can both enhance and hinder infrastructure development, affecting access to markets. Over time, as economies evolve, geographical factors often remain constant, continuing to dictate economic potential. Technological advancements and investment capabilities may counteract some geographical disadvantages, but the foundational role of geography cannot be overlooked. Thus, it is reasonable to assert that geography significantly determines the economic viability of regions, influencing their growth patterns, accessibility, and sustainability.

Paper Details

CBSE Board Exam 2023

Class

CLASS 12-HUMANITIES

Subject

GEOGRAPHY

Year

2023

Set

Set 3

Other Years — GEOGRAPHY

2022 Set-1

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2022 Set-2

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2022 Set-3

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2022 Set-4

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2022 Set-5

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2023 Set-1

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2023 Set-2

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2023 Set-3

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2023 Set-4

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2023 Set-5

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2024 Set-1

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2024 Set-2

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2024 Set-3

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2024 Set-4

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2024 Set-5

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2025 Set-1

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2025 Set-2

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2025 Set-3

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2025 Set-4

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2025 Set-5

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2025 Set-6

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