geography/
previous-year-question-paper-2024-set-5

QUESTION PAPER

2024 BOARD EXAM

CBSE CLASS 12-HUMANITIES GEOGRAPHY Board Paper 2024 — Set 5

2024

GEOGRAPHY

CLASS 12-HUMANITIES

CBSE EXAMINATION PAPER-2024 GEOGRAPHY

CBSE EXAMINATION PAPER-2024

GEOGRAPHY

(Solved)

Time allowed : 3 hours

Maximum Marks : 75

General Instructions :

Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :

  1. This question paper contains 35 questions. All questions are compulsory.
  2. This question paper is divided into 4 sections.
  3. Section A – questions number 1 to 4 are case based questions
  4. Section B – questions number 5 to 21 are multiple choice questions
  5. Section C – questions number 22 to 27 are short answer
  6. Section D – questions number 28 to 35 are long answer
  7. There is no overall choice given in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions.
  8. Use of calculator is NOT allowed.

Section A

Question 1.

Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Integrated Tribal Development Project in Bharmaur Region.

This region lies between 32° 11' N and 32° 41' N latitudes and 76° 22' E and 76°53' E longitudes. Spread over an area of about 1,818 sq km, the region mostly lies between 1,500 m to 3,700 m above the mean sea level. This region popularly known as the homeland of Gaddis is surrounded by lofty mountains on all sides. It has Pir Panjal in the north and Dhaula Dhar in the South. In the east, the extension of Dhula Dhar converges with Pir Panjal near Rohtang Pass. The river Ravi and its tributaries - the Budhil and the Tundahen, drain this territory, and carve out deep gorges. These rivers divide the region into four physiographic divisions called Holi, Khani, Kugti, and Tundah areas. Bharmaur experiences freezing weather conditions and snowfall in winter. Its mean monthly temperature in January remains 4 °C and in July 26 °C.

(1) Describe the location of Bharmaur region.

[1 Marks]

(2) Why is this region economically backward? Explain any one reason.

[1 Marks]

(3) Why does this region experience harsh climatic conditions? Give one reason.

[1 Marks]
Question 2. Study the given map carefully and answer the questions that follow: Inland Waterway

(1) Identify the given inland waterway and write its name.

[1 Marks]

(2) Mention its two tributaries joining from East.

[1 Marks]

(3) Write the names of terminal ports of the given waterways.

[1 Marks]

(4)

Explain the importance of inland waterways as the means of transportation in the world.

[3 Marks]
Question 3.

On the given political outline map of the world, seven geographical features have been shown as A, B, C, D, E, F and G. Identify any five with the help of following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them :

(1)

A major sea-port

[1 Marks]

(2)

An area of nomadic herding

[1 Marks]

(3)

A terminal station of trans-continental railway.

[1 Marks]

(4)

An important shipping canal

[1 Marks]

(5)

Name the international airport of Chile.

[1 Marks]

(6)

Name an important area of subsistence gathering in Africa.

[1 Marks]

(7)

Name an area of nomadic herding in Asia.

[1 Marks]

(8)

Name the major seaport located on the west coast of Canada.

[1 Marks]

(9)

Name the canal connecting the Red Sea and the Mediterranean

Sea.

[1 Marks]

(10)

An area of subsistence gathering

[1 Marks]

(11)

An international airport

[1 Marks]

(12)

Name the eastern terminal station of Trans-Canadian Railway.

[1 Marks]

(13)

Name an area of extensive commercial grain farming in Australia.

[1 Marks]

(14)

An area of extensive commercial grain farming

[1 Marks]
Question 4.

Locate and label any five of the following geographical features with appropriate symbols on the given political outline map of India:

(1)

Astate leading in the production of coffee.

[1 Marks]

(2)

Animportant coal mining area in West Bengal.

[1 Marks]

(3)

Anoil refinery in Uttar Pradesh.

[1 Marks]

(4)

An international airport in Gujarat.

[1 Marks]

(5)

Astate with highest population density.

[1 Marks]

(6)

A major seaport along the coast of Goa.

[1 Marks]

(7)

An iron-ore mining area in Chhattisgarh.

[1 Marks]

(8)

Which state has the highest population density ?

[1 Marks]

(9)

Name one iron-ore mining area in Chhattisgarh.

[1 Marks]

(10)

Name the international airport located in Karnataka.

[1 Marks]

(11)

Name the seaport along the coast of Goa.

[1 Marks]

(12)

Name the place where oil refinery is located in Uttar Pradesh.

[1 Marks]

(13)

Name the state leading in the production of coffee.

[1 Marks]

(14)

Name one coal mining area in West Bengal.

[1 Marks]

Section B

Question 5. ‘Neeru-Meeru’ watershed management programme is associated with which of the following states?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Rajasthan
  • (B) Tamil Nadu
  • (C) Andhra Pradesh
  • (D) Karnataka
Question 6. Which of the following is a means of mass awareness regarding ‘water conservation’?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Telephonic conversation
  • (B) Through T.V. and Print Media
  • (C) Personal contact with people
  • (D) Writing letters to the people.
Question 7.

Which one of the following is the main objective of ‘Jal Kranti Abhiyan’?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Conservation of water resources
  • (B) Per capita water availability assurance
  • (C) Rainwater harvesting
  • (D) Providing sufficient water for agriculture
Question 8.

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R).

Read them carefully and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A): 'Free international trade can prove to be detrimental to the under-developed countries.' Reason (R): Under-developed countries are not at par to compete with developed countries.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
  • (C) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
  • (D) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
Question 9. Which of the following fact about jute cultivation in India, is true?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) West Bengal is the leading producer of jute.
  • (B) Jute is cash crop for Punjab and Haryana.
  • (C) India produces about 30% of the jute production of the world.
  • (D) Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra are other leading jute producing states.
Question 10.

Read the following information carefully and identify the correct option for the crop:

  1. Grown in Kharif season;

  2. Mainly grown in semi-arid area in India;

  3. Gujarat and Maharashtra are the leading producer states.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Sugarcane
  • (B) Tea
  • (C) Jute
  • (D) Cotton
Question 11. Which one of the following states in India is the leading producer of manganese?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Madhya Pradesh
  • (B) Odisha
  • (C) Bihar
  • (D) Jharkhand
Question 12. Which one of the following is the largest coalfields in India?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Jharia
  • (B) Raniganj
  • (C) Neyveli
  • (D) Bokaro
Question 13. Which of the following waterways and their stretches are correctly matched?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) National Waterways No.1 - Godavari - Krishna
  • (B) National Waterways No.2 - Sadiya - Dhubri
  • (C) National Waterways No.3 - Allahabad - Haldia
  • (D) National Waterways No.4 - Kottapuram - Kollam
Question 14.

Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) a : iv b : iii c : ii d : i
  • (B) a : iii b : iv c : ii d : i
  • (C) a : ii b : iii c : iv d : i
  • (D) a : i b : ii c : iii d : iv
Question 15. Which of the following metropolises is not linked with the ‘Golden Quadrilateral?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Mumbai
  • (B) Hyderabad
  • (C) Chennai
  • (D) Delhi
Question 16.

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R).

Read them carefully and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A): 'The gateways of the International trade are the ports and harbors.'

Reason (R): Only heavy cargos are transported through ports and harbours in the world.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
  • (C) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
  • (D) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
Question 17. Which one of the following is an example of oil port?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Manchester
  • (B) Dover
  • (C) Kochi
  • (D) Abadan
Question 18.

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R).

Read them carefully and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A): 'Waterway is an important mode of transport both for passengers and cargo traffic in India.' Reason (R): 'It is fuel efficient and eco-friendly mode of transport.'

[1 Marks]
  • (A) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
  • (C) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
  • (D) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
Question 19.

Characteristics of High Human Development

High level of human development group has 53 countries. Providing education and healthcare is an important government priority. Countries with higher human development are those where a lot of investment in the social sector has taken place. Altogether, a higher investment in people and good governance has set this group of countries apart from the others.

Many of these countries has been the former imperial powers. The degree of social diversity in these countries is not very high. Many of the countries with a high human development score are located in Europe and represent the industrialised western world. Yet there are striking numbers of non-European countries also who have made it to this list.

  • Which one of the following is an important priority of ‘high human development index’ countries? Choose the most appropriate option.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Education and healthcare
  • (B) Education and industrial development.
  • (C) Economic development and per capita income
  • (D) Healthcare and territorial security
Question 20.

Characteristics of High Human Development

High level of human development group has 53 countries. Providing education and healthcare is an important government priority. Countries with higher human development are those where a lot of investment in the social sector has taken place. Altogether, a higher investment in people and good governance has set this group of countries apart from the others.

Many of these countries has been the former imperial powers. The degree of social diversity in these countries is not very high. Many of the countries with a high human development score are located in Europe and represent the industrialised western world. Yet there are striking numbers of non-European countries also who have made it to this list.

  • Which one of the followings differentiates the higher human development countries from others? Choose the most appropriate option.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Higher gross domestic production
  • (B) Higher per capita income
  • (C) Higher investment in social sector
  • (D) Higher industrialization
Question 21.

Characteristics of High Human Development

High level of human development group has 53 countries. Providing education and healthcare is an important government priority. Countries with higher human development are those where a lot of investment in the social sector has taken place. Altogether, a higher investment in people and good governance has set this group of countries apart from the others.

Many of these countries has been the former imperial powers. The degree of social diversity in these countries is not very high. Many of the countries with a high human development score are located in Europe and represent the industrialised western world. Yet there are striking numbers of non-European countries also who have made it to this list.

  • How many countries are under ‘high human development index’ category?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) 52
  • (B) 54
  • (C) 53
  • (D) 51

Section C

Question 22. Nature and human are inseparable elements in all geographical studies. Examine the statement.
[3 Marks]
Question 23. Examine the main aspects of environmental determinism.
[3 Marks]
Question 24. Explain the main features of periodic markets in rural areas of the world.
[3 Marks]
Question 25. Explain the main objectives of ‘Smart Cities Mission’ in India.
[3 Marks]
Question 26. Explain the main features of the dispersed settlements in India.
[3 Marks]
Question 27. The composition of commodities in India’s international trade has been undergoing a change over the years. Examine the statement with examples.
[3 Marks]

Section D

Question 28. Analyse any five factors affecting world distribution of population.
[5 Marks]
Question 29. Examine the main characteristics of Co-operative Farming in the world.
[5 Marks]
Question 30. Examine the main characteristics of Dairy Farming in the world.
[5 Marks]
Question 31. Differentiate the small and large scale manufacturing industries in the world.
[5 Marks]
Question 32. Examine the statement: ‘The distribution of urban population over India has wide variations.’
[5 Marks]
Question 33. Examine the statement: ‘If development is not engendered, it is endangered.’ in the context of inclusive development.
[5 Marks]
Question 34. Describe any two sources of air pollution in India and suggest any three measures to overcome the air pollution.
[5 Marks]
Question 35. Describe any two sources of water pollution in India. Suggest any three measures to overcome the water pollution.
[5 Marks]

Paper Details

CBSE Board Exam 2024

Class

CLASS 12-HUMANITIES

Subject

GEOGRAPHY

Year

2024

Set

Set 5

Other Years — GEOGRAPHY

2022 Set-1

2022 Set-2

2022 Set-3

2022 Set-4

2022 Set-5

2023 Set-1

2023 Set-2

2023 Set-3

2023 Set-4

2023 Set-5

2024 Set-1

2024 Set-2

2024 Set-3

2024 Set-4

2024 Set-5

2025 Set-1

2025 Set-2

2025 Set-3

2025 Set-4

2025 Set-5

2025 Set-6