social-science/
previous-year-question-paper-2025-set-6

SOLUTIONS

2025 BOARD EXAM

CBSE CLASS 10 SOCIAL SCIENCE Board Paper 2025 — Set 6

2025

SOCIAL SCIENCE

CLASS 10

CBSE EXAMINATION SOLVED PAPER-2025 SOCIAL SCIENCE

CBSE EXAMINATION PAPER-2025

SOCIAL SCIENCE

(Solved)

Time allowed : 3 hours

Maximum Marks : 88

General Instructions :

Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :

  1. This question paper contains 44 questions. All questions are compulsory.
  2. This question paper is divided into 5 sections.
  3. Section A – questions number 1 to 5 are case based questions
  4. Section B – questions number 6 to 25 are multiple choice questions
  5. Section C – questions number 26 to 30 are very short answer
  6. Section D – questions number 31 to 36 are short answer
  7. Section E – questions number 37 to 44 are long answer
  8. There is no overall choice given in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions.
  9. Use of calculator is NOT allowed.

Section A

Question 1. Loans from Co-operatives: Besides banks, the other major source of cheap credit in rural areas are the co-operative societies. Members of a co-operative pool their resources for co-operation in certain areas. There are several types of co-operatives possible such as farmers co-operatives, weavers co-operatives, industrial workers co-operatives etc. Krishak Co-operative functions in a village not very far away from Sonpur. It has 2300 farmers as members. It accepts deposits from its members. With these deposits as collateral, the co-operative has obtained a large loan from the bank. These funds are used to provide loans to members. Once these loans are repaid, another round of lending can take place. Krishak Co-operative provides loans for the purchase of agriculture equipments, loans for cultivation and agricultural trade, fishery loans, loans for constructions of houses and for variety of other expenses.

(1) Explain the functioning of Co-operative Societies.

[2 Marks]
Answer: Co-operative societies function by pooling resources from their members to provide financial assistance and support in various sectors. For instance, the Krishak Co-operative, which has 2300 farmer members, accepts deposits from them. These deposits serve as collateral for obtaining loans from banks. The funds raised are then used to provide loans to the members for various purposes, including purchasing agricultural equipment, cultivation, and construction of houses. This system allows members to access credit at cheaper rates compared to informal lenders, while also promoting mutual assistance among them.
Key Points: Pooling resources from members; Accepting deposits for collateral; Providing loans for agriculture and housing; Reducing dependence on high-interest informal lenders

(2) How do Self-Help Groups access external funding?

[1 Marks]
Answer: Self-Help Groups (SHGs) access external funding mainly through the collaterals provided by their members' savings. The SHGs accumulate deposits from their members, which can then be used to secure loans from banks or co-operatives. By building a good credit history and demonstrating financial discipline, SHGs are able to avail larger loans for their members' activities, such as agriculture, trade, or other entrepreneurial ventures.
Key Points: Members save and pool resources-Use savings as collateral-Secure loans from banks or cooperatives-Enhance credit history for larger loans

(3) Which sector includes credit facilities offered by Cooperative Societies?

[1 Marks]
Answer: The sector that includes credit facilities offered by Cooperative Societies is the formal sector.
Key Points: formal sector - credit facilities - cooperative societies
Question 2. The Independence Day Pledge, 26 January 1930: 'We believe that it is the inalienable right of the Indian people, as of any other people, to have freedom and to enjoy the fruits of their toil and have the necessities of life, so that they may have full opportunities of growth. We also believe that if any government deprives people of these rights and oppresses them, the people have a further right to alter it or abolish it. The British Government in India has not only deprived the Indian people of their freedom but based itself on the exploitation of the masses, and has ruined India economically, politically, culturally and spiritually. We believe, therefore, that India must sever the British connection and attain Purna Swaraj or Complete Independence.'

(1) Why was Swaraj considered as an inalienable right of the India?

[1 Marks]
Answer: Swaraj was considered an inalienable right because it embodies the fundamental belief that every nation, including India, has the intrinsic right to freedom and self-governance. The Indian people were deprived of their freedom by the British government, which exploited them economically, politically, and culturally. Thus, the pledge on January 26, 1930, emphasized that it is not only a right but a necessity for the people to alter or abolish any oppressive government and attain complete independence.
Key Points: inalienable right to freedom-exploitation by British government-economically and politically deprived-need for self-governance

(2) Which type of government is supported in the source?

[1 Marks]
Answer: The source supports a democratic government that respects the inalienable rights of its people, advocating for freedom and the right to alter or abolish a government that oppresses its citizens.
Key Points: democratic government; inalienable rights; right to alter or abolish oppressive governments

(3) Explain any two effects of British rule in India.

[2 Marks]
Answer: British rule had significant negative effects on India. Firstly, it led to economic exploitation, where the British government drained India's wealth for its own benefit, resulting in widespread poverty and loss of livelihood for millions of Indians. Secondly, politically, the British suppressed Indian voices and denied the people their rights, leading to a sense of fear and helplessness among the masses. This prompted the demand for complete independence, as expressed in the Independence Day Pledge of 1930.
Key Points: Economic exploitation leading to poverty-Political suppression and denial of rights
Question 3. The Need for Political Parties: As we have seen, large societies need representative democracy. As societies became large and complex, they also needed some agency to gather different views on various issues and to present these to the government. They needed some ways to bring various representatives together so that a responsible government could be formed. They needed a mechanism to support or restrain the government, make policies, justify or oppose them. Political parties fulfill these needs that every representative government has. We can say that parties are a necessary condition for a democracy.

(1) Explain the meaning of ‘representative democracy’.

[1 Marks]
Answer: Representative democracy is a system of governance where citizens elect representatives to make decisions and create laws on their behalf. In large and complex societies, this system allows for a diverse range of views to be gathered and presented to the government, ensuring that various interests are represented in the policymaking process.
Key Points: Elected representatives-citizens' interests-decisions and laws

(2) Why are political parties considered a necessary condition for a democracy? Explain.

[2 Marks]
Answer: Political parties are considered a necessary condition for democracy because they serve essential functions in representative democracies. They gather diverse views from society, ensuring that different perspectives are presented to the government. Parties also play a critical role in forming a responsible government by bringing various representatives together. Furthermore, they can support or oppose government policies, which is vital for accountability and democratic governance. Without political parties, it would be challenging to organize political opinions and facilitate collective decision-making, making them indispensable in any democratic system.
Key Points: gather diverse views - form responsible government - support or oppose policies

(3) How do political parties shape public opinion?

[1 Marks]
Answer: Political parties shape public opinion by collecting diverse views from various segments of society and presenting them to the government. They act as a platform for discussion, debate, and advocacy, thereby influencing the perceptions and beliefs of their constituents. By justifying or opposing government policies, parties mobilize public sentiment and create a structured environment for citizens to engage with political issues.
Key Points: gather diverse views-present issues to government-influence public beliefs
Question 4.

Two places 'A' and 'B' have been marked on the given political outline map of India. Identify them with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them:

Question 5.

Two places 'A' and 'B' have been marked on

Section B

Question 6.

Rama is a farmer. She needs loan for agriculture work. Which of the following sources of loan will be beneficial for Rama? choose the most appropriate option:

I. Bank

II. Agricultural Trader

III. Self- Help Groups

IV. Government

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Only I,III and IV are correct
  • (B) Only II, III, and IV are correct
  • (C) Only I, II, and III are correct
  • (D) Only I, II and IV are correct
Explanation:

II Agricultural traders are often considered a less beneficial sources of loan as they might charge higher interest rates or impose unfavourable condition, potentially leading to exploitation. therefore the answer is I,III and IV

Question 7. ‘Per capita income’ is criterion for development of which one of the following?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) United Nations Development Programme
  • (B) World Trade Organisation
  • (C) World Health Organisation
  • (D) World Bank
Explanation: The correct answer is 'World Bank' because per capita income is a key criterion used in the World Development Reports published by the World Bank to classify countries into categories such as high income and low income based on their average income level.
Question 8.

Read the following statements for stimulating the process of globalization and choose the correct options:

I. Government reduces trade barriers

II. Government reduces competition among producers

III. Government reduces import and export taxes.

IV. Government removes restrictions on foreign investment.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Only I, III and IV are correct.
  • (B) Only I, II, and IV are correct.
  • (C) Only I, II, and III are correct.
  • (D) Only II, III and IV are correct.
Explanation:

Only I, III and IV are correct because they all represent actions that facilitate globalization by reducing restrictions on trade and investment. Reducing trade barriers (I) and import/export taxes (III) promotes easier trade. Removing restrictions on foreign investment (IV) enhances opportunities for international investment, which is essential for globalization. Statement II is incorrect as reducing competition among producers is contrary to the principles of globalization, which thrives on competition.

Question 9. Which of the following provisions have been made under the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act - 2005?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Government ensures 100 days of employment for all residents.
  • (B) Government ensures 200 days of employment for all rural residents.
  • (C) Government provides unemployment allowance to the beneficiaries in case of failure to provide employment.
  • (D) Government provides grains in exchange for work in rural areas.
Explanation: The correct option is 'Government ensures 100 days of employment for all residents.' This is accurate as the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) guarantees 100 days of wage employment in a year to every rural household in India, as dictated by the provisions of the act.
Question 10.

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A): Rupees is accepted as medium of exchange in India

Reason(R): The World Bank legalises the use of rupee as a medium of payment in India.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (B) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
  • (C) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (D) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
Explanation:

Assertion (A) is correct because rupees are indeed accepted as a medium of exchange in India, as per the context provided which states that the currency is authorized by the government. However, Reason (R) is incorrect because the legal authority to accept rupees as a medium of payment is given by the Indian government and the Reserve Bank of India, not the World Bank. Therefore, the correct option is: (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.

Question 11. Find the odd one out.
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Hindustan Computers Limited
  • (B) Bharti Airtel Limited
  • (C) Hindustan Unilever
  • (D) Indian Postal Service
Explanation: The correct option is 'Indian Postal Service'. It is a public sector service owned and operated by the government, whereas the other options (Hindustan Computers Limited, Bharti Airtel Limited, and Hindustan Unilever) are private sector industries owned by individuals or groups, focusing on profit-making.
Question 12.

Match the Column with Column-II and choose the correct option from the following.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) a - iii, b - ii, c - iv, d - i
  • (B) a - ii, b - iv, c - iii, d - i
  • (C) a - ii, b - i, c - iv, d - iii
  • (D) a - iv, b - i, c - ii, d - iii
Explanation:

(a) Bengal Gazette- (ii) James August Hickey

(b) Kesari - (iv) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

(c) Ramcharitramanas-(i) Tulsidas

(d) Samvad Kaumudi - (iii) Ram Mohan Roy

Question 13.

Arrange the following historical events in chronological order and choose the correct option.

I.Second Round Table Conference

II.Simon Commission arrives in India

III.Beginning of Dandi March

IV.Incident of Chauri-Chaura

[1 Marks]
  • (A) IV, II, I and III
  • (B) IV, II, III and I
  • (C) I, II, III and IV
  • (D) I, II, IV and III
Explanation:

IV- incident of Chauri-Chaura (February 1922)

II- Simon Commission arrives in India (February 1928)

III- Beginning of Dandi March- (March 1930)

I- Second Round Table Conference- (September- December 1931)

Question 14. In the 17th century, the city El Dorado in South America became famous as which one of the following?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) City of Diversity
  • (B) Small pox City
  • (C) Trading City
  • (D) City of Gold
Explanation: The correct answer is 'City of Gold' because legends spread in seventeenth-century Europe about South America's fabled wealth, particularly focusing on El Dorado as the mythical city believed to be rich in gold, prompting numerous expeditions in search of this legendary wealth.
Question 15.

Arrange the following regions of Italy in the order of their inclusion in the Unified Italy and choose the correct option.

I. Venetia

II. Savoy Sardinia

III. Sicilies

[1 Marks]
  • (A) I, II and III
  • (B) II,III and I
  • (C) I, III and II
  • (D) II, I and III
Explanation: The correct order of inclusion into unified Italy is II (Savoy Sardinia), III (Sicilies), and then I (Venetia). Savoy Sardinia was the first to become part of unified Italy, followed by the Sicilies, and Venetia was the last region to join. Therefore, the correct option is II, III, and I.
Question 16.

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A):There was civil war in Sri Lanka.

Reason (R): An Act was passed in 1956 to secure dominance of Sinhala community on the government.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (C) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
  • (D) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
Explanation: Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). The civil war in Sri Lanka was largely a result of the Sinhala community's attempts to dominate the government, exemplified by the 1956 Act that established Sinhala as the only official language. This action marginalized the Tamil community and contributed to escalating tensions that eventually led to violence and civil war.
Question 17.

Choose the correct option related to the regional political parties of India:

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Rashtriya Lok Dal- Mashal- Uttar Pradesh
  • (B) Telugu Desam- Cycle- Andhra Pradesh
  • (C) Telangana Rashtra Samiti- Kite - Telangana
  • (D) Shiromani Akali Dal- Chashma- Punjab
Explanation: The correct option is Telugu Desam- Cycle- Andhra Pradesh because Telugu Desam Party (TDP) is a prominent regional political party in Andhra Pradesh and its election symbol is Cycle. Other options are incorrect because Shiromani Akali Dal is related to Punjab but its symbol is not 'Chashma', Rashtriya Lok Dal belongs to Uttar Pradesh but its symbol is not 'Mashal', and Telangana Rashtra Samithi (TRS) is from Telangana but its symbol is not 'Kite'.
Question 18. Choose the correct option related to the Union list.
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Education, Commerce, Banking
  • (B) Police, Foreign affairs, Agriculture
  • (C) Currency, Communication, Defence
  • (D) Trade, Irrigation, Marriage
Explanation: The correct options related to the Union List are Currency, Defence, Foreign affairs, and Communication. These subjects are included in the Union List because they are of national importance and require a uniform policy across the country, which is exclusively managed by the Union Government as per the provided context.
Question 19.

Read the following statements regarding the creation of States on the basis of language in India and choose the correct options:

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Only I, II, and III are correct.
  • (B) Only II, III and IV are correct.
  • (C) Only I, III, and IV are correct.
  • (D) Only I, II and IV are correct.
Explanation: The correct option is 'Only I, II and IV are correct.' This choice reflects that while some states were indeed formed based on linguistic lines, others were created for cultural or geographic reasons. The context hints at the diversity in the creation of states, stating 'Some States were created not on the basis of language but to recognise differences based on culture, ethnicity or geography' and emphasizes the importance of linguistic states in fostering unity, while also mentioning the resistance faced initially against creating states solely based on language.
Question 20. How is democracy better than other forms of Government? Choose the most appropriate option.
[1 Marks]
  • (A) It enhances the dignity of individuals
  • (B) It promotes tendency of private ownership only.
  • (C) It increases individualism.
  • (D) It promotes equality among citizens
Explanation: The correct option is 'It enhances the dignity of individuals.' This is because democracy is fundamentally based on the principle of political equality, recognizing the status of all citizens, irrespective of their economic or educational background. In a democracy, individuals are not subjects but rulers of their own government, which significantly enhances their dignity and autonomy.
Question 21.

Belgium took some measures to solve its problem. Read the following measures and choose the correct option:

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Only II, III and IV are correct.
  • (B) Only I, III and IV are correct.
  • (C) Only I, II, and IV are correct.
  • (D) Only I, II, and III are correct.
Explanation: The Belgian model recognized linguistic and regional differences and involved constitutional amendments between 1970 and 1993 to accommodate these diversities. Key measures included equal numbers of Dutch and French-speaking ministers in the central government and special laws requiring majority support from each linguistic group. This prevented any single community from making unilateral decisions. These measures illustrate that only options II, III, and IV correctly represent the steps taken by Belgium to solve its problems.
Question 22. Which state of India has the maximum area under permanent forest?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Himachal Pradesh
  • (B) Madhya Pradesh
  • (C) Haryana
  • (D) Punjab
Explanation: Madhya Pradesh has the largest area under permanent forests, constituting 75 per cent of its total forest area, as stated in the context.
Question 23.

Read the characteristics given in the box and identify the type of coal from the option given below:

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Pit Coal
  • (B) Lignite Coal
  • (C) Anthracite Coal
  • (D) Bituminous Coal
Explanation:

Lignite coal is known as brown coal andit is the lowest rank of coal, Neyveli is a major lignite mining area in India located in Tamil Nadu. lignite is characteristically soft and contains a high percentage of moisture.

Question 24. Which among the following crop is known as ‘Golden Fibre’?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Cotton
  • (B) Wool
  • (C) Jute
  • (D) Silk
Explanation: The correct answer is Jute. It is referred to as 'Golden Fibre' due to its golden color and significant economic importance. The context states that jute grows well in well-drained fertile soils and requires a warm climate, emphasizing its status and characteristics as a crucial crop.
Question 25.

Choose the correctly matched pair (Multi-purpose River Project) and River:

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Gandhi Sagar - Chambal
  • (B) Salal - Beas
  • (C) Nagarjuna Sagar - Kaveri
  • (D) Hirakud - Godavari
Explanation: The correct option is 'Gandhi Sagar - Chambal'. The Gandhi Sagar Dam is built on the Chambal River and is part of the larger multipurpose project in the Chambal basin that includes initiatives for irrigation, hydel power production, and flood control. The other options are incorrectly matched, as Salal is on the Chenab River, Nagarjuna Sagar is on the Krishna River, and Hirakud is on the Mahanadi River.

Section C

Question 26. How did information and communication technology promote the process of Globalization? Explain.
[2 Marks]
Answer: Information and communication technology (ICT) has significantly enhanced globalization by enabling instant communication and efficient information exchange worldwide. Advancements in telecommunication, such as mobile phones and the internet, have allowed people to connect regardless of geographical barriers. This connectivity fosters global trade, collaboration, and idea-sharing, leading to a more integrated world economy. Furthermore, lower costs associated with these technologies have increased accessibility, empowering businesses and individuals to engage in global markets more effectively.
Question 27. How did Indians react to the Jallianwala Bagh massacre? Explain.
[2 Marks]
Answer: Indians reacted with outrage and sorrow to the Jallianwala Bagh massacre. As news spread, crowds gathered in cities across northern India, leading to protests and strikes against British authorities. Many felt a sense of unity as the massacre galvanized nationalistic sentiments. In Amritsar, tensions escalated, culminating in violent clashes. Overall, the event marked a significant turning point, intensifying the Indian struggle for independence and fostering widespread nationalistic feelings against British rule.
Question 28. Why is the conservation of conventional sources of energy significant? Explain any two reasons.
[2 Marks]
Answer: Conserving conventional sources of energy is crucial for several reasons. First, it helps ensure the security of energy supply as rising fossil fuel consumption leads to uncertainties regarding availability and prices. Second, it mitigates environmental problems caused by fossil fuels, such as pollution and global warming. Implementing energy conservation strategies and transitioning to renewable sources can promote sustainable development, benefiting both the economy and the environment.
Question 29. Suggest any two measures to promote secularism as mentioned in the Indian Constitution.
[2 Marks]
Answer: To promote secularism in India, the Constitution emphasizes that the State should maintain an impartial stance towards all religions, ensuring that no religious community can dominate another. This necessitates that policies and laws are crafted without bias towards any religion. Additionally, the State should practice noninterference, allowing religious communities to maintain their practices and beliefs freely, thus fostering an environment of respect and equality among all religions.
Question 30. Suggest any two measures to ensure participation of women in public life.
[2 Marks]
Answer: To ensure women's participation in public life, it is essential to implement a quota system mandating that at least one-third of political party tickets be allocated to women candidates. This measure can help address the underrepresentation of women in politics. Additionally, state funding for elections should be provided to political parties to support their campaigns, thereby encouraging more women to run for office. These measures can significantly enhance women's political representation.

Section D

Question 31. Define ‘Gross Domestic Product’ and explain its importance.
[3 Marks]
Answer: Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is the total monetary value of all final goods and services produced within a country during a specific year. It acts as a comprehensive measure of a nation's overall economic activity. The importance of GDP lies in its utility as an economic indicator: it helps assess the economic health of a country, guides fiscal and monetary policies, informs investment decisions, and allows for comparisons between different economies. Accurate GDP measurement is crucial for governmental planning and economic strategy, as it reflects the total production in various sectors including agriculture, industry, and services.
Question 32. Explain the main provisions of the Napoleonic Code — 1804.
[3 Marks]
Answer: The Napoleonic Code of 1804, also known as the Civil Code, aimed to establish a rational and efficient legal framework in France. One of its pivotal provisions was the abolition of privileges based on birth, ensuring that all citizens were equal before the law. It also protected the right to private property, which facilitated economic stability. Furthermore, the Code introduced a uniform system of weights and measures through the decimal system, thereby modernizing trade and commerce. However, it also limited political rights by restricting suffrage to property-owning men and subordinating women to a status akin to minors, reflecting a regression in democratic gains achieved earlier during the Revolution.
Question 33. Explain any three features of Plantation Agriculture.
[3 Marks]
Answer: Plantation agriculture is characterized by several distinct features. Firstly, it involves the cultivation of a single crop over a large area, which can include tea, coffee, sugarcane, rubber, or cotton. This monolithic approach allows for specialization and higher yields. Secondly, it is capital-intensive, requiring significant investment in machinery, infrastructure, and labor. This often includes manual labor, which can be sourced locally or through systems of organized labor. Lastly, plantations are usually located in tropical regions, benefiting from suitable climates for growth, and they often tie into industrial processes where the produce is processed close to the plantation, contributing to the agricultural economy.
Question 34. Explain any three factors responsible for water pollution.
[3 Marks]
Answer: Water pollution is a pervasive issue caused by various factors. First, industrial waste discharge is a major contributor. Industries such as textiles and tanneries release harmful effluents containing heavy metals and chemicals into water bodies. Second, agricultural runoff introduces pesticides and fertilizers into rivers and lakes, leading to further contamination. Lastly, the dumping of plastic and other wastes into waterways not only pollutes water but also disrupts ecosystems and harms aquatic life. These factors cumulatively degrade the quality of water, impacting human health and the environment.
Question 35. Explain any three factors responsible for air pollution.
[3 Marks]
Answer: Three significant factors contributing to air pollution include industrial emissions, vehicle exhaust, and the burning of fossil fuels. Industrial emissions release harmful gases such as sulfur dioxide and carbon monoxide, which are detrimental to air quality. For instance, smoke from chemical plants and factories adds particulate matter to the atmosphere. Additionally, vehicles, especially those running on diesel, emit nitrogen oxides and particulate matter, exacerbating urban air pollution. Lastly, the combustion of fossil fuels for energy and transportation increases carbon emissions, leading to climate change and health hazards.
Question 36. Differentiate between federal and unitary form of government with examples.
[3 Marks]
Answer: Federal and unitary forms of government differ primarily in their structure and distribution of powers. In a federal government, powers are divided between central and state governments, each having its own jurisdiction. For example, India operates a federal system where both the central government and state governments have defined powers. In contrast, a unitary system has a centralized authority, where sub-units derive their powers from the central government. France is an example of a unitary state where the central government holds significant power over local authorities. Thus, the key distinction lies in power-sharing: federations create independent governing entities while unitary systems feature a dominant central government.

Section E

Question 37.

The consequences of environmental degradation do not respect national and state boundaries.Examine the statement in context of sustainable of development.

[5 Marks]
Answer: The statement highlights a crucial aspect of environmental degradation, which transcends political and geographic borders. Environmental issues like climate change, deforestation, and pollution affect ecosystems and human communities worldwide, regardless of national policies. Sustainable development seeks to remedy these issues by promoting economic growth that is environmentally conscious. It emphasizes the importance of conserving natural resources for future generations while respecting the planet's biodiversity. The interconnected nature of global ecosystems necessitates cooperation among nations to address environmental challenges effectively. Sustainable development principles advocate for minimizing resource depletion, enhancing quality of life, and fostering attitudes that support environmental stewardship. By enabling communities to engage actively in caring for their environments, we can collectively work towards a sustainable future that acknowledges our shared destiny. Thus, achieving sustainable development requires a holistic approach, integrating environmental integrity with social equity and economic viability, ensuring that development benefits current and future generations without compromising the earth’s capacity to sustain life.
Question 38.

The question of sustainability of development is becoming more complex day by day.Examine the statement in context of use of underground water in India.

[5 Marks]
Answer: The issue of sustainability in development is critically linked to the overuse of groundwater in India, particularly in regions such as Punjab, Western U.P., and the hard rock plateau areas of South India. Groundwater is overused due to several factors: high population growth, unsustainable agricultural practices, and inadequate irrigation systems. For instance, the reliance on groundwater for irrigation has led to drastic depletion, with 300 districts witnessing a drop of over 4 meters in water levels in the last two decades. To balance development with sustainability, innovative practices like rainwater harvesting, rain-fed agriculture, and promotion of alternative irrigation techniques are vital. Countries can achieve development without overexploiting resources by adopting integrated water resource management and emphasizing renewable water systems. An example of sustainable practices includes the introduction of water-efficient crops and improved irrigation infrastructure aimed at reducing groundwater dependence. Only through such practices can India ensure that its development goals do not compromise future water availability, ensuring a sustainable environment for generations to come.
Question 39. Analyse the changes in Indian printing by the end of the 19th century.
[5 Marks]
Answer: By the end of the 19th century, Indian printing experienced significant transformations that reshaped cultural and social landscapes. The establishment of numerous printing presses facilitated the mass reproduction of texts and visual images, making literature and art more accessible to the general population. Notably, artists like Raja Ravi Varma emerged, producing iconic images for wide circulation. The integration of wood engravers alongside letterpress operators revolutionized the printing process, contributing to the rise of a vibrant visual culture. This era marked the departure from traditional methods of information dissemination to a modern print culture, profoundly influencing education, literacy, and public discourse, thus laying the groundwork for social and political movements in the early 20th century.
Question 40. Analyze the significant changes in printing technology during the 19th century in the world.
[5 Marks]
Answer: The 19th century witnessed transformative changes in printing technology that reshaped society and the dissemination of information. Initially, the transition from hand printing to mechanical printing, highlighted by the development of Richard M. Hoe's power-driven cylindrical press, marked a significant leap. This innovation enabled the printing of up to 8,000 sheets per hour, drastically increasing efficiency. The advent of electrically operated presses further accelerated production, enhancing the quality of prints and reducing costs. Additional advancements included improved methods for feeding paper, which streamlined the printing process, and innovation such as automatic paper reels and photoelectric controls that elevated precision. These technological advancements not only made literature more accessible to the masses but also facilitated the spread of ideas, contributing to social and political changes. Consequently, the print revolution altered the way individuals interacted with knowledge, prompting increased literacy and challenging established authorities.
Question 41. Explain the main features of alluvial soil.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Alluvial soil is a crucial soil type characterized by its fertility and widespread presence, particularly in the northern plains of India. It comprises varying proportions of sand, silt, and clay, leading to a texture that ranges from coarse near river valleys to finer particles further inland. The soil is deposited by major Himalayan river systems such as the Indus, Ganga, and Brahmaputra, contributing to its rich nutrient profile. Additionally, alluvial soils extend to regions like Rajasthan and Gujarat, and are prolific in eastern coastal plains, especially in river deltas. Due to its high fertility, this soil supports intensive agriculture, yielding crops like wheat and pulses, making regions with alluvial soil densely populated. Some alluvial deposits also contain minerals, referred to as placer deposits, which include precious metals such as gold and silver, further enhancing its economic importance. The soil varies in alkalinity, with drier areas requiring proper treatment for optimal productivity. Overall, alluvial soil is essential for both agriculture and mineral resources in many regions.
Question 42. Explain the various stages of resource planning and its need in India.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Resource planning in India is crucial for the judicious utilization of the country’s diverse resources. The process involves several key stages. First, there is the identification and inventory of resources, which requires extensive surveying and mapping to assess both the qualitative and quantitative aspects of available resources across different regions. Second, an appropriate planning structure must be developed, equipped with the necessary technology, skills, and institutions to effectively implement resource development plans. This stage ensures that the strategies are adapted to regional needs and capabilities. Third, the resource development plans should be synchronized with national development goals, creating a cohesive approach to sustainable development. In India, marked disparities in resource availability necessitate such meticulous planning; some regions are resource-rich while others face deficiencies. Resource planning not only enhances economic efficiency but also aims at equitable resource distribution, ultimately contributing to national progress. The significance of resource planning can be observed from its inception in the First Five Year Plan post-Independence, demonstrating India’s commitment to structural and technological advancements in resource management that align with overall national development.
Question 43.

The law enacted in 1956 and other Constitutional Provisions led to major conflict between the two communities in Sri Lanka.Support the statement.

[5 Marks]
Answer: The enactment of the Sinhala Only Act in 1956 and various Constitutional provisions significantly exacerbated the conflict between the Sinhala and Tamil communities in Sri Lanka. This Act made Sinhala the sole official language, which alienated the Tamil population and disregarded their cultural identity. Furthermore, subsequent government policies favored Sinhala candidates for educational and employment opportunities, leading to systemic discrimination against Tamils. These measures fostered a growing sense of marginalization among Tamils, who started demanding recognition of their rights and autonomy. The insistence on promoting Buddhism as a state religion further intensified feelings of disenfranchisement among non-Sinhala communities. Consequently, these conflicts escalated tensions, ultimately contributing to the protracted civil strife in Sri Lanka. The failure to foster inclusivity and recognize Tamil culture and language laid the groundwork for deeper societal rifts.
Question 44.

Power sharing increases trust between different groups.Support the statement.

[5 Marks]
Answer: Power sharing is a fundamental principle in a democratic society that enhances mutual trust among various groups. By distributing power among different social, cultural, and political factions, it ensures that all communities have a stake in the governance process. This participatory approach fosters dialogue and cooperation, minimizing the chances of conflict and violence that often arise from dominance by one group. When power is shared, each group feels valued and heard, creating an environment of mutual respect. Moreover, adherence to power-sharing agreements builds credibility and reinforces trust among communities. Citizens are more likely to engage with a government that represents diverse interests, leading to a stable political climate. An ideal federal system exemplifies this balance, where various levels of governance share responsibilities and power. This sharing not only legitimizes governmental authority but also reinforces democratic values, ensuring that all voices are included in decision-making. Ultimately, power sharing cultivates a sense of belonging among citizens, crucial for social cohesion and harmony.

Paper Details

CBSE Board Exam 2025

Class

CLASS 10

Subject

SOCIAL SCIENCE

Year

2025

Set

Set 6

Other Years — SOCIAL SCIENCE

2022 Set-1

2022 Set-2

2022 Set-3

2022 Set-4

2023 Set-1

2023 Set-2

2023 Set-3

2023 Set-4

2023 Set-5

2024 Set-1

2024 Set-2

2024 Set-3

2024 Set-4

2024 Set-5

2025 Set-1

2025 Set-2

2025 Set-3

2025 Set-4

2025 Set-5

2025 Set-6