social-science/
previous-year-question-paper-2025-set-5

SOLUTIONS

2025 BOARD EXAM

CBSE CLASS 10 SOCIAL SCIENCE Board Paper 2025 — Set 5

2025

SOCIAL SCIENCE

CLASS 10

CBSE EXAMINATION SOLVED PAPER-2025 SOCIAL SCIENCE

CBSE EXAMINATION PAPER-2025

SOCIAL SCIENCE

(Solved)

Time allowed : 3 hours

Maximum Marks : 87

General Instructions :

Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :

  1. This question paper contains 41 questions. All questions are compulsory.
  2. This question paper is divided into 5 sections.
  3. Section A – questions number 1 to 3 are case based questions
  4. Section B – questions number 4 to 22 are multiple choice questions
  5. Section C – questions number 23 to 27 are very short answer
  6. Section D – questions number 28 to 33 are short answer
  7. Section E – questions number 34 to 41 are long answer
  8. There is no overall choice given in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions.
  9. Use of calculator is NOT allowed.

Section A

Question 1. Read the given source: Pages of Gutenberg's Bible, the first printed book in Europe. Gutenberg printed about 180 copies, of which no more than 50 have survived Look at these pages of Gutenberg’s Bible carefully. They were not just products of new technology. The text was printed in the new Gutenberg press with metal type, but the borders were carefully designed, painted and illuminated by hand by artist. No two copies were the same. Every page of each copy was different. Even when two copies look similar, a careful comparison will reveal differences. Elites everywhere preferred this lack of uniformity: what they possessed then could be claimed as unique, for no one else owned a copy that was exactly the same. In the text you will notice the use of colour within the letters in various places. This had two functions: it added colour to the page, and highlighted all the holy words to emphasise their significance. But the colour on every page of the text was added by hand. Gutenberg printed the text in black, leaving spaces where the colour could be filled in later.

(1) How were the books borders painted and illuminated?

[1 Marks]
Answer: The borders of the books were carefully designed, painted, and illuminated by hand by artists. Each page was unique, as the color was added manually after the text was printed in black, leaving spaces for this decorative work.
Key Points: borders designed by hand-hand painting and illumination-unique pages with no two copies the same

(2) Describe any two benefits of colouring in the letters.

[2 Marks]
Answer: The colouring in the letters of Gutenberg's Bible provided several benefits. Firstly, it added visual appeal and color to the pages, making the text more attractive and engaging to readers. This enhancement not only beautified the pages but also helped in drawing attention to important sections of the text. Secondly, the use of color emphasized the significance of holy words, allowing readers to easily identify and appreciate crucial elements of the scripture. This technique enhanced the overall experience of reading the Bible by making the sacred text stand out.
Key Points: 1. Added visual appeal and engagement 2. Highlighted important holy words

(3) Mention the contribution of Gutenberg in the field of printing.

[1 Marks]
Answer: Gutenberg's significant contribution to the field of printing was the invention of the movable type printing press, which greatly accelerated the production of books. His first major work, the Gutenberg Bible, marked the transition from hand-copied manuscripts to printed texts, making literature more accessible and affordable. This innovation allowed for the mass production of books, thus revolutionizing the distribution of knowledge in Europe.
Key Points: Invented movable type printing press - Produced first printed book, the Gutenberg Bible - Accelerated book production making literature accessible and affordable
Question 2. Read the given source: Primitive Subsistence Farming. It is a slash and burn agriculture. Farmers clear a patch of land and produce cereals and other food crops to sustain their family. When the soil fertility decreases, the farmers shift and clear a fresh patch of land for cultivation. This type of shifting allows Nature to replenish the fertility of the soil through natural processes; land productivity in this type of agriculture is low as the farmer does not use fertilisers or other modern inputs. It is known by different names in different parts of the country. It is jhumming in north-eastern states like Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Nagaland; Pamlou in Manipur, Dipa in Bastar district of Chhattisgarh, and in Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

(1) 'Slash and Burn' system of agriculture comes under which type of farming?

[1 Marks]
Answer: The 'slash and burn' system of agriculture comes under primitive subsistence farming.
Key Points: Primitive subsistence farming- Shifting cultivation- Low inputs- Natural soil replenishment

(2) Why is productivity low in 'Slash and Burn' system?

[1 Marks]
Answer: Productivity is low in the 'Slash and Burn' system because farmers rely on traditional methods without using modern fertilizers or inputs. After a few years of cultivation, the soil's natural fertility decreases, forcing farmers to shift to new patches of land instead of improving their existing fields.
Key Points: No use of fertilizers-low soil fertility-shifting to new land

(3) Describe any two features of 'Slash and Burn' system of agriculture.

[2 Marks]
Answer: The 'Slash and Burn' system of agriculture involves two main features. First, farmers clear a piece of land by cutting down trees and burning the vegetation, which enriches the soil with nutrients. Second, after cultivating crops in this cleared area for a few years, the farmers shift to a different patch of land once the soil fertility declines, allowing the previously used land to regenerate naturally.
Key Points: Clearing land by cutting and burning vegetation; shifting cultivation to allow soil regeneration.
Question 3. Read the given source: State Reorganisation Commission. The report of the States Reorganisation Commission (SRC) was implemented on November 1, 1956. This, in its own time and own way, has also transformed the political and institutional life of the nation. Gandhi and other leaders promised their followers that when freedom came, the new nation would be based on a new set of provinces, these based on the principle of language. However, when India was finally free in 1947, it was also divided. Far from undermining Indian unity, linguistic states have helped strengthen it. It has proved to be perfectly consistent to be Kannadiga and Indian, Bengali and Indian, Tamil and Indian, Gujarati and Indian. To be sure, these states based on language sometimes quarrel with one another.

(1) How did language strengthen the unity of India?

[1 Marks]
Answer: Language has strengthened the unity of India by creating states that reflect the linguistic identity of its people. This allowed individuals to identify themselves as both part of a linguistic community and as Indian citizens, thus fostering a sense of belonging and unity across diverse cultures. Furthermore, the establishment of linguistic states empowered people to communicate in their mother tongue, enhancing participation in democracy and governance, and promoting mutual understanding among various groups.
Key Points: Linguistic states reflect people's identity - Strengthened sense of belonging - Fosters mutual understanding

(2) What promise did Gandhiji make to his followers?

[1 Marks]
Answer: Gandhiji promised his followers that upon attaining freedom, the new nation would be organized into provinces based on linguistic principles, allowing people to identify with their own language and culture while still being part of India.
Key Points: Gandhiji promised a new set of provinces, based on language principle - Encouraged communication in mother tongue - Aimed to strengthen Indian unity through linguistic identity

(3) Mention the names of major language of Kerala and Andhra Pradesh states.

[2 Marks]
Answer: The major language of Kerala is Malayalam, while the major language of Andhra Pradesh is Telugu.
Key Points: Kerala-Malayalam; Andhra Pradesh-Telugu

Section B

Question 4.

Read the following facts related to ‘Napoleonic Code’ carefully and choose the correct option: I. Abolition of privileges based on birth, II. Establishing equality before the law, III. Securing property rights, IV. Imposing manorial dues on the peasants.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) only I, II and III are correct
  • (B) only II, III and IV are correct
  • (C) only I, II and IV are correct
  • (D) only I and IV are correct
Explanation: The correct option is 'only I, II and III are correct' because the Napoleonic Code abolished privileges based on birth, established equality before the law, and secured property rights. However, it did not impose manorial dues on the peasants; rather, it eliminated such feudal practices.
Question 5. For which of the following markets were cotton and sugar primarily exported from America in the 18th Century?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) For American Market
  • (B) For European Market
  • (C) For Asian Market
  • (D) For Australian Market
Explanation: The correct answer is 'For European Market' because, according to the provided context, plantations in America were growing cotton and sugar specifically for the European markets during the 18th century.
Question 6. In the early years of the 19th century, the production of which of the following food items brought about a fundamental change in the lives of poor people in Europe?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Tomato
  • (B) Potato
  • (C) Soya
  • (D) Groundnut
Explanation: The correct answer is Potato. The introduction of the potato allowed the poor in Europe to diversify their diet beyond the monotony of bread. It significantly improved their nutrition and living conditions, leading to a longer lifespan. The reliance on potatoes became so critical that when crops failed, as in Ireland during the mid-1840s, it resulted in severe famine.
Question 7. Identify the appropriate reason for the slow growth of the English Language Press during the 16th century from the following options.
[1 Marks]
  • (A) English Press worked on commercial perspectives
  • (B) Restriction of British government on the regional press
  • (C) Increase in the demand for the regional press in the market
  • (D) Reason and rationality were not prominent in press
Explanation: The correct option is 'Restriction of British government on the regional press'. This choice is accurate because the provided context indicates that the English language press in India faced severe limitations imposed by the colonial government, particularly after events like the revolt of 1857, which led to increased restrictions on publications, especially those attempting to assert nationalist sentiments.
Question 8.

Choose the correctly matched pair.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Manas Tiger Reserve - Assam
  • (B) Corbett National Park - Himachal Pradesh
  • (C) Bandhavgarh National Park - Rajasthan
  • (D) Sunderban National Park - Kerala
Explanation:

The correct option is 'Manas Tiger Reserve - Assam'. According to the provided context, Manas Tiger Reserve is indeed located in Assam, while the other options incorrectly match the locations of the respective national parks.

Question 9.

Choose the correct option to fill the blank. An artificial lake built in the 11th century for water conservation is ___.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Sambhar Lake
  • (B) Wular Lake
  • (C) Bhopal Lake
  • (D) Chilka Lake
Explanation:

The correct answer is Bhopal Lake, as it is mentioned in the context that Bhopal Lake, one of the largest artificial lakes of its time, was built in the 11th century.

Question 10. Two statements are provided below. Read both the statements and choose the correct option. Assertion (A): Certain minerals may occur as alluvial deposits in sands of valley floors and the base of hills. Reason (R): These are usually minerals that are not corroded by water.
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  • (C) (A) is true but (R) is false
  • (D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Explanation: Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) because the assertion correctly states that minerals can be found as alluvial deposits in specific geological settings, while the reason accurately explains that these minerals tend to be resistant to corrosion by water, which is why they accumulate in those locations.
Question 11.

Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) a-iv b-i c-iii d-iii
  • (B) a-i b-ii c-iii d-iv
  • (C) a-iv b-i c-iii d-ii
  • (D) a-ii b-iii c-iv d-i
Explanation:

The correct option is 'a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii' because matching the monthly incomes from the context shows that Country A's average income corresponds to option IV (10000), while Country B's average income corresponds to option I (500). The other matches align accordingly with the given values in the context.

Question 12.

Choose the correct option related to the concurrent list of the Indian Constitution.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Defence, Banking, Education
  • (B) Education, Forest, Marriage
  • (C) Marriage, Currency, Commerce
  • (D) Agriculture, Trade, Irrigation
Explanation: The correct options related to the concurrent list are Education, Forest, and Marriage. These subjects are mentioned in the context as examples of those that fall under the concurrent list, which includes subjects of common interest to both the Union and State Governments.
Question 13. Which of the following statements are correct about the role of political parties in India? 1. Play a decisive role in making laws for the country. 2. Making different interest groups in the country. 3. Play a role in shaping public opinion in the country. 4. Pulling forward different policies and programmes before voters.
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Only 1, 3 and 4 are correct
  • (B) Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
  • (C) Only 2, 3 and 4 are correct
  • (D) Only 1, 2 and 4 are correct
Explanation: Only statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct. Political parties have a decisive role in making laws as most members in the legislature belong to parties and follow party leadership. They also shape public opinion by raising issues and mobilizing members, and present policies to voters. Statement 2 is inaccurate as political parties do not specifically make interest groups; rather, many pressure groups are extensions of parties.
Question 14.

Study the given table and answer the question that follows:

[1 Marks]
  • (A) OnlyI,II and IV, are correct.
  • (B) Only II,IIIand IVare correct.
  • (C) Only,I,II and IV are correct.
  • (D) Only I,II and III are correct.
Explanation: The correct option is 'Only I, II and IV are correct.' This is because the discussion points directly relate to the increases in educational institutions and address the adequacy of college admissions, the need for more universities, and insights on future educational developments. The inclusion of teacher growth in the context supports the importance of these discussions.
Question 15.

Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option:

[1 Marks]
  • (A) a-ii b-i c-iv d-iii
  • (B) a-iii b-iv c-ii d-i
  • (C) a-i b-iii c-iv d-ii
  • (D) a-iii b-iv c-i d-ii
Explanation:

The correct option is 'a-ii b-i c-iv d-iii'. This matches the monthly incomes of citizens in each country correctly based on the provided data: Country A has incomes in ascending order of 9500, 9800, 10000, and 10500, which corresponds to ii, i, iv, and iii respectively. Country B has all individuals earning 500, which corresponds to the first option in Column II.

Question 16.

With the help of following information identify the agricultural crop from the given options:

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Mustard
  • (B) Rubber
  • (C) Cotton
  • (D) Groundnut
Explanation:

Rubber requires high rainfall (more than 200cm) and thrives in warm temperatures, making it suitable for equatorial regions. It is also used as a raw material in various industries.

Question 17.

Choose the correct option to fill the blanks .

The Belgian leaders took different path than Sri Lankha. They recognised the existence of regional differences and_____.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Administrative diversities
  • (B) Historical diversities
  • (C) Religious diversities
  • (D) Cultural diversities
Explanation:

The correct option is 'Cultural diversities' because the context indicates that the Belgian leaders acknowledged both regional differences and cultural diversities. This recognition led them to amend their constitution to create an arrangement allowing different communities to coexist peacefully.

Question 18.

Rakhi has done an economic survey of her area .The survey has revealed that people earn their livelihood by doing different jobs. The table prepared by Rakhi for this is given below . Study the table carefully and answer the question that follow:

how many people are working in the unorganished sector?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) 140
  • (B) 380
  • (C) 320
  • (D) 210
Explanation:

Farmers- 250

Handloom weavers- 70

Total unorganised sector= 250+70=320

Question 19.

Look at the given picture and answer the question that follows:

The work being done in the picture falls in which sector of the economy?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Quaternary
  • (B) Tertiary
  • (C) Primary
  • (D) Secondary
Explanation:

The picture describes "cars made by Indian workers being transported to be sold abroad by MNCs. This falls under Tertiary sector of economy.

Question 20.

Shyamal is a small farmer. Shyamal has got his 'Kisan Card' made. He needs a loan to grow new crops. Which of the following means will be easy and beneficial for this ?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Cooperative Bank
  • (B) Relatives
  • (C) Friends
  • (D) Agricultural Traders
Explanation: The correct option is 'Cooperative Bank'. Cooperative banks provide loans specifically to farmers for agricultural purposes, often at lower interest rates and with more favorable terms compared to informal sources like relatives and friends. This aligns with Shyamal's needs to buy HYV seeds and implements, as mentioned in the context.
Question 21.

The problem of 'Double Coincidence of Wants' can be solved by which of the following?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) By increasing the circulation of currency
  • (B) By expanding the scope of markets
  • (C) By creating awareness amongst people
  • (D) By registering the buyer and seller
Explanation: The correct option is 'By increasing the circulation of currency.' This is because increasing the circulation of currency allows individuals to use money as a medium of exchange. In a barter system, double coincidence of wants occurs when two parties each desire what the other offers. In contrast, with the use of money, individuals can easily exchange their goods for currency and then use that currency to buy what they need, thus eliminating the necessity for a double coincidence of wants.
Question 22.

Two statements-I and II are given below. Read both the statements and choose the correct option.

Statement -I: In recent times technology in the areas of computer and internet has been changing rapidly.

Statement -II: Internet allows us to send instant electronic mail (e-mail) and talk (voice-mail) across the world at negligible costs.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Only I is false but II is true.
  • (B) Only I is true but II is false.
  • (C) Both I and II are true and II is the correct explanation of I
  • (D) Both I and II are true but II is not the correct explanation of I
Explanation:

Both I and II are true and II is the correct explanation of I, because the rapid changes in technology include advancements in the internet that enable features like instant email and voice communication at low costs, reflecting the technological evolution described in Statement I.

Section C

Question 23. How did salt become a powerful weapon to unite the country in the Civil Disobedience Movement? Explain any two causes.
[2 Marks]
Answer: Salt became a powerful weapon during the Civil Disobedience Movement as it symbolized resistance against British colonial oppression. Primarily, salt was a basic necessity, making the protest relatable to all Indians, regardless of class. The second cause was Gandhi's strategic choice to break the Salt Law, thus uniting individuals across various regions in a common cause. This collective action fostered national unity and showcased the potential of nonviolent resistance.
Question 24. How did the colonial government suppress the Civil Disobedience Movement? Explain.
[2 Marks]
Answer: The colonial government employed various repressive measures to suppress the Civil Disobedience Movement, which included the imposition of laws that prohibited gatherings and demonstrations. They arrested thousands of activists, including notable leaders, and confiscated properties associated with the movement. The British also used police brutality to disperse gatherings, instilling fear among the participants, while restricting publications that supported the movement. These actions aimed to stifle dissent and maintain colonial control.
Question 25. Describe any two ways to solve the problem of land degradation.
[2 Marks]
Answer: Two effective ways to combat land degradation include afforestation and proper management of grazing. Afforestation involves planting trees to restore lost vegetation, which helps prevent soil erosion and improves soil fertility. On the other hand, managing grazing responsibly helps to avoid overgrazing, allowing the land to recover and maintain its health. Both measures can considerably reduce the degradation and promote the sustainability of land resources.
Question 26. Suggest any two measures to increase the representation of women in the legislatures of India.
[2 Marks]
Answer: To increase the representation of women in India's legislatures, one measure is to implement a mandatory reservation of one-third of political party tickets for women candidates. This would ensure that women have equitable opportunities to contest elections. Another important measure is to legally mandate quotas for women in decision-making bodies at all levels of politics, similar to the provisions in Panchayati Raj. These initiatives can significantly enhance women's political representation.
Question 27. How did liberalization promote the process of globalization in India? Explain.
[2 Marks]
Answer: Liberalization in India allowed for fewer government restrictions on trade, enabling businesses to make independent decisions about imports and exports. This reduction of barriers attracted foreign investments and fostered international business collaborations, leading to greater integration of the Indian economy with the global market. Consequently, Indian companies began to establish a multinational presence, exemplified by firms like Tata Motors and Infosys, which have expanded operations internationally, thereby promoting globalization.

Section D

Question 28. Analyse three main impacts of Non-Cooperation Movement on the economic front.
[3 Marks]
Answer: The Non-Cooperation Movement had significant economic impacts on India's struggle for independence. Firstly, the boycott of foreign goods severely restricted the sales of British products, leading to economic pressure on British industries. This was symbolically demonstrated through the burning of foreign cloth, showcasing the unity of Indian consumers. Secondly, the movement encouraged self-reliance, with many Indians turning to indigenous crafts and industries. This was a crucial step towards the promotion of 'Swadeshi' goods, fostering local economies. Lastly, the movement disrupted British trade practices by boycotting liquor shops and government institutions, thus significantly affecting British economic interests in India. Overall, these actions united various social groups in the fight for Swaraj.
Question 29. Distinguish between formal and informal sources of credit in India with example.
[3 Marks]
Answer: In India, credit sources can be categorized into formal and informal sectors. Formal sources include registered institutions like banks and cooperatives that provide loans under regulated terms. For example, a farmer might obtain a loan from a cooperative bank with specified interest rates and repayment schedules. In contrast, informal sources consist of unregulated lenders such as moneylenders, relatives, or friends, often charging higher interest rates and lacking standardized contracts. For instance, a farmer may borrow from a local moneylender under conditions that are not documented, leading to uncertainty and potential exploitation.
Question 30. Suggest any three measures to increase employment opportunities in urban areas in India.
[3 Marks]
Answer: To increase employment opportunities in urban areas in India, three effective measures can be implemented. First, promoting industrial development is crucial. Establishing new industries, especially in tribal and backward regions, can create numerous jobs and lessen urban migration. Second, enhancing the tourism sector holds significant potential; improvements could lead to the creation of over 3.5 million jobs annually. Finally, expanding the IT and service sectors through government support and better infrastructure will cater to the growing urban workforce, thus spurring job creation.
Question 31. Evaluate the system of ‘Checks and Balances’ in the horizontal distribution of power in India.
[3 Marks]
Answer: In India, the system of 'Checks and Balances' is essential for ensuring that no single organ of government dominates the others. This horizontal distribution of power involves three branches: the legislature, the executive, and the judiciary. The legislature creates laws but is subject to judicial review, ensuring laws comply with the Constitution. The executive enforces laws but can be checked by the legislature through mechanisms like impeachment. The judiciary interprets laws and can invalidate those that are unconstitutional. This dynamic interrelation allows for accountability and prevents abuse of power. Furthermore, regular elections reinforce this system by allowing citizens to choose their representatives, making the government accountable to the public. This framework not only maintains a balance among branches but upholds democracy in India, ensuring that each branch functions effectively within its defined role.
Question 32. Explain three major challenges before Political Parties in India.
[3 Marks]
Answer: Political parties in India face several significant challenges that undermine their effectiveness in a democracy. Firstly, there is a lack of internal democracy within parties. Often, decisions are centralized in the hands of a few leaders, leading to authoritarian structures and limiting participation. Secondly, political parties are increasingly influenced by money and muscle power, particularly during elections. This trend encourages corruption and favors wealthy candidates, reducing the representativeness of political parties. Lastly, the unpopularity of political parties has resulted in widespread public dissatisfaction, prompting calls for reform and greater accountability. Together, these challenges threaten the core functions of political parties and their ability to act as instruments of democracy.
Question 33.

Why did the Non- Cooperation Movement start slowing down in the cities? Analyse three causes.

[3 Marks]
Answer: The Non-Cooperation Movement began to lose momentum in urban areas due to a few key reasons. Firstly, the initial enthusiasm among the middle-class participants began to wane as the movement faced government repression and arrests, leading to discouragement. Secondly, divisions within the Congress regarding the pace and strategy of the movement caused confusion and reduced participation from various sectors. Lastly, as the movement progressed, the focus shifted towards more localized issues rather than the broader goal of Swaraj, leading to diminished interest from the urban populace who were more engaged with immediate concerns. These factors collectively contributed to the slowing down of the movement in cities.

Section E

Question 34.

Evaluate the outcomes of democracy in the economic sector of the country.

[5 Marks]
Answer: Democracy's outcomes in the economic sector are multifaceted, encompassing both positive and negative aspects. On one hand, democratically governed nations like Denmark and Hungary often exhibit higher economic well-being, characterized by better quality of government and substantial social welfare programs. This results in improved living standards, access to education, and healthcare. However, inequality remains a persistent challenge, as evidenced by the unequal opportunities faced by poorer sections of society. Furthermore, while economic growth is significant in democratic contexts, the distribution of wealth is often uneven. It is critical to note that economic outcomes are influenced by various factors beyond the political framework, such as global economic conditions, a nation's population size, and its specific economic policies. Therefore, while democracy supports certain economic advancements, the expectation of equal economic opportunities for all citizens remains an ongoing struggle. Ultimately, democracy is not the sole determinant of economic success, but it plays a vital role in fostering an environment conducive to growth and addressing inequalities.
Question 35.

Evaluate the outcomes of democracy in the social sector of the country.

[5 Marks]
Answer: Democracy significantly impacts the social sector by fostering equality, inclusivity, and representation. Outcomes like the promotion of social justice are critical, as citizens are afforded equal rights and the ability to voice their concerns. Moreover, through democratic institutions, marginalized groups can seek redress for their grievances. Education and healthcare policies can be aimed at reducing disparities. Although challenges like social inequalities persist, democracy engenders a framework for dialogue and reform, allowing continuous improvement in societal conditions. Ultimately, the success of democracy lies in the engagement of citizens in utilizing these democratic processes to achieve their goals and address issues of inequality. Thus, while the outcomes are mixed, a commitment to the principles of democracy holds promise for enhancing social welfare.
Question 36. Analyse the social and economic goals of development.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Development encompasses both social and economic goals that aim to improve the quality of life of citizens. Socially, development focuses on enhancing health, education, and well-being, ensuring that individuals have access to quality services and can participate fully in society. Economically, goals include reducing poverty and inequality, generating employment, and promoting sustainable growth. For instance, providing quality education and reducing social discrimination empower marginalized communities. Ultimately, true development should lead to shared prosperity, where economic growth translates into tangible benefits for all, thus fostering social stability and cohesion.
Question 37. Why is the question of sustainability of development becoming challenging in present times? Analyse the appropriate reasons.
[5 Marks]
Answer: The sustainability of development is increasingly challenging due to several intertwined factors. Firstly, reliance on crude oil, especially in countries like India, poses significant challenges. With limited domestic reserves, dependency on imports creates vulnerability, particularly with fluctuating global prices. Moreover, the ecological consequences of development, such as pollution and resource depletion, undermine future generations' ability to meet their needs. The globalization of these issues means that environmental degradation is not confined to national borders, leading to collective action problems. Developing nations face unique challenges as they strive to enhance their development while balancing ecological integrity. Additionally, the socio-economic disparities within and between countries complicate the implementation of sustainable practices. As scientists and economists examine these challenges, it's evident that a multi-faceted approach involving cooperation across disciplines and borders is essential to forge a path toward a sustainable future.
Question 38.

The political and constitutional changes that came in the wake of the French Revolution led to the transfer of sovereignty from monarchy to a body of French Citizens. Explain the statement.

[5 Marks]
Answer: The French Revolution of 1789 marked a significant turning point in the history of France, shifting the concept of sovereignty from an absolute monarchy to the people. Before the revolution, France was ruled by King Louis XVI, with power concentrated in his hands. However, the National Assembly was formed, representing 'active citizens' and aimed to create a constitutional framework limiting monarchical authority. In 1791, a new constitution was drafted, defining the separation of powers among the legislature, executive, and judiciary, thus establishing a constitutional monarchy. This change highlighted the transition towards a system governed by elected representatives rather than hereditary rulers. The revolutionary ideals emphasized the notions of 'la patrie' – the fatherland, and 'le citoyen' – the citizen, promoting equal rights and a unity among the French populace. The introduction of the tricolour flag symbolized this shift towards national identity over royal allegiance. The impact of these changes extended beyond France, inspiring movements across Europe and other colonized nations, as they sought to establish sovereignty and self-determination, thereby reshaping global political landscapes.
Question 39.

During 19th century,in the economic sphere, liberalisation stood for the freedom of markets and the abolition of state-imposed restrictions on the movement of goods and capital. Explain the statement.

[5 Marks]
Answer: In the 19th century, liberalisation represented a pivotal shift towards market freedom and minimal state interference in economic activities. The emerging middle class championed liberalism, driving demands for abolition of government-imposed barriers on trade and capital movement. This change empowered businesses to freely decide their import and export activities without heavy regulations. Such economic liberty was believed to enhance societal development, as it encouraged competition and innovation. The movement encapsulated ideas of individual freedom and equality, aiming to foster an environment where labor and capital could thrive unimpeded. This period marked the transition from mercantilism to a more capitalist-oriented economy, reinforcing the belief among liberals that economies flourished when free from state control. Ultimately, the landscape of trade and economics was reshaped by these liberal ideas, allowing for increased economic growth and prosperity.
Question 40.

Study the given flow chart and answer the question that follows:

Explain the added value product in the textile industry on the bases of above flowchart.

[5 Marks]
Answer: The textile industry exemplifies value addition by transforming raw materials through various stages into finished goods. Starting with fiber production, such as cotton or jute, the process progresses through spinning, weaving, and dyeing to finally result in garments. Each stage adds value - for instance, spinning converts raw fibers into yarn, followed by weaving that turns yarn into fabric. Dyeing and finishing enhance the aesthetic appeal and usability of the fabric, culminating in the manufacture of garments. This structured process not only enriches the products but also contributes significantly to the economy through job creation, industrial output, and foreign exchange earnings. The textile industry is uniquely positioned as it encompasses the entire value chain, from agricultural inputs to the final consumer goods. Additionally, the incorporation of human labor, infrastructure, and technology at every step underscores the industry's role in economic development. Overall, the added value from the raw fiber to finished garments showcases the importance of each stage in creating high-value products that meet consumer needs.
Question 41.

Study the given flowchart and answer the question that follows:

Explain the steel manufacturing process on the bases of the above flowchart.

[5 Marks]
Answer: The process of manufacturing steel begins with the transportation of raw materials, primarily iron ore, to the steel plant. Once at the plant, the iron ore is introduced into a blast furnace, where it is subjected to high temperatures to undergo smelting. During this phase, limestone is added as a fluxing agent, which helps in removing impurities by forming slag, which can be easily discarded.\n\nCoke, a form of carbon, is burnt to generate the necessary heat for this process. The molten product from the blast furnace, known as pig iron, is then poured into molds referred to as 'pigs.' This pig iron is an intermediate product and contains a significant amount of impurities that must be removed before it can become steel.\n\nThe next stage is steelmaking, where the pig iron undergoes further refining. This is achieved by melting the pig iron and oxidizing its impurities. To enhance the final product, alloying elements such as manganese, nickel, and chromium are added, which confer specific properties to the resulting steel based on its intended use. After these processes, the output is steel, which can be sold to various industries for further use, demonstrating the intricate steps and engineering required to convert raw materials into a versatile material essential for many applications.

Paper Details

CBSE Board Exam 2025

Class

CLASS 10

Subject

SOCIAL SCIENCE

Year

2025

Set

Set 5

Other Years — SOCIAL SCIENCE

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2024 Set-2

2024 Set-3

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2025 Set-1

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