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previous-year-question-paper-2025-set-2

QUESTION PAPER

2025 BOARD EXAM

CBSE CLASS 10 SOCIAL SCIENCE Board Paper 2025 — Set 2

2025

SOCIAL SCIENCE

CLASS 10

CBSE EXAMINATION PAPER-2025 SOCIAL SCIENCE

CBSE EXAMINATION PAPER-2025

SOCIAL SCIENCE

(Solved)

Time allowed : 3 hours

Maximum Marks : 88

General Instructions :

Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :

  1. This question paper contains 42 questions. All questions are compulsory.
  2. This question paper is divided into 5 sections.
  3. Section A – questions number 1 to 3 are case based questions
  4. Section B – questions number 4 to 23 are multiple choice questions
  5. Section C – questions number 24 to 28 are very short answer
  6. Section D – questions number 29 to 34 are short answer
  7. Section E – questions number 35 to 42 are long answer
  8. There is no overall choice given in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions.
  9. Use of calculator is NOT allowed.

Section A

Question 1. Print Culture and the French Revolution Many historians have argued that print culture created the conditions within which French Revolution occurred. Some arguments have been usually put forward in this context. First : print popularised the ideas of the Enlightenment thinkers. Collectively, their writings provided a critical commentary on tradition, superstition and despotism. They argued for the rule of reason rather than custom, and demanded that everything be judged through the application of reason and rationality. They attacked the sacred authority of the Church and the despotic power of the state, thus eroding the legitimacy of a social order based on tradition. The writings of Voltaire and Rousseau were read widely; and those who read these books saw the world through new eyes, eyes that were questioning, critical and rational. Second : print created a new culture of dialogue and debate. All values, norms and institutions were re-evaluated and discussed by a public that had become aware of the power of reason, and recognised the need to question existing ideas and beliefs. Within this public culture, new ideas of social revolution came into being.

(1) What impact did the ideas of Enlightenment thinkers have on society?

[1 Marks]

(2) How did print culture contribute to the social revolution in France?

[2 Marks]

(3) How did print culture affect religion in France?

[1 Marks]
Question 2. Decentralisation in India The need for decentralisation was recognised in our Constitution. Since then, there have been several attempts to decentralise power to the level of villages and towns. Panchayats in villages and municipalities in urban areas were set up in all the States. But these were directly under the control of state governments. Elections to these local governments were not held regularly. Local governments did not have any powers or resources of their own. Thus, there was very little decentralisation in effective terms. A major step towards decentralisation was taken in 1992. The Constitution was amended to make the third-tier of democracy more powerful and effective.

(1) At how many levels has decentralisation of power been done in the Indian Constitution?

[1 Marks]

(2) Explain the role of local self-government in solving problems.

[1 Marks]

(3)

"Local government is the best way to realise one important principle of democracy,namely local self-government."Explain the statement.

[2 Marks]
Question 3.

(a) Two places A and B have been marked on the given political outline map of India (on page 27). Identify them with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them :

(1)

The place where the session of Indian National Congress was held in December 1927.

[1 Marks]

(2)

The place where Jallianwala Bagh incident took place

[1 Marks]

(3)

Note : The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 37 (a).

Name the place where the session of Indian National Congress was held in December 1927.

[1 Marks]

(4)

On the same political outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols :

Eastern terminal station of the East-West Corridor

[1 Marks]

(5)

Name the place where Jallianwala Bagh incident took place.

[1 Marks]

(6)

Nuclear power plant located in Uttar Pradesh

[1 Marks]

(7)

Leading state in coffee production

[1 Marks]

(8)

Major sea port located in Odisha

[1 Marks]

(9)

Name the leading state in coffee production

[1 Marks]

(10)

Name the place where nuclear power plant is located in Uttar Pradesh

[1 Marks]

(11)

Note : The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 37 (b).

(b) Attempt any three questions.

(i) Name the eastern terminal station of the East-West

Corridor.

[1 Marks]

(12)

Name the place where a major sea port is located in Odisha.

[1 Marks]

Section B

Question 4.

'Potato famine' was related to which of the following countries ?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Ireland
  • (B) Finland
  • (C) Scotland
  • (D) England
Question 5.

Arrange the following events in chronological order and choose the correct option:

I. Defeat of Napoleon in the better of Leipzig

II. Beginning of struggle for Greek independence

III. Formation of customs union Zollverein

IV. Signing of Treaty of Vienna

[1 Marks]
  • (A) I, II, III, IV
  • (B) II, I, III, IV
  • (C) I, IV, II, III
  • (D) II, I, IV, III
Question 6.

In the mid-16th century, diseases like smallpox reached America through which of the following?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Portuguese sailors
  • (B) British tourists
  • (C) French merchants
  • (D) Spanish soldiers
Question 7.

Read the following characteristics of Korea carefully and choose the correct option:

I. It is one of the oldest existing printed books in the world.

II It contains the main beliefs of Christianity.

III Its second volume is available in the National Library of France.

IV. It was inscribed on the UNESCO Memory of the World Register in

2001.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Only I, II and III are correct.
  • (B) Only I, III and IV are correct.
  • (C) Only II,IIIand IV are correct.
  • (D) Only I, II and IV are correct.
Question 8. Choose the correctly matched pair from the following:
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Corbett National Park - Himachal Pradesh
  • (B) Bandhavgarh National Park - Rajasthan
  • (C) Manas Tiger Reserve - Assam
  • (D) Periyar Tiger Reserve - Tamil Nadu
Question 9.

Which of the following characteristics of the Indian Wild Life (Protection) Act are correct? Choose the most appropriate option.

I. To make provisions for habitat for wild animals.

II. To publish list of protected species.

III. To ban hunting to save endangered species.

IV. To include important subjects like forests and wildlife in the Union

List.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Only I, II and III are correct.
  • (B) Only I, II and IV are correct.
  • (C) Only II, III and IV are correct.
  • (D) Only I, III and IV are correct.
Question 10.

Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option:

[1 Marks]
  • (A) a-ii,b-iii,c-i,d-iv
  • (B) a-iii, b-iv , c-i, d-ii
  • (C) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
  • (D) a-ii, b-iii , c-iv, d-i
Question 11. Choose the correct option of the states that have been majorly benefitted by the Sardar Sarovar Dam.
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Rajasthan
  • (B) Rajasthan, Gujarat, Punjab and Haryana
  • (C) Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Karnataka and Chhattisgarh
  • (D) Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Telangana and Andhra Pradesh
Question 12.

Swapna is a small farmer. Swapna wants to cultivate cotton. What kind of geographical conditions will be suitable for this?Choose the most

appropriate option.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Black soil, High rainfall, Low temperature and Moderate sunshine
  • (B) Laterite soil, Light rainfall, High temperature and Moderate sunshine
  • (C) Black soil, Light rainfall, High temperature and Bright sunshine
  • (D) Laterite soil, Moderate rainfall, Low temperature and Bright sunshine
Question 13.

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements and choose the correct option:

Assertion (A) : India has enormous possibilities of production of solar

energy.

Reason (R) : Most of the land area of India falls under the cold zone.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (B) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
  • (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  • (D) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Question 14.

Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option:

[1 Marks]
  • (A) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
  • (B) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
  • (C) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
  • (D) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
Question 15. Which one of the following organisations has its headquarters in Brussels?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) United Nations Organisation
  • (B) European Union
  • (C) Non-Alignment Movement
  • (D) South Asian Association for Regional Co-operation
Question 16.

Which of the following countries is an example of sharing power between the national and state governments to account for internal diversity?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Switzerland
  • (B) Belgium
  • (C) United States of America
  • (D) Australia
Question 17. Choose the correctly matched pair from the following:
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Maharashtrawadi Gomantak Party - Goa
  • (B) Janata Dal (Secular) - Bihar
  • (C) Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam - Andhra Pradesh
  • (D) All India Forward Bloc - Punjab
Question 18.

Study the following table related to World Human Development Index and answer the question that follows:

Which one of the following countries has the lowest rank in 'Human Development Index' ?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Pakistan
  • (B) India
  • (C) Nepal
  • (D) Myanmar
Question 19. Choose the correct option to fill in the blank. The total value of all final goods and services produced within a country in a particular year is called __________.
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Per Capita Income
  • (B) Per Capita Production
  • (C) Gross National Income
  • (D) Gross Domestic Production
Question 20.

Look at the given picture and answer the question that follows: The work being done in the picture falls under which sector of the economy?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Secondary
  • (B) Quaternary
  • (C) Primary
  • (D) Tertiary
Question 21.

Rakhi has done an economic survey of her area. The survey has revealed

that people earn their livelihood by doing different jobs. The table

prepared by Rakhi for this is given below. Study the table carefully and answer the question that follows :

How many people are working in the organised sector ?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) 380
  • (B) 140
  • (C) 210
  • (D) 320
Question 22.

Arrange the following sources of credit in the most to least order to meet the credit requirement of rural households in India and choose the correct option I. Government II. Cooperative Banks and Societies III. Moneylenders IV. Relatives and friends

[1 Marks]
  • (A) III, II, I, IV
  • (B) I, III, II, IV
  • (C) I, III, IV, II
  • (D) III, II, IV, I
Question 23.

Two statements I and II are given below. Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option : 1 Statement I : Information and communication technology stimulate the process of globalisation.Statement II : It is used to contact each other, receive information instantly and communicate with remote areas.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect.
  • (B) Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct.
  • (C) Both statements I and II are correct, but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I.
  • (D) Both statements I and II are correct and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I.

Section C

Question 24. How did reinterpretation of history become a means of creating a sense of nationalism by the end of the 19th century in India? Explain.
[2 Marks]
Question 25. How did symbols and icons contribute to create a feeling of nationalism among the people in the national movement of India? Explain.
[2 Marks]
Question 26. Why is planning necessary for judicious use of resources? Explain.
[2 Marks]
Question 27.

Describe any two provisions made in the Constitution to establish the model of 'secular governance'in india.

[2 Marks]
Question 28.

"Globalisation is the process of rapid integration and interconnection between countries." Explain the statement with examples.

[2 Marks]

Section D

Question 29. Why did Mahatma Gandhi decide to withdraw the Non-Cooperation Movement? Analyse any three reasons.
[3 Marks]
Question 30.

Read the story of Rinjha and answer the question that follows :

Rinjha lived with her family in a small village at the outskirts of Diphu in Assam. She enjoys watching her family members clearing, slashing and burning a patch of land for cultivation. She often helps them in irrigating the fields with water running through a bamboo canal from the

nearby spring. She loves the surroundings and wants to stay here as long as she can, but this little girl has no idea about the declining fertility of the soil and her family's search for a fresh patch of land in the next season.

Suggest any three measures to Rinjha so that the fertility of the soil of her fields remains intact for a long time.

[3 Marks]
Question 31.

"The government measures gradually increased the felling of alienation among the Sri Lankan Tamils."Explain the statement.

[3 Marks]
Question 32.

Describe three main functions of political parties.

[3 Marks]
Question 33.

Describe three major challenges faced by the political parties in India.

[3 Marks]
Question 34.

Analyse the problem of underemployment in agriculture sector in India.

[3 Marks]

Section E

Question 35. How did the French Revolution spread the spirit of nationalism in Europe? Explain with suitable arguments.
[5 Marks]
Question 36. How did the Greek freedom struggle arouse nationalist sentiments in Europe? Explain with suitable arguments.
[5 Marks]
Question 37. Explain the role of industries in increasing air pollution and suggest measures to control it.
[5 Marks]
Question 38.

Explain the measure taken by 'National Thermal Power Corporation' to prevent environmental degradation.

[5 Marks]
Question 39. How is democracy better than other types of government? Analyse.
[5 Marks]
Question 40. Analyse the role of democracy in reducing inequality and poverty.
[5 Marks]
Question 41. How is income an important factor in assessing the development of a country? Mention the classification done by the World Bank.
[5 Marks]
Question 42. How has the overuse of underground water created a serious crisis in many parts of India? Explain with examples in the context of sustainable development.
[5 Marks]

Paper Details

CBSE Board Exam 2025

Class

CLASS 10

Subject

SOCIAL SCIENCE

Year

2025

Set

Set 2

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2024 Set-1

2024 Set-2

2024 Set-3

2024 Set-4

2024 Set-5

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