social-science/
previous-year-question-paper-2025-set-1

SOLUTIONS

2025 BOARD EXAM

CBSE CLASS 10 SOCIAL SCIENCE Board Paper 2025 — Set 1

2025

SOCIAL SCIENCE

CLASS 10

CBSE EXAMINATION SOLVED PAPER-2025 SOCIAL SCIENCE

CBSE EXAMINATION PAPER-2025

SOCIAL SCIENCE

(Solved)

Time allowed : 3 hours

Maximum Marks : 86

General Instructions :

Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :

  1. This question paper contains 42 questions. All questions are compulsory.
  2. This question paper is divided into 5 sections.
  3. Section A – questions number 1 to 3 are case based questions
  4. Section B – questions number 4 to 24 are multiple choice questions
  5. Section C – questions number 25 to 29 are very short answer
  6. Section D – questions number 30 to 34 are short answer
  7. Section E – questions number 35 to 42 are long answer
  8. There is no overall choice given in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions.
  9. Use of calculator is NOT allowed.

Section A

Question 1. An Experiment in Brazil. A city called Porto Alegre in Brazil has carried out an extraordinary experiment in combining decentralisation with participative democracy. The city has set up a parallel organisation operating alongside the municipal council, enabling local inhabitants to take real decisions for their city. The nearly 13 lakh people in this city get to participate in making the budget for their own city. The city is divided into many sectors or what we call wards. Each sector has a meeting, like that of the gram sabha, in which anyone living in that area can participate. There are some meetings to discuss issues that affect the entire city. Any citizen of the city can participate in those meetings. The budget of the city is discussed in these meetings. The proposals are put to the municipality that takes a final decision about it.

(1) In the context of separation of powers, the given example defines which type of government?

[1 Marks]
Answer: The example defines a decentralized participative democracy, where local inhabitants actively participate in decision-making, particularly in budgeting for their city.
Key Points: decentralized government-participative democracy-local self-government

(2) Explain the meaning of participatory democracy.

[1 Marks]
Answer: Participatory democracy is a system of governance where citizens have the opportunity to actively engage in decision-making processes that affect their lives. It emphasizes local self-government, allowing communities to take charge of their own development and participate in discussions about important matters, such as the city budget. In Porto Alegre, Brazil, this concept is exemplified as local inhabitants gather in wards to discuss and decide on the city budget collaboratively.
Key Points: citizen engagement-local self-government-budget participation

(3) Describe the structure of the system in India which is almost similar to the above example of Brazil.

[2 Marks]
Answer: The structure of local government in India, which resembles the participative democracy seen in Porto Alegre, consists of a three-tier system in rural areas, including gram panchayats at the village level, panchayat samitis at the block level, and zila parishads at the district level. This system allows citizens to participate directly in decision-making processes through elections and local assemblies, effectively giving them a voice in managing their local issues and development plans. Similarly, urban areas contain various municipal bodies that carry out functions affecting citizens' lives, which are also governed by elected representatives, allowing for decentralized governance and participatory democracy.
Key Points: Three-tier system in rural areas; Panchayati Raj allows direct citizen participation; Elected representatives in urban local bodies.
Question 2. Loans From Cooperatives. Besides banks, the other major source of cheap credit in rural areas are the cooperative societies (or cooperatives). Members of a cooperative pool their resources for cooperation in certain areas. There are several types of cooperatives possible such as farmers cooperatives, weavers cooperatives, industrial workers cooperatives, etc. Krishak Cooperative functions in a village not very far away from Sonpur. It has 2300 farmers as members. It accepts deposits from its members. With these deposits as collateral, the Cooperative has obtained a large loan from the bank. These funds are used to provide loans to members. Once these loans are repaid, another round of lending can take place. Krishak Cooperative provides loans for the purchase of agricultural implements, loans for cultivation and agricultural trade, fishery loans, loans for construction of houses and for a variety of other expenses.

(1) Cooperative societies come under which source of credit?

[1 Marks]
Answer: Cooperative societies come under the source of credit referred to as 'formal credit arrangements', distinct from informal sector loans. They provide cheaper credit options to members, as evidenced by the Krishak Cooperative which supports farmers by lending funds obtained from member deposits and bank loans.
Key Points: Cooperative societies-formal credit source-affordable loans to members

(2) Mention any two sources of capital of cooperative societies.

[1 Marks]
Answer: One source of capital for cooperative societies is the deposits made by their members. Another source is the loans obtained from banks, which are secured using these deposits as collateral.
Key Points: Deposits from members - Loans from banks

(3) Explain the role of cooperative societies in increasing the income of farmers.

[2 Marks]
Answer: Cooperative societies, such as the Krishak Cooperative, play a vital role in enhancing the income of farmers. They provide access to affordable credit by pooling members' resources and obtaining loans from banks, which are then distributed to farmers for various agricultural needs. For instance, loans can be used to purchase essential agricultural implements and support cultivation, thereby increasing productivity. Furthermore, by offering loans for additional activities like fishery and construction, cooperatives help diversify farmers' income sources. This structured financial support allows farmers to invest in their operations, leading to improved yields and, ultimately, higher incomes.
Key Points: Cooperative societies provide affordable credit; loans support agricultural investments; increased productivity leads to higher farmer income.
Question 3.

Two places 'A' and 'B' have been marked on the given political outline map of India (on page 27).Identify them with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them :

(1)

The place where the session of Indian National Congress was held in 1920.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The session of the Indian National Congress in 1920 was held in Nagpur.
Key Points: Nagpur

(2)

(b) On the same political outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols :

(i) Leading state in production of Jute

[1 Marks]
Answer: The leading state in the production of jute in India is West Bengal. On the political outline map of India, West Bengal can be located in the eastern part, and it can be labeled with a suitable symbol such as a small jute plant icon.
Key Points: West Bengal - leading jute producing state - location in eastern India

(3)

Note : The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 37 (a).

(a) (i) Name the place where the session of Indian National Congress was held in 1920.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The session of the Indian National Congress in 1920 was held in Nagpur.
Key Points: Nagpur

(4)

The place where Gandhiji started Dandi March.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The place where Gandhiji started the Dandi March is 'Dandi'.
Key Points: Dandi-Gandhi-Salt March

(5)

(ii) Atomic Power Plant located in Gujarat

[1 Marks]
Answer: The Atomic Power Plant located in Gujarat is the Kakrapar Atomic Power Station.
Key Points: Kakrapar Atomic Power Station-Gujarat-Nuclear Energy

(6)

(iii) Name the place where an Iron and Steel Plant is located in Jharkhand.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The place where an Iron and Steel Plant is located in Jharkhand is Jamshedpur.
Key Points: Jharkhand-iron and steel plant-location-Jamshedpur

(7)

(iv) Sri Guru Ram Das Jee International Airport

[1 Marks]
Answer: The correct identification for the location marked 'A' on the map is Sri Guru Ram Das Jee International Airport, which is located in Amritsar, Punjab.
Key Points: Identify the airport-Amritsar-Punjab

(8)

(iii) Iron and Steel Plant located in Jharkhand

[1 Marks]
Answer: The Iron and Steel Plant located in Jharkhand is 'Bokaro Steel Plant'.
Key Points: Jharkhand-Bokaro Steel Plant-iron and steel industry

(9)

Note : The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 37 (b).

(b) Attempt any three questions.

(i) Name the leading state in production of Jute

[1 Marks]
Answer: The leading state in the production of Jute is West Bengal.
Key Points: West Bengal is the largest producer of Jute in India.

(10)

Name the place where Sri Guru Ram Das Jee International Airport is located.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The Sri Guru Ram Das Jee International Airport is located in Amritsar, Punjab.
Key Points: Sri Guru Ram Das Jee International Airport; Amritsar; Punjab

(11)

Name the place where an Atomic Power Plant is located in Gujrat

[1 Marks]
Answer: The place where an Atomic Power Plant is located in Gujarat is Kakrapar.
Key Points: Kakrapar-Atomic Power Plant-Gujarat

(12)

Name the place where Gandhiji started Dandi March

[1 Marks]
Answer: The place where Gandhiji started the Dandi March is 'Sabarmati Ashram'.
Key Points: Sabarmati Ashram-Dandi March-1930

Section B

Question 4.

Which one of the following regions became a part of unified Italy in 1866?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Venetia
  • (B) Sicily
  • (C) Papal State
  • (D) Sardinia-Piedmont
Explanation:

The correct answer is 'Venetia'. According to the historical context, Venetia joined unified Italy in 1866 after the defeat of the Austrians, following the tactical alliances and victories maneuvered by leaders like Cavour. This was part of the larger process of unification that saw various regions of Italy coming together to form a single nation.

Question 5.

Read the following reasons of migration of people from Europe to America till the 19th century and choose the correct option:I.Poverty and hungerII.Slaves for saleIII.Wide spread of diseasesIV.Religious conflicts and persecution

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Only I, II and III are correct.
  • (B) Only I, II and IV are correct.
  • (C) Only II, III and IV are correct.
  • (D) Only I, III and IV are correct.
Explanation: The correct option is 'Only I, III and IV are correct.' Poverty and hunger were prevalent in Europe, leading many to migrate. Religious conflicts and persecution were also significant factors for migration. While diseases were widespread, the context indicates that smallpox was not the main reason for migration. Therefore, options II (Slaves for sale) is not a valid reason in this context.
Question 6.

The author of 'Book of Marvels' is:

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Marco Polo
  • (B) Columbus
  • (C) Vasco da Gama
  • (D) Alfred Crosby
Explanation: The correct answer is Marco Polo, as he is known for his travels to Asia, particularly China. The context refers to the 'Book of Marvels' which is attributed to him, highlighting his experiences and adventures during his travels. The other options, Columbus, Alfred Crosby, and Vasco da Gama, do not belong to this work.
Question 7. Assume you are doing research on 15th century print culture. Which of the following would be the most significant advantage for your research?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Easier access to rare manuscripts
  • (B) Reduced need for libraries
  • (C) Increase in the ability to copy text by hand
  • (D) Increased speed and accuracy of print
Explanation: The correct option is 'Increased speed and accuracy of print.' This is because the advent of the printing press drastically reduced the time and labor required for producing books, allowing for quicker reproduction of texts and ensuring more accurate copies compared to the labor-intensive and error-prone process of hand-copying manuscripts.
Question 8.

Arrange the following categories of forests in India from the largest to the smallest in terms of area and choose the correct option:

I.Reserved

II.Protected

III. Unclassed

[1 Marks]
  • (A) III, II, I
  • (B) III,I,II
  • (C) II,III,I
  • (D) I, II, III
Explanation:

The correct order of the categories of forests in India by area is III, II, I. Reserved forests cover more than half of the total forest land, making them the largest category. Protected forests account for almost one-third of the total area, placing them second. Unclassed forests, which include various other forests and wastelands, represent the smallest area.

Question 9.

'Sariska Tiger Reserve' is located in which on of the following states?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Rajasthan
  • (B) Maharashtra
  • (C) Uttar Pradesh
  • (D) Madhya Pradesh
Explanation:

The correct answer is Rajasthan, as the context clearly mentions Sariska Wildlife Sanctuary in Rajasthan and describes the involvement of villagers in protecting habitats there.

Question 10.

Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option:

[1 Marks]
  • (A) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
  • (B) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
  • (C) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
  • (D) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii
Explanation:

The correct option is a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv based on the context provided, which details various criteria for comparison based on average monthly incomes and economic activities of the countries. Each element in Column I corresponds accurately with the elements in Column II based on the specified parameters.

Question 11.

Choose the correct option regarding major states involved in the

Krishna Godavari issue :

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu
  • (B) Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
  • (C) Jharkhand, Andhra Pradesh and Odisha
  • (D) Gujarat, Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh
Explanation:

The correct option is 'Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh' because the Krishna-Godavari dispute arises due to objections from the governments of Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh regarding water diversion by the Maharashtra government, impacting the water flow and subsequently agriculture and industry in these states.

Question 12.

Imagine you are travelling from Delhi to Chandigarh to attend a wedding, by road in January. Which of the following crops will you notice prominently in the fields during the journey?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Jowar
  • (B) Maize
  • (C) Wheat
  • (D) Paddy
Explanation:

Wheat is the correct answer because it is a rabi crop that is sown in winter (October to December) and harvested in summer (April to June). Since the journey takes place in January, wheat crops would be prominently visible in the fields of Punjab and Haryana, regions known for their wheat production.

Question 13.

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option:

Assertion (A) : Minerals are an indispensable part of our lives.

Reason (R) : All living things need minerals.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (B) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  • (C) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
  • (D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Explanation:

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). Minerals are indeed essential for life, as stated in the context. The context explicitly indicates that life processes cannot occur without minerals, making them indispensable, and confirms that all living organisms require minerals, thus justifying the assertion.

Question 14.

Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option :

[1 Marks]
  • (A) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
  • (B) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
  • (C) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
  • (D) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
Explanation:

The correct option is 'a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii' as it accurately matches the monthly incomes of citizens from Country A and Country B with their corresponding values. In the context given, we need to appropriately connect the income values listed in both columns.

Question 15.

Belgium solved its problem of majoritarianism by strengthening which of

the following types of government ?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Parliamentary
  • (B) Presidential
  • (C) Federal
  • (D) Unitary
Explanation:

The correct answer is 'Federal'. Belgium shifted from a unitary government to a federal form of government, which allows power to be divided between the central authority and various regional governments. This change was crucial in addressing the problem of majoritarianism by ensuring that both linguistic communities had equal representation and autonomy in decision-making.

Question 16.

Choose the correctly matched pair from the following :

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Canada- Unitary
  • (B) Spain - Federal
  • (C) Australia - Unitary
  • (D) Bolivia - Federal
Explanation:

The correct option is 'Bolivia - Federal'. This is accurate because Bolivia is known to have a federal system of government where powers are divided between the central government and various regional governments, similar to Spain, which is also federal. In contrast, Canada and Australia are examples of federal countries, but they are not correctly matched as 'unitary'. Therefore, the only correct pair in the provided options is Bolivia, which is indeed a federal state.

Question 17.

Which of the following are the main components of a political party ?

Choose the correct option :I.LeadersII.Active membersIII.Followers IV.Pressure groups

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Only I, II and IV are correct.
  • (B) Only I, II and III are correct.
  • (C) Only II, III and IV are correct.
  • (D) Only I, III and IV are correct.
Explanation: The correct answer is 'Only I, II and III are correct.' A political party comprises three key components: the leaders, active members, and followers. Pressure groups, while related, are not considered a main component of a political party per the context provided.
Question 18.

Study the following table related to 'World Human Development Index' and answer the question given below:

Amongst the given countries, which one of the following countries has the highest rank in 'Human Development Index' ?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Pakistan
  • (B) India
  • (C) Nepal
  • (D) Myanmar
Explanation:

The lower the HDI rank number, The higher the rank in HDI. Comparing the ranks, 130(India) is the lowest number among the given countries.

Therefore, India has the highest rank in the HDI among the listed countries.

Question 19.

'X' lives in a town.He cultivates flowers along with animal husbandry. the work of 'X' will fall under which sector of the economy?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Tertiary
  • (B) Secondary
  • (C) Quaternary
  • (D) Primary
Explanation: The correct answer is 'Primary' sector. This is because 'X' is involved in activities related to agriculture (cultivating flowers) and animal husbandry, both of which are examples of primary economic activities that involve the extraction and production of natural resources.
Question 20.

Look at the given picture and answer the question that follow :

The work being done in the picture falls under which sector of the economy ?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Secondary
  • (B) Quaternary
  • (C) Tertiary
  • (D) Primary
Explanation:

Based on the provided context, the activities listed such as construction, manufacturing, and electricity production fall under the Secondary sector, as these involve processing raw materials into finished products.

Question 21.

Note : The following question is for the Visually Impaired Candidates only,

in lieu of Q. No. 17.

The work of which of the following comes in the secondary sector of the

economy ?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Bee-keeper
  • (B) Moneylender
  • (C) Fisherman
  • (D) Basket weaver
Explanation:

The correct option is 'Basket weaver' because the secondary sector involves manufacturing and processing activities. Weaving baskets requires manufacturing skills, thereby categorizing it under the secondary sector, unlike the activities of a fisherman, moneylender, or bee-keeper, which belong to the primary or tertiary sectors.

Question 22.

Why does it become difficult for farmers in rural areas to take loans from government banks ? Read the following reasons and choose the most appropriate option :I. Lack of collateral II. Complicated procedure III. Higher cost of borrowing IV. Lack of awareness

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Only I, II and III are correct.
  • (B) Only II, III and IV are correct.
  • (C) Only I, III and IV are correct.
  • (D) Only I, II and IV are correct.
Explanation:

The correct option is 'Only I, II and IV are correct.' Farmers often struggle to provide collateral, which is necessary for securing bank loans. Additionally, the procedures to obtain loans can be complicated, making it hard for them to navigate. Lastly, a lack of awareness about the loan process and requirements further prevents them from accessing these funds. Although higher costs of borrowing can be a concern, it is not explicitly mentioned as a crucial reason in the provided context.

Question 23.

Which of the following groups in urban India depend on informal sources

to meet their credit needs ?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Poor households
  • (B) Both poor households and households with few assets
  • (C) Both well-off households and households with few assets
  • (D) Households with few assets
Explanation: The correct answer is 'Poor households'. According to the context, poor households in urban areas are primarily reliant on informal sources of credit, as they often lack access to formal banking services that wealthier households can utilize. The text mentions that the poor have to depend on informal sources while richer households predominantly receive credit from formal sources.
Question 24.

Two statements I and II are given below. Read both the statements

carefully and choose the correct option : 1

Statement I : Rapid improvement in technology has been one major

factor to stimulate the globalisation process.

Statement II : This has made much faster delivery of goods across long

distances possible at lower costs.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Both statements I and II are correct and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I.
  • (B) Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct.
  • (C) Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect.
  • (D) Both statements I and II are correct, but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I.
Explanation: Both statements I and II are correct, and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I. The context states that rapid improvements in technology have indeed stimulated globalisation, particularly through advancements in transportation that allow for faster and cheaper delivery of goods across great distances.

Section C

Question 25.

Explain the role of anti-colonial movement in the rise of 'Modern Nationalism' in India .

[2 Marks]
Answer: The anti-colonial movement was pivotal in shaping modern nationalism in India. It united diverse groups against British rule, fostering a collective Indian identity. Inspired by the 1857 revolt, which was seen as the 'First War of Independence', the movement encouraged people to envision a nation that belonged to all Indians, transcending caste, creed, and gender. This nationalism was rooted in the struggle for autonomy and self-determination, leading to a unified demand for independence.
Question 26.

why did Gandhiji say'satyagraha is pure soul- force'? Explain by giving two arguments.

[2 Marks]
Answer: Gandhiji referred to satyagraha as 'pure soul-force' because it is rooted in truth and non-violence. Firstly, it emphasizes the pursuit of truth, making the struggle morally justified. This aligns with the belief that love and knowledge informed by truth empower individuals. Secondly, satyagraha promotes non-violence, indicating that a genuine fight against injustice does not require physical aggression or hatred towards adversaries. Instead, it is a conscious decision to uphold justice through inner strength.
Question 27.

Explain any two problems of the 'global ecology' arising due to indiscriminate use of resources.

[2 Marks]
Answer: Indiscriminate use of resources results in several ecological problems. Firstly, global warming has escalated due to the excessive burning of fossil fuels, leading to climate change and extreme weather events. Secondly, the depletion of the ozone layer has occurred due to the release of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) and other harmful chemicals, exposing the Earth to harmful ultraviolet radiation. Both issues threaten biodiversity and human health.
Question 28.

Suggest any two measures to remove gender inequality.

[2 Marks]
Answer: To remove gender inequality, one measure is to enforce a mandate for political parties to allocate at least one-third of their tickets to women candidates. This will increase women's representation in politics. Another measure is the implementation of state funding for elections, providing financial support to political parties for their election expenses. This would enable more women to campaign effectively and participate in decision-making bodies, thereby promoting gender equality.
Question 29.

How did the process of liberalisation initiated in India in the 1990s,

promote globalisation ? Explain.

[2 Marks]
Answer: The liberalisation process in India during the 1990s removed government restrictions on trade and investment, allowing businesses greater freedom to operate. This reduction in barriers attracted foreign investment, as multinational corporations sought cheaper production locations. The World Trade Organisation (WTO) supported these changes by advocating for free trade, which further integrated India into the global economy. Ultimately, liberalisation facilitated increased foreign trade and investment, promoting globalisation in India.

Section D

Question 30.

"Tribal peasants interpreted the message pf Mahatma Gandhi and the idea of 'Swaraj in yet another way ."Explain the statement in the context of Non- Cooperation Movement.

[3 Marks]
Answer: Tribal peasants viewed Mahatma Gandhi's message and the concept of 'Swaraj' through their unique lens. They interpreted 'non-cooperation' not merely as a refusal to comply with colonial rule, but as an assertion of their rights and autonomy. In the Gudem Hills of Andhra, for example, tribal peasants successfully demanded the eviction of tenants, believing that Gandhiji had supported their claim. Their activism often diverged from Gandhi's non-violent principles, as seen in their fierce pursuit of freedom, which included more radical protests. Though Gandhi's ideals emphasized restraint, the tribal communities harnessed his name to validate their struggles and aspirations. Their understanding of freedom also encompassed the desire for mobility and connection to their village origins, as illustrated by plantation workers in Assam. Overall, while aligning with the larger movement, tribal peasants sought localized solutions to their grievances, demonstrating a unique interpretation of Gandhian philosophy.
Question 31. Explain the importance of political parties in democracy.
[3 Marks]
Answer: Political parties are integral to a functioning democracy as they serve multiple essential roles within the political system. Firstly, they provide a platform for political participation, allowing citizens to engage in the electoral process and advocate for their interests. Additionally, political parties contest elections, which is a fundamental aspect of democratic governance, as they present candidates for public office, thereby facilitating representation. Moreover, parties articulate and aggregate diverse interests and opinions, helping to create a cohesive policy framework. They also contribute to accountability by enabling voters to assess the performance of elected officials and make informed choices in future elections. Lastly, political parties often act as a bridge between the government and the governed, ensuring that the electorate’s voice is heard in policy-making processes. Thus, the existence of political parties is crucial for the vitality and sustainability of democratic governance.
Question 32. Why did India adopt the multiparty system? Explain with suitable arguments.
[3 Marks]
Answer: India adopted a multiparty system primarily due to its vast social and geographical diversity. A two or three-party system would be inadequate to represent the multitude of interests and opinions prevalent across the country. The multiparty system allows various political entities to collaborate, forming coalitions to govern. This ensures that multiple voices are heard and represented, fostering inclusion in democracy. For instance, the formation of alliances like the National Democratic Alliance and the United Progressive Alliance during elections reflects this diversity, thus strengthening federalism and enhancing political representation.
Question 33. Explain the difference between public and private sector of Indian economy with example.
[3 Marks]
Answer: The Indian economy is divided into the public and private sectors based on ownership. The public sector is owned and operated by the government, with the aim of providing services and generating economic growth for the nation. Examples include the Indian Railways and Hindustan Aeronautics Limited. In contrast, the private sector is owned by individuals or groups seeking profit. Notable examples are Tata Iron and Steel Company (TISCO) and Reliance Industries Limited. While private sector industries focus on profit generation, public sector industries prioritize service delivery and employment generation. Additionally, a joint sector exists where both government and private entities collaborate, as seen with Oil India Ltd.
Question 34.

'That democratic system of government is considered good in which maximum number of citizens are made stakeholders in political power.'

Explain the statement with suitable arguments.

[3 Marks]
Answer: The statement highlights the essence of democracy, where citizen participation is paramount. A good democratic system empowers the maximum number of citizens as stakeholders in political power, leading to a government that reflects the will and needs of the people. This involvement fosters accountability and responsiveness from elected officials, as they must cater to a broader electorate. Moreover, when citizens have a stake, it promotes inclusivity and respect for diverse viewpoints, ensuring governance that is legitimate and just. Democracies also tend to be more transparent and less corrupt, contributing to effective governance. Ultimately, a government that includes its citizens in power dynamics is more likely to cultivate a sense of belonging, trust, and responsibility among the populace.

Section E

Question 35.

Analyse the significance of the 'Napoleonic Code' in the making the administrative rational and efficient.

[5 Marks]
Answer: The Napoleonic Code, established in 1804, was pivotal in rationalizing and streamlining administration across France and territories under its control. It abolished feudal privileges and established equality before the law, ensuring that all individuals were subject to the same legal standards. This Code facilitated property rights and curtailed arbitrary administrative powers that had characterized earlier regimes. Additionally, it enabled a simplified administrative framework that improved governance by eliminating guild restrictions and serfdom, thus fostering economic growth. Despite these improvements, the harsh imposition of increased taxation, censorship, and conscription caused resentment among the populace. Ultimately, while the Code was designed to rationalize administration, it highlighted the tension between administrative efficiency and political freedom, giving rise to significant public backlash against Napoleonic rule.
Question 36. How was liberalism allied to national unity in Europe in the early decades of the 19th century? Analyse.
[5 Marks]
Answer: In the early decades of the 19th century, liberalism and national unity in Europe were profoundly intertwined, particularly among the emerging middle classes. Liberalism, rooted in the desire for individual freedoms and equality before the law, sought to challenge autocratic regimes and promote representative governments. As countries like Germany and Italy sought unification, liberal nationalists advocated for constitutional governance alongside their quest for national identity. This alignment created a powerful synergy, as the struggle for national unity was often framed as a revolutionary movement against oppressive states. The liberal ideology emphasized political rights, civil liberties, and private property rights, which resonated with the aspirations of various ethnic groups striving for nationhood. Furthermore, liberal nationalists believed that unifying diverse groups under a constitutionally governed nation-state would empower individuals and promote broader participation in political life. However, post-1848, the connection between nationalism and liberalism began to shift, as conservative forces began co-opting national sentiments for their own agendas. Nonetheless, the early relationship between liberalism and national unity laid vital foundations for the modern nation-states of Europe.
Question 37.

"Manufacturing industries are considered the backbone of the economic development of a country."Justify the statement.

[5 Marks]
Answer: Manufacturing industries play a crucial role in the economic development of a country, acting as its backbone for various reasons. Firstly, they contribute to modernizing agriculture by providing necessary technologies and products, which in turn supports agricultural productivity. As a result, people shift from relying solely on agricultural income to gaining employment in secondary and tertiary sectors. Secondly, manufacturing boosts trade through the export of finished goods, generating foreign exchange and enhancing a nation’s economic strength. Additionally, it fosters development in tribal and backward areas by creating industrial opportunities. Countries that effectively convert raw materials into finished products tend to enjoy greater prosperity. For instance, India's textile industry not only adds significantly to industrial production but is also self-sufficient and contributes to employment and foreign exchange. Ultimately, manufacturing and agriculture work in tandem, enhancing each other’s productivity and ensuring comprehensive economic growth.
Question 38.

Agriculture and industriesbcomplement each other." Justify the statement.

[5 Marks]
Answer: The relationship between agriculture and industry is symbiotic, ensuring growth and sustainability in both sectors. Agriculture provides raw materials to various industries, particularly agro-based industries such as food processing, textiles, and pharmaceuticals. For instance, products like cotton from agriculture feed into the textile industry, enhancing its output and employment opportunities. Additionally, industries contribute to agriculture by providing essential inputs like fertilizers, pesticides, and irrigation equipment, which help increase yield and productivity. Moreover, advancements in technology and research in agricultural practices, often driven by industrial developments, improve food production. This interdependence fosters economic growth and stability, ensuring food security and supporting rural development. By boosting agricultural productivity, industries also create demand for raw materials and increase income for farmers, thereby enhancing their livelihood. Consequently, the harmonious interplay between these two sectors is vital for overall economic development, highlighting their complementary nature.
Question 39. Explain any five bases for assessing the outcomes of democracy.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Assessing the outcomes of democracy involves evaluating several key aspects. Firstly, the quality of government is crucial; a democratic government should function effectively, uphold the rule of law, and ensure accountability. Secondly, economic well-being is another critical metric; democracies typically seek to promote equitable economic growth and reduce poverty. Thirdly, the promotion of social equality allows diverse groups to participate equally in decision-making processes, thereby enhancing social cohesion. Fourthly, managing social differences is essential; democracies must address conflicts arising from ethnicity, religion, or other divides constructively. Finally, citizen participation is a fundamental aspect of democracy; active engagement of citizens in political processes not only strengthens democracy but also ensures that the government reflects public will. These bases provide a comprehensive framework for assessing how well a democracy fulfills its fundamental promises.
Question 40. Explain any five values of democracy.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Democracy embodies several core values essential for a functioning society. Firstly, it promotes equality by ensuring that all citizens have an equal say in political decisions, regardless of their social or economic status. Secondly, democracy guarantees freedom of expression, allowing individuals to voice their opinions and participate in governance without fear of repression. Thirdly, it upholds the importance of human rights, protecting individuals from state abuse and promoting dignity. Fourthly, democracy fosters accountability, where elected representatives are answerable to the citizens, ensuring transparency in governance. Finally, democracy encourages participation, motivating citizens to engage actively in political processes, leading to more informed and representative decision-making. Together, these values create a robust framework that not only empowers citizens but also enhances social cohesion and justice.
Question 41.

Recent evidence suggests that overuse of groundwater is becoming serious threat in many parts of the country. Evaluate the statement in the context of sustainability of development.

[5 Marks]
Answer: The overuse of groundwater in India poses a significant threat to sustainable development, particularly as nearly one-third of the country is depleting its reserves. Over the last 20 years, approximately 300 districts have experienced declines in water levels exceeding 4 meters, primarily due to excessive irrigation practices and urban expansion. Groundwater is vital for agriculture; however, its continuous extraction without replenishment jeopardizes not only crop yield but also agricultural sustainability. The destruction of environmental resources, such as soil fertility and aquifers, makes recovery difficult. Sustainable practices, including rainwater harvesting and efficient irrigation systems, are critical for mitigating this crisis. A balanced approach toward resource management can ensure food security, protect ecosystems, and promote the well-being of future generations. Therefore, development without overuse is possible by adopting sustainable practices and enhancing water conservation efforts.
Question 42.

"The development goals of different categories of people may differ. "Evaluate the statement.

[5 Marks]
Answer: The notion of development varies significantly among different individuals and social groups due to their unique aspirations and needs. For instance, a farmer might prioritize agricultural subsidies and water availability to ensure livelihood, while an urban professional may focus on job security and better infrastructure. These divergent needs arise from personal circumstances, socio-economic status, education, and cultural background. Moreover, specific groups such as women, children, and the elderly often have distinct goals related to their specific challenges. As we consider national development, policies must be inclusive, recognizing these differences and aiming for equitable growth. Development should not merely be measured in economic terms; it must reflect the diverse hopes and dreams of all individuals for a more harmonious society. This holistic approach enables everyone to contribute to and benefit from national progress.

Paper Details

CBSE Board Exam 2025

Class

CLASS 10

Subject

SOCIAL SCIENCE

Year

2025

Set

Set 1

Other Years — SOCIAL SCIENCE

2022 Set-1

2022 Set-2

2022 Set-3

2022 Set-4

2023 Set-1

2023 Set-2

2023 Set-3

2023 Set-4

2023 Set-5

2024 Set-1

2024 Set-2

2024 Set-3

2024 Set-4

2024 Set-5

2025 Set-1

2025 Set-2

2025 Set-3

2025 Set-4

2025 Set-5

2025 Set-6