social-science/
previous-year-question-paper-2025-set-3

SOLUTIONS

2025 BOARD EXAM

CBSE CLASS 10 SOCIAL SCIENCE Board Paper 2025 — Set 3

2025

SOCIAL SCIENCE

CLASS 10

CBSE EXAMINATION SOLVED PAPER-2025 SOCIAL SCIENCE

CBSE EXAMINATION PAPER-2025

SOCIAL SCIENCE

(Solved)

Time allowed : 3 hours

Maximum Marks : 88

General Instructions :

Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :

  1. This question paper contains 43 questions. All questions are compulsory.
  2. This question paper is divided into 5 sections.
  3. Section A – questions number 1 to 4 are case based questions
  4. Section B – questions number 5 to 24 are multiple choice questions
  5. Section C – questions number 25 to 29 are very short answer
  6. Section D – questions number 30 to 35 are short answer
  7. Section E – questions number 36 to 43 are long answer
  8. There is no overall choice given in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions.
  9. Use of calculator is NOT allowed.

Section A

Question 1. The Revolutionaries During the years following 1815, the fear of repression drove many liberal-nationalists underground. Secret societies sprang up in many European states to train revolutionaries and spread their ideas. To be revolutionary at this time meant a commitment to oppose monarchical forms that had been established after the Vienna Congress, and to fight for liberty and freedom. Most of these revolutionaries also saw the creation of nation-states as a necessary part of this struggle for freedom.

(1) Analyse the reasons for many liberal-nationalists going underground after 1815.

[2 Marks]
Answer: After 1815, many liberal-nationalists opted to go underground due to the fear of severe repression from the conservative regimes established after the Vienna Congress. The suppression of revolutionary ideas and the crackdown on dissent prompted these individuals to form secret societies, where they could safely train and organize without facing persecution. Moreover, the desire to overthrow monarchical rule and advocate for fundamental freedoms drove them to embrace secrecy as a necessary strategy to fight for the establishment of nation-states that would guarantee equal rights for all citizens.
Key Points: Fear of repression led to underground movement - Formation of secret societies for training and spreading ideas - Opposition to monarchical rule and advocacy for liberty

(2) Mention any one political demand of the liberals.

[1 Marks]
Answer: One political demand of the liberals was the freedom of the press, which they saw as essential for the expression of ideas and opposition to monarchical authority.
Key Points: freedom of the press; oppose monarchies; expression of ideas

(3) Mention the main cause for the rise of secret societies in European States.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The main cause for the rise of secret societies in European States was the fear of repression that drove many liberal-nationalists underground after 1815. They sought to oppose established monarchies and fight for liberty and freedom, leading to the formation of these societies to train revolutionaries and spread their revolutionary ideas.
Key Points: fear of repression, opposition to monarchies, training revolutionaries
Question 2. Iron Ore Iron ore is the basic mineral and the backbone of industrial development. India is endowed with fairly abundant resources of iron ore. India is rich in good quality iron ores. Magnetite is the finest iron ore with a very high content of iron up to 70 percent. It has excellent magnetic qualities, especially valuable in the electrical industry. Hematite ore is the most important industrial iron ore in terms of the quantity used, but has a slightly lower iron content than magnetite (50 - 60 percent). In 2018 - 19, almost the entire production of iron ore (97%) accrued from Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Karnataka and Jharkhand. The remaining production (3%) was from other states.

(1) Which is the most important industrial iron ore?

[1 Marks]
Answer: The most important industrial iron ore is hematite, as it is significant in terms of the quantity used in various industries.
Key Points: Hematite is the most important industrial iron ore; it has a lower iron content than magnetite (50-60%); it is significant for industrial usage.

(2) In which iron ore is the maximum iron content found?

[1 Marks]
Answer: The maximum iron content is found in magnetite, which has an iron content of up to 70 percent.
Key Points: Magnetite-70% iron content-Excellent magnetic qualities

(3)

"Iron ore is a basic mineral." support the statement.

[2 Marks]
Answer: Iron ore is considered a basic mineral as it is fundamental to industrial development and is essential for steel production. In India, iron ore resources are abundant and of high quality, with two primary types: magnetite, which has a high iron content of up to 70%, and hematite, which is used more widely despite having a slightly lower iron content of 50-60%. The steel industry, which is vital for infrastructure and manufacturing, heavily relies on iron ore, making it a backbone of industrial growth.
Key Points: Iron ore is essential for steel production - India has abundant and good quality iron ore - Magnetite and hematite are the main types of iron ore
Question 3. Organised Sector Kanta works in the organised sector. Organised sector covers those enterprises or places of work where the terms of employment are regular and therefore, people have assured work. They are registered by the government and have to follow its rules and regulations which are given in various laws such as the Factories Act, Minimum Wages Act, Payment of Gratuity Act, Shops and Establishments Act, etc. It is called Organised Sector because it has some formal processes and procedures. Some of these people may not be employed by anyone but may work on their own, but they too have to register themselves with the government and follow the rules and regulations.

(1) Mention any one feature of the working conditions of organised sector.

[1 Marks]
Answer: One key feature of the working conditions in the organised sector is that workers enjoy security of employment with assured work.
Key Points: Security of employment-Regular terms of employment-Compliance with government regulations

(2) Why is it necessary for all self-employed people to register with the government?

[2 Marks]
Answer: It is necessary for all self-employed people to register with the government to ensure that they follow the legal frameworks and regulations that protect their rights and the rights of their clients. Registration provides credibility to the self-employed individuals, ensuring compliance with labor laws such as minimum wage and safety standards. Moreover, being registered allows them to access social security benefits and enables the government to keep track of enterprises for taxation and regulation purposes.
Key Points: Ensures compliance with labor laws-Provides credibility and protection-Access to social security benefits

(3) Explain any one benefit provided by the employers to the organised sector employees.

[1 Marks]
Answer: One benefit provided by employers to employees in the organised sector is job security. Employees like Kanta have assured work and regular employment contracts, which protect them from arbitrary dismissal and provide a stable income.
Key Points: job security - assured work - regular contracts
Question 4.

Two places A and B have been marked on the given political outline map of India . Identify them with the help of

the following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them :

(1)

The place where Mahatma Gandhi broke the Salt Law

[1 Marks]
Answer: The place where Mahatma Gandhi broke the Salt Law is Dandi.
Key Points: Dandi - Salt Law - 6 April 1930

(2)

The place where the session of Indian National Congress was held place in 1927.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The session of the Indian National Congress in 1927 was held in Kolkata (then Calcutta).
Key Points: Indian National Congress session-1927-Kolkata

(3)

Note : The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 37 (a).

(a) (i) Name the place where the session of Indian National Congress was held in 1927.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The session of Indian National Congress in 1927 was held in Madras (now Chennai).
Key Points: Indian National Congress session-1927-location-Madras

(4)

On the same political outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols :

An international airport of West Bengal

[1 Marks]
Answer: In West Bengal, the important international airport is Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose International Airport, located in Kolkata. On the political outline map of India, I will represent it using the symbol for an airport as defined by the Survey of India.
Key Points: Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose International Airport - located in Kolkata - use specific airport symbol

(5)

A major sea port of Odisha

[1 Marks]
Answer: The major sea port of Odisha is Paradip.
Key Points: Paradip-Location in Odisha-Seaport

(6)

Name the place where a software technology park is located in Karnataka

[1 Marks]
Answer: The software technology park located in Karnataka is Bengaluru.
Key Points: Bengaluru is known as the IT hub of India. It hosts numerous software technology parks.

(7)

A software technology park of Karnataka

[1 Marks]
Answer: The software technology park of Karnataka is 'Electronic City', which is located in Bengaluru.
Key Points: Bengaluru - Software technology park - Electronic City

(8)

A nuclear power plant located in Maharashtra

[1 Marks]
Answer: The nuclear power plant located in Maharashtra is the 'Kaiga Nuclear Power Plant.'
Key Points: Kaiga Nuclear Power Plant

(9)

Name the place where a major sea port is located in Odisha.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The major sea port located in Odisha is Paradip.
Key Points: Paradip is a major sea port in Odisha.

(10)

Name the place where a nuclear power plant is located in Maharashtra.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The place where a nuclear power plant is located in Maharashtra is 'Tarapur'.
Key Points: Nuclear power plant- Maharashtra- Tarapur

(11)

Note : The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 37 (b).

Attempt any three questions.

Name the place where an international airport is located in West Bengal.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The place where an international airport is located in West Bengal is Kolkata.
Key Points: Kolkata-international airport-West Bengal

Section B

Question 5. Which one of the following languages is included in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Bhojpuri
  • (B) Rajasthani
  • (C) Tamil
  • (D) Magadhi
Explanation: Tamil is included in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution as one of the scheduled languages. The Eighth Schedule recognizes officially 22 languages, which include Tamil, among others. Magadhi, Rajasthani, and Bhojpuri are not recognized as scheduled languages in this context.
Question 6.

In which one of the following organs of India are women taking advantage of reservation?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Municipality
  • (B) Legislative Council
  • (C) Judiciary
  • (D) Rajya Sabha
Explanation:

The correct option is Municipality. In India, local government bodies, including municipalities, have a constitutional mandate to reserve at least one-third of all positions for women. This reservation provides a significant opportunity for women to participate in governance at the local level, unlike in the legislature and judiciary where their representation remains quite low.

Question 7. Choose the correctly matched pair from the following:
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Concurrent List - Education
  • (B) Concurrent List - Defence
  • (C) Concurrent List - Police
  • (D) Concurrent List - Trade
Explanation: The correct option is 'Concurrent List - Education' because the Concurrent List includes subjects of common interest to both the Union and State Governments, which specifically includes education. The other options, such as police and defence, pertain to State List and Union List respectively.
Question 8.

Which of the following statements represent gender equality?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) The value of women's vote is more than that of men
  • (B) Providing more rights to men.
  • (C) Restricting women to household chores.
  • (D) Providing voting rights equally to men and women.
Explanation: Providing voting rights equally to men and women represents gender equality because it ensures that both genders have the same legal rights in participating in the democratic process. The context emphasizes the importance of universal adult franchise and highlights instances where women's rights have been denied, reinforcing the idea that equal voting rights are essential for gender equality.
Question 9.

To reform the party system, which of the following tasks have been made compulsory for the political parties? choose the most appropriate option.

I. It is now compulsory for all the political parties to file income tax

returns.

II. It is now compulsory for all parties to have one-third women

candidates.

III. It is now compulsory for all the political parties to hold their

organisational election.

IV. It is now compulsory for all candidates to disclose information

about pending criminal cases against them through affidavit.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Only I, III and IV are correct.
  • (B) Only II, III and IV are correct.
  • (C) Only I, II and III are correct.
  • (D) Only I, II and IV are correct.
Explanation:

Only II, III and IV are correct. The context mentions that political parties are required to hold organisational elections (III) and candidates must disclose pending criminal cases (IV). It suggests that making a quota for women candidates (II) is a recommended reform but not yet legally mandated, while filing income tax returns (I) is mentioned but not as a compulsory task for all parties in the context provided.

Question 10. Which of the following group is in majority in Sri Lanka?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Tamil-speakers
  • (B) Telugu-speakers
  • (C) Sinhala-speakers
  • (D) English-speakers
Explanation: The correct answer is 'Sinhala-speakers'. According to the context, Sinhala-speaking people constitute 74 percent of the population in Sri Lanka, making them the majority group, while Tamil-speakers make up only 18 percent.
Question 11.

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements and choose the correct option:

Assertion (A) : Every party in India has to register with the Election Commission.

Reason (R) : The Government provides election symbols to all political parties in India.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (C) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (D) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
Explanation:

Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). The assertion is true as it is mandatory for political parties in India to register with the Election Commission to contest elections. The reason is also true, as registered political parties are provided with election symbols by the Election Commission, but it does not explain why registration is required, which is due to the need for legal recognition to participate in elections.

Question 12.

Data related to an imaginary country is given below. Study these data and answer the question that follows:

The attendance percentage of this country of the age group of 14 and 15 years is __________.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) 70 percent
  • (B) 80 percent
  • (C) 60 percent
  • (D) 90 percent
Explanation:

Based upon the above table the right answer is 80%.

Attendance percentage of this country of age group of 14 and 15 years = 800/1000 x 100=80%

Question 13.

Identify the sector on basis of the following characteristics and choose the correct option:

The objective of this sector is to earn profit.

This sector is owned by a person or company.

Tata Iron and Steel is an example of this sector.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Unorganised Sector
  • (B) Public Sector
  • (C) Private Sector
  • (D) Cooperative Sector
Explanation: The correct option is 'Private Sector' because this sector is characterized by ownership by individuals or companies with the primary goal of earning profit. Tata Iron and Steel Company Limited (TISCO) is specifically mentioned as an example of this sector, confirming that it is privately owned and profit-driven.
Question 14.

Why is it not easy to get loans from the formal sector? Read the following reasons and choose the most appropriate option:

I. Availability of Banks

II. Availability of Collateral

III. Long and Complicated Loan Process

IV. Awareness of Borrower

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Only II, III and IV are correct.
  • (B) Only I, III and IV are correct.
  • (C) Only I, II and III are correct.
  • (D) Only I, II and IV are correct.
Explanation:

Only II, III and IV are correct because the absence of collateral is a major barrier for the poor seeking bank loans, the loan process is often long and complicated, and there is a lack of awareness among borrowers about the formal credit system. The mention of 'Availability of Banks' is misleading, as it does not highlight the reasons for difficulty in obtaining loans.

Question 15. By which organization is the Human Development Report published?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) World Trade Organisation
  • (B) Amnesty International
  • (C) United Nations Development Programme
  • (D) World Health Organisation
Explanation: The correct option is 'United Nations Development Programme' because the Human Development Report is published by this organization, which focuses on issues related to global development and human well-being. The other options do not publish this specific report.
Question 16. Identify the odd one out.
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Bharti Airtel Limited
  • (B) Hindustan Computers Limited
  • (C) Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited
  • (D) Hindustan Unilever Limited
Explanation: The correct answer is 'Hindustan Computers Limited' because it is primarily an information technology company, whereas the other three companies (Bharti Airtel Limited, Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited, and Hindustan Unilever Limited) are involved in telecommunications, electrical manufacturing, and consumer goods, respectively. This makes Hindustan Computers Limited distinct from the others that are more diversified in sectors.
Question 17. Choose the correct option to fill in the blank: The process of removing barriers on foreign trade and investment by the government is known as _________.
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Import Tax
  • (B) Export Tax
  • (C) Liberalisation
  • (D) Industrialisation
Explanation: The correct option is 'Liberalisation'. This is because liberalisation refers to the process of removing restrictions imposed by the government on foreign trade and investment, allowing businesses greater freedom to import and export goods, as the context states.
Question 18.

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements and choose the correct option:

Assertion (A) : Most of the jute industry in India is located in a narrow belt along the banks of Hugli river.

Reason (R) : India is the second largest exporter of jute.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  • (D) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Explanation: Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). Assertion (A) is true as the context states that most jute mills are indeed located along the Hugli river in West Bengal. Reason (R) is also true since India is the second largest exporter of jute after Bangladesh. However, R does not explain why the jute industry is located by the Hugli river.
Question 19.

Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option:

[1 Marks]
  • (A) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii
  • (B) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
  • (C) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
  • (D) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
Explanation: The correct option is 'a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i'. This matches the countries' monthly incomes with the relevant income figures as provided in the context. Country A has the monthly incomes as listed, and through comparison, these can be accurately matched with the respective values from Column II.
Question 20. Mrs. Monica, along with her family, clears a piece of land and grows decreases, she prepares another piece of land for agriculture. Which of the following methods of agriculture does she use?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Plantation farming
  • (B) Slash and burn farming
  • (C) Intensive subsistence farming
  • (D) Commercial farming
Explanation: The correct option is 'Slash and burn farming'. This is because the context describes a method where a plot of land is cleared by felling trees and burning them, which aligns with the definition of slash and burn agriculture. In this method, the ashes enrich the soil temporarily, allowing crops to be grown until the soil's fertility declines.
Question 21.

The germs of which disease paved the way for Europe's conquest of America in the later half of the sixteenth century?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Jaundice
  • (B) Cholera
  • (C) Smallpox
  • (D) Malaria
Explanation: The correct answer is Smallpox. The context indicates that smallpox was a deadly disease that decimated the indigenous populations of America, who had no immunity against it. This lack of immunity allowed European conquerors to succeed in their conquests, as the spread of smallpox predated their arrival and weakened local communities significantly.
Question 22.

In reference to the Germania allegory the "olive branch around the sword" symbolizes which one of the following?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Heroism and strength
  • (B) Beginning of a new era
  • (C) Being freed
  • (D) Willingness to make peace
Explanation:

The olive branch is a well-known symbol of peace. In the context of the Germania allegory, the 'olive branch around the sword' represents a willingness to make peace, suggesting that even in the presence of strength or conflict (represented by the sword), there is an intention to pursue peace.

Question 23. Which among the following newspapers is related to Bal Gangadhar Tilak?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Hindustan
  • (B) Bangla Patrika
  • (C) Veer Bhoomi
  • (D) Kesari
Explanation: The correct answer is 'Kesari.' Bal Gangadhar Tilak wrote about significant events and issues in his newspaper 'Kesari,' especially expressing support for the Punjab revolutionaries, which later led to his imprisonment.
Question 24.

Arrange the following historical events in chronological order and choose the correct option:

I. Bardoli Satyagraha

II. Rowlatt Satyagraha

III. Champaran Satyagraha

IV. Kheda Satyagraha

[1 Marks]
  • (A) I, II, III, IV
  • (B) III, IV, II, I
  • (C) II, I, IV, III
  • (D) III, II, I, IV
Explanation:

The correct chronological order of the events is III, IV, II, I. The Champaran Satyagraha took place first in 1917, followed by the Kheda Satyagraha in 1918. The Rowlatt Satyagraha occurred in April 1919. Finally, the Bardoli Satyagraha took place in 1928. This establishes the order of events accurately.

Section C

Question 25. Mention any two economic impacts of the First World War on India.
[2 Marks]
Answer: The First World War significantly impacted India's economy in several ways. Firstly, there was a substantial increase in government defense expenditure, which necessitated higher taxes on individuals and businesses. Secondly, the demand for war supplies caused a dramatic rise in prices across various sectors. This inflation negatively affected the cost of living for ordinary citizens and led to widespread economic instability.
Question 26.

Explain the effectiveness of vertical distribution of 'power sharing' in the context of India.

[2 Marks]
Answer: The vertical distribution of power in India is effective as it decentralizes authority from the central government to state and local governments. This ensures that power is accessible at multiple levels, responsive to regional needs. It promotes local governance through panchayati raj institutions, empowering citizens to participate in decision-making. This structure helps address diverse social issues, allowing tailored solutions. Overall, it strengthens democracy by making governance more inclusive and accountable, reflecting local aspirations.
Question 27.

Describe any two features of 'arid soils' .

[2 Marks]
Answer: Arid soils are characterized by their sandy texture and high salinity. They typically exhibit a red to brown color due to iron oxide presence. The lack of moisture and humus results from excessive evaporation due to the dry climate. Additionally, the lower horizons of these soils commonly contain a Kankar layer, which is formed from accumulated calcium, restricting water infiltration and limiting agricultural productivity.
Question 28.

Describe any two features of forest soils .

[2 Marks]
Answer: Forest soils are typically loamy and silty, allowing good drainage and support for various vegetation types. These soils are rich in organic matter due to the decomposition of plant materials, thus providing essential nutrients for growth. In hilly and mountainous regions, forest soils can also exhibit coarse grain textures in upper slopes and are generally acidic, especially in snow-covered areas, leading to low humus levels.
Question 29.

Why did the Indian Government restrict foreign trade and foreign investment between 1947-1991 ? Explain.

[2 Marks]
Answer: The Indian Government restricted foreign trade and investment from 1947 to 1991 primarily to protect the nascent domestic industries from foreign competition. After gaining independence, the government aimed to promote self-sufficiency and foster industrial growth without the threat of overwhelming foreign imports. Importing essential goods like machinery was allowed, but barriers were established to safeguard local producers. This was crucial in nurturing India's economic foundation during its formative years, given the vulnerability of local businesses at that time.

Section D

Question 30. Analyse the impacts of Gandhi-Irwin pact on the Indian freedom struggle.
[3 Marks]
Answer: The Gandhi-Irwin Pact of 1931 had significant impacts on the Indian freedom struggle. Firstly, it marked a temporary halt to the civil disobedience movement, allowing for a brief cessation of conflict between nationalists and the British government. The agreement led to the release of political prisoners, which revitalized the morale among Congress supporters. While many radical nationalists criticized Gandhi for not securing a commitment for political independence, the pact did open channels for negotiation. Gandhi's participation in the Round Table Conference in London was crucial, as it put the Indian struggle on the global stage. Although the conference ultimately did not yield substantial results, it symbolized a formal recognition of Indian aspirations for self-rule. The backlash from the British government after the pact, however, highlighted the ongoing repression faced by Indians and underscored the urgency of the independence movement. Overall, while the pact had limitations, it played a vital role in shaping the trajectory of the freedom struggle during this period.
Question 31.

Analyse the role of Alluri Sitaram Raju in the Indian National Movement.

[3 Marks]
Answer: Alluri Sitaram Raju was a significant figure in the Indian National Movement, particularly during the early 20th century, where he played a crucial role in mobilizing tribal communities against British rule. He claimed mystical powers, which endeared him to the locals, who viewed him as a divine incarnation. Raju's inspiration came from Gandhi's Non-Cooperation Movement, promoting khadi and denouncing alcohol. However, he advocated for armed resistance, believing that true liberation would only be achieved through force. His leadership galvanized tribal revolts, highlighting the struggle of forest communities, culminating in the 1924 rebellion, which was eventually suppressed with his arrest. His legacy endures as a symbol of resistance and empowerment for marginalized tribes in India.
Question 32.

How have industrialisation and urbanisation impacted water supply?Explain.

[3 Marks]
Answer: Industrialisation and urbanisation have significantly strained water supply in various ways. As urban centres expand due to population growth and rising living standards, the demand for fresh water increases dramatically. Industries, which are heavy users of water, further exacerbate the problem as they require substantial amounts of water for their operations. This leads to the over-extraction of water from rivers, causing them to dry up. Moreover, untreated sewage and industrial waste are often discharged into water bodies, resulting in pollution and degradation of water quality. Consequently, the supply of clean, fresh water for domestic and agricultural needs is severely impacted, leading to shortages and health concerns for urban populations.
Question 33.

How does democracy establish an accountable, responsible and legitimate governance ? Explain.

[3 Marks]
Answer: Democracy establishes accountable and responsible governance through structures that allow citizens to participate in decision-making and hold the government accountable. It involves periodic elections where citizens choose their representatives, ensuring they are responsible to the electorate. A democratic government must respond to the needs and expectations of the populace, demonstrating legitimacy in its actions. Additionally, mechanisms such as checks and balances, independent institutions, and constitutional frameworks ensure that power is exercised within limits, reinforcing accountability and fostering trust among citizens.
Question 34.

'Reserve Bank of India plays a crucial role in the regulating the Indian banks' . Justify the statement.

[3 Marks]
Answer: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) holds a pivotal role in regulating Indian banks by ensuring financial stability and effective monetary policy implementation. It mandates that banks maintain a minimum cash balance from their deposits, thus promoting liquidity and security for depositors. Additionally, the RBI oversees lending practices, ensuring funds are extended not only to profitable businesses but also to small farmers and industries, fostering economic inclusivity. Moreover, as the sole issuer of currency notes in India, the RBI safeguards the integrity of the payment system, ensuring that the rupee remains a universally accepted medium of exchange. It ultimately supervises the functioning of formal credit sources, enhancing the banking sector's reliability and efficiency.
Question 35.

'Sharing of power between the Union Government and the state Government is basic to the structure of the Indian Constitution' . Analyse the statement with suitable argument.

[3 Marks]
Answer: The statement emphasizes the fundamental nature of federalism in the Indian Constitution, where power is divided between the Union Government and state governments. This sharing of power is not merely administrative; it fosters a culture of respect for state autonomy, which is crucial for democracy. A landmark Supreme Court judgment has reinforced this by making it challenging for the Central Government to dismiss state governments arbitrarily, enhancing state authority. The Constitution also recognizes the uniqueness of states, with some enjoying special statuses. Ultimately, this structure aims to balance unity and diversity in India, as federalism allows for regional governance while maintaining a cohesive national framework.

Section E

Question 36.

'Not everyone welcomed the printed book' .Explain the statement with examples from sixteenth century Europe.

[5 Marks]
Answer: In sixteenth century Europe, the advent of the printing press profoundly transformed society, yet not all segments of society embraced this change. Critics of the printed book included scholars and clerics who feared that the unregulated dissemination of ideas could enable the spread of rebellious and irreligious thoughts. For instance, while educated aristocrats preferred hand-copied manuscripts on expensive vellum, viewing printed works as vulgar, merchants and students, attracted to affordability, began purchasing these new books. Furthermore, authorities worried about the challenge posed by printed materials to their power, leading to a push for censorship. The Catholic Church, for instance, saw the Protestant Reformation gain momentum through printed pamphlets that criticized its practices. This highlighted the paradox where printed books could either democratize knowledge or empower dissenting voices, igniting fear among those in power.
Question 37.

'By the seventeeth century, the flourishing of urban culture in China also led to diversity in the use of printing' . Explain the statement with examples,

[5 Marks]
Answer: By the seventeenth century, the urban culture in China had significantly evolved, resulting in a diversification of printing uses beyond scholarly applications. Merchants began utilizing printed materials to manage trade data, enhancing their commercial operations. Additionally, there was a growing interest in reading as a leisure activity, with the rise of fictional narratives and poetry catering to the tastes of the newly emerging readership. The introduction of Western printing techniques and mechanical presses further transformed the landscape of print culture, particularly in urban centers like Shanghai. This shift not only increased accessibility to printed materials but also influenced social practices, as illustrated by the popular printed collections in Edo, showcasing the vibrant urban lifestyle of the time. Ultimately, the seventeenth century marked a pivotal transition in how print interacted with diverse sectors of society, reflecting both cultural change and technological advancement.
Question 38. The Government of India has invited some suggestions for institutional reforms in agriculture. Propose any five institutional reforms to the Government for the betterment of agriculture.
[5 Marks]
Answer: To improve Indian agriculture, I propose the following five institutional reforms: First, consolidation of land holdings is vital to enhance productivity; fragmented plots hinder efficient farming. Second, promoting cooperative farming can facilitate resource sharing and reduce costs. Third, establishing robust agricultural credit systems will ensure farmers have access to necessary funds for modernization. Fourth, implementing comprehensive insurance schemes against natural calamities will significantly reduce the risk for farmers. Finally, enhancing access to technology and information through digital platforms will empower farmers with knowledge and resources needed for better decision-making in their agricultural practices. These reforms can lead to sustainable agricultural development, improving food security and farmer livelihoods in India.
Question 39. Suppose you are a farmer. You want to cultivate rice in India. Describe any three geographical conditions which will be suitable for rice cultivation in India and write the names of two leading rice-producing states of India.
[5 Marks]
Answer: As a farmer aiming to cultivate rice in India, it's essential to consider specific geographical conditions that favor rice cultivation. Firstly, rice thrives in high temperatures, ideally above 25°C, which are commonly found in tropical and subtropical regions of India. Secondly, rice requires high humidity levels, which contributes to the growth and yield of the crop. Thirdly, the ideal annual rainfall for rice cultivation exceeds 100 cm, although areas with less rainfall can utilize irrigation techniques. The alluvial clayey soil is also vital as it retains water effectively, ensuring the rice plants receive adequate moisture. Two of the leading rice-producing states in India are West Bengal and Punjab, where favorable climatic and soil conditions allow for extensive rice cultivation.
Question 40.

"Secularism is the very idea of Indian Constitution." Justify the statement.

[5 Marks]
Answer:

Yes, the statement "secularism is the very idea of the Indian Constitution" is accurate. The Indian Constitution establishes India as a secular nation, ensuring equal rights and opportunities for all religions, and preventing the state from favoring or discriminating against any particular religion. This principle is embedded in various articles of the Constitution, guaranteeing religious freedom and prohibiting discrimination based on religion. Here's a justification of this statement:

1. No State Religion: The Indian Constitution does not declare any religion as the official religion of the state. This neutrality is a cornerstone of secularism. 

2. Equality of All Religions: The Constitution ensures that all citizens are equal before the law and are free to practice, profess, and propagate any religion, or no religion at all. It also prohibits discrimination based on religion. 

3. State's Neutrality: While the state may intervene in religious matters to ensure social reforms (like abolishing untouchability) or to prevent religious domination, such interventions are guided by constitutional principles and not by any religious bias. The state maintains a "principled distance" from religion, meaning it does not favor or disfavor any particular faith. 

4. Protection of Religious Minorities: The Constitution safeguards the rights of religious minorities to establish and administer their own educational institutions. It also protects them from persecution and discrimination, promoting a harmonious multi-religious society. 

5. Fundamental Rights: Articles 14, 15, 25, 26, 28, 29, and 30 of the Constitution guarantee fundamental rights related to religion, ensuring religious freedom and equality. 

6. Social Reforms: The Constitution allows the state to intervene in religious practices to promote social reforms and ensure equality, such as banning practices like untouchability and child marriage. 

In essence, the Indian Constitution's secularism is not a complete separation of religion and state like in the West, but rather an approach that promotes religious tolerance, equality, and harmony while allowing the state to intervene in religious matters for the greater good of society. This unique model of secularism is crucial for maintaining the unity and integrity of India, a nation with immense religious diversity. 

Question 41. Suggest any five measures to establish gender equality of labor.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Establishing gender equality in labor requires a multifaceted approach. Firstly, enforcing the Equal Remuneration Act, 1976, will ensure that women receive equal wages for equal work. Secondly, enhancing educational opportunities for women is crucial; this includes skill development programs that equip them with market-relevant skills. Thirdly, promoting women’s participation in various sectors, especially those previously dominated by men, helps normalize women's presence in all job types. Fourthly, advocating for legal protections against discrimination in the workplace facilitates a safer work environment. Lastly, fostering a cultural shift that encourages shared responsibilities at home not only empowers women in their professional roles but also transforms societal attitudes toward gender roles. Implementing these measures can create lasting structural changes that contribute to gender equality in labor.
Question 42. Distinguish between public and private sector of economy with examples.
[5 Marks]
Answer: The distinction between the public and private sectors is pivotal in understanding economic activities in terms of ownership and service delivery. The public sector is primarily owned and operated by the government. It aims to provide essential services to the public without the primary motive of earning profits. For instance, Indian Railways and the Post Office are notable examples of public sector enterprises. They serve the public interest and are funded by taxpayer money. On the other hand, the private sector comprises businesses owned by individuals or corporations, which operate with the objective of making profits. Companies like Tata Steel and Reliance Industries exemplify the private sector. They not only aim to generate income but also create employment opportunities. While public sector companies like Hindustan Aeronautics Limited focus on society’s welfare, private sector firms enhance efficiency through competition. Ultimately, both sectors play crucial roles in the economy, contributing distinctly to its growth and providing diverse services to the populace, balancing profit motives with social responsibilities.
Question 43. Suppose you are the Sarpanch of your village. What suggestions will you give for creating additional employment in the village, so that the problem of unemployment of the residents of rural areas can be reduced?
[5 Marks]
Answer: As the Sarpanch of the village, I propose several initiatives to enhance employment opportunities for residents. First, we should encourage the establishment of cooperative farming which will allow farmers to share resources, reduce costs, and enhance productivity. Second, promoting vocational training programs can equip residents with skills relevant to non-farm activities such as handicrafts, food processing, and small-scale industries. Third, fostering local entrepreneurship through microfinance initiatives can help shift surplus labor into self-employment ventures, thus reducing migration. Lastly, developing local infrastructure and improving connectivity to nearby markets can facilitate access to broader employment opportunities. By diversifying employment prospects and investing in skill development, we can significantly alleviate the unemployment crisis in our rural community.

Paper Details

CBSE Board Exam 2025

Class

CLASS 10

Subject

SOCIAL SCIENCE

Year

2025

Set

Set 3

Other Years — SOCIAL SCIENCE

2022 Set-1

2022 Set-2

2022 Set-3

2022 Set-4

2023 Set-1

2023 Set-2

2023 Set-3

2023 Set-4

2023 Set-5

2024 Set-1

2024 Set-2

2024 Set-3

2024 Set-4

2024 Set-5

2025 Set-1

2025 Set-2

2025 Set-3

2025 Set-4

2025 Set-5

2025 Set-6