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previous-year-question-paper-2023-set-4

SOLUTIONS

2023 BOARD EXAM

CBSE CLASS 10 SOCIAL SCIENCE Board Paper 2023 — Set 4

2023

SOCIAL SCIENCE

CLASS 10

CBSE EXAMINATION SOLVED PAPER-2023 SOCIAL SCIENCE

CBSE EXAMINATION PAPER-2023

SOCIAL SCIENCE

(Solved)

Time allowed : 3 hours

Maximum Marks : 72

General Instructions :

Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :

  1. This question paper contains 34 questions. All questions are compulsory.
  2. This question paper is divided into 5 sections.
  3. Section A – questions number 1 to 3 are case based questions
  4. Section B – questions number 4 to 19 are multiple choice questions
  5. Section C – questions number 20 to 22 are very short answer
  6. Section D – questions number 23 to 27 are short answer
  7. Section E – questions number 28 to 34 are long answer
  8. There is no overall choice given in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions.
  9. Use of calculator is NOT allowed.

Section A

Question 1. The first cotton mill in Bombay came up in 1854 and it went into production two years later. By 1862, four mills were at work with 94,000 spindles and 2,150 looms. Around the same time, jute mills came up in Bengal, the first being set up in 1855 and another one seven years later, in 1862. In north India, the Elgin Mill was started in Kanpur in the 1860s, and a year later the first cotton mill of Ahmedabad was set up. By 1874, the first spinning and weaving mill of Madras began production.

(1) When was the first cotton mill set up in India?

[1 Marks]
Answer: The first cotton mill in India was set up in Bombay (now Mumbai) in 1854. Although it was established in 1854, it began production two years later, in 1856. This marked the beginning of the cotton textile industry in India during the colonial period.
Key Points: The first cotton mill was established in Bombay in 1854-The mill started production in 1856-It marked the beginning of the cotton textile industry in India during British rule

(2) Name any two early industrialists of India.

[1 Marks]
Answer: Two early industrialists of India were Jamsetji Tata and Dwarkanath Tagore. Jamsetji Tata was known as the father of Indian industry and played a crucial role in setting up textile mills and steel plants. Dwarkanath Tagore was one of the first Indian entrepreneurs who invested in coal mining and other industries during the early industrial period.
Key Points: Jamsetji Tata-Dwarkanath Tagore-first Indian industrialists-contributed to textile and steel industries-invested in coal mining

(3) How did many Indian entrepreneurs survive despite tight economic controls imposed by the British Government? Explain.

[2 Marks]
Answer: Many Indian entrepreneurs survived despite the strict economic controls imposed by the British government by setting up cotton and jute mills in different parts of India. The first cotton mill was established in Bombay in 1854, followed by several others in Bombay, Bengal, Kanpur, Ahmedabad, and Madras. The capital for these industries generally came from Indian merchants and businessmen who invested in the mills. They leveraged the demand for cloth in the British market, especially during the world wars, to grow their businesses. This helped them sustain their industries despite competition from British manufactured goods and restrictive colonial policies.
Key Points: Indian entrepreneurs established cotton and jute mills across India - Capital mainly came from Indian merchants and businessmen - Demand for cloth in Britain during world wars boosted industry - Indian mills managed to grow despite colonial restrictions - Industries spread across Bombay, Bengal, Kanpur, Ahmedabad, and Madras
Question 2. In ancient India, along with the sophisticated hydraulic structures, there existed an extraordinary tradition of water-harvesting system. People had an in-depth knowledge of rainfall regimes and soil types and developed wide ranging techniques to harvest groundwater, rainwater, river water and flood water in keeping with the local ecological conditions and their water needs. In hilly and mountainous regions, people built diversion channels like the kuls and guls of Western Himalayas for agriculture. Rooftop rainwater harvesting was very commonly practised to store drinking water, particularly in Rajasthan.

(1) Mention any two methods of traditional water-harvesting used in India.

[1 Marks]
Answer: Two traditional methods of water-harvesting used in India are: 1. Construction of diversion channels like 'kuls' and 'guls' in the Western Himalayas. These channels divert river or stream water to agricultural fields in hilly and mountainous areas. 2. Rooftop rainwater harvesting, which was widely practised especially in Rajasthan, where rainwater collected on sloping roofs was directed through pipes into underground storage tanks called 'tankas'.
Key Points: Traditional water-harvesting systems-depth knowledge of rainfall and soil-diversion channels (kuls and guls) in hilly regions-rooftop rainwater harvesting in Rajasthan-underground storage tanks (tankas)-use of local ecological conditions

(2) How do people of Rajasthan utilise rainwater?

[1 Marks]
Answer: In Rajasthan, people utilise rainwater primarily through rooftop rainwater harvesting. The rainwater that falls on the sloping roofs of houses is collected and directed through pipes into underground storage tanks called 'tankas,' which are circular holes dug into the ground, usually located in the main house or courtyard. This method helps them store drinking water efficiently in the arid and semi-arid climate of Rajasthan. Additionally, agricultural fields are converted into rain-fed storage structures such as 'khadins' in Jaisalmer and 'johads' in other parts of Rajasthan. These structures allow water to stand and moisten the soil, supporting agriculture by conserving rainwater according to the local ecological conditions.
Key Points: Rooftop rainwater harvesting - Rainwater directed into underground tankas - Water stored for drinking purposes - Use of rain-fed storage structures like khadins and johads - Water conservation suited to arid climate

(3) Explain any two benefits of rainwater harvesting.

[2 Marks]
Answer: Rainwater harvesting has several benefits. Firstly, it helps in conserving water by collecting and storing rainwater, which reduces the dependence on groundwater and other water sources. This is especially important in areas where water is scarce. Secondly, it helps in preventing water runoff and soil erosion by capturing rainwater at the source, which also helps in recharging groundwater levels. Additionally, it provides a sustainable source of clean water for drinking and irrigation.
Key Points: Conserves water by storing rainwater-Reduces dependence on groundwater-Prevents water runoff and soil erosion-Recharges groundwater levels-Provides sustainable clean water supply
Question 3. Two places A and B have been marked on the given political outline map of India (on page 23). Identify them with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them :

(1) The place where Gandhiji broke the salt law.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The place where Gandhiji broke the salt law is Dandi. On 6th April 1930, Mahatma Gandhi led the famous Salt March from Sabarmati Ashram to Dandi, a small coastal village in Gujarat, to protest against the British salt monopoly. He picked up natural salt from the beach, symbolically breaking the salt law and starting a nationwide civil disobedience movement against British rule.
Key Points: Dandi-location in Gujarat - Date of salt law breaking: 6 April 1930 - Part of Salt March led by Gandhi - Protest against British salt monopoly - Symbolic act of civil disobedience

(2)

The place where the session of the Indian National Congress was held in September, 1920.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The session of the Indian National Congress held in September 1920 took place in Nagpur. This session was important in the history of the freedom movement as it marked the adoption of the non-cooperation movement under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi.
Key Points: The 1920 Congress session was held in Nagpur-Important for adoption of the Non-Cooperation Movement-Led by Mahatma Gandhi-Significant event in Indian freedom struggle

(3)

On the same political outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols :

(i) Tehri Dam

(ii) Bokaro Coal mines

(iii) Pune Software Technology Park

(iv) Tuticorin Sea port

[3 Marks]
Answer: On the given political outline map of India, I have located and labelled the following three places with suitable symbols: 1. Tehri Dam: This is marked in Uttarakhand on the map as it is situated on the Bhagirathi River in the Tehri district. 2. Bokaro Coal mines: These are located in Bokaro district of Jharkhand, a region known for rich coal deposits. 3. Tuticorin Sea port: Located in Tamil Nadu on the southeastern coast of India, Tuticorin is an important sea port. These locations have been labelled clearly using appropriate symbols to represent dams, coal mines, and sea ports.
Key Points: Locate Tehri Dam in Uttarakhand on Bhagirathi River-Locate Bokaro Coal mines in Jharkhand-Bokaro known for coal and steel industry-Locate Pune Software Technology Park in Maharashtra (optional)-Locate Tuticorin Sea port in Tamil Nadu on the east coast-Use appropriate symbols for dam, coal mine, software park, and sea port-Label the identified places correctly on the political outline map

(4)

The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only:

Answer any five questions

(1) Name the place where Gandhiji broke the salt law.

(2) Name the place where the Indian National Congress session was held in September, 1920.

(3) Name the state where Tehri dam is located.

(4) Name the state where Bokaro coal mines are located.

(5) In which state is the Pune Software Technology Park located ?

(6) Name the state where Tuticorin sea port is located.

[6 Marks]
Answer: (1) Gandhiji broke the salt law at Dandi. (2) The Indian National Congress session held in September 1920 was at Kolkata (then Calcutta). (3) Tehri Dam is located in the state of Uttarakhand. (4) Bokaro coal mines are located in the state of Jharkhand. (5) Pune Software Technology Park is located in the state of Maharashtra. (6) Tuticorin sea port is located in the state of Tamil Nadu.
Key Points: Dandi as the place of Salt Satyagraha-Gandhiji's movement-Kolkata as venue of 1920 Congress session-Tehri Dam located in Uttarakhand-Bokaro coal mines in Jharkhand-Pune Software Technology Park in Maharashtra-Tuticorin sea port in Tamil Nadu

Section B

Question 4. Which one of the following aspects was the base of the Bretton Woods system?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Cultural system
  • (B) Military system
  • (C) Economic system
  • (D) Historical system
Explanation: The correct option is 'Economic system' because the Bretton Woods system was primarily an economic system designed to establish a stable international monetary framework after World War II. It was based on fixed exchange rates where national currencies were pegged to the US dollar, which was convertible to gold at a fixed rate. This system aimed to promote economic stability, growth, and full employment in the industrial world, as part of the post-war reconstruction and economic cooperation.
Question 5. Which one of the following books was printed first by Gutenberg?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Chapbooks
  • (B) Amar Jivan
  • (C) Bible
  • (D) Almanac
Explanation: The correct answer is Bible. According to the context provided, Johannes Gutenberg invented the first printing press and in 1455, he printed about 150 copies of the Bible. This was the first book printed using his printing technology, which was a significant innovation that allowed faster production of books compared to handwritten copies.
Question 6. Who among the following led the peasant movement in Bardoli in 1928?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Baba Ramchandra
  • (B) Jawaharlal Nehru
  • (C) Vallabhbhai Patel
  • (D) Subhash Chandra Bose
Explanation: The correct answer is Vallabhbhai Patel. According to the provided context, in 1928, Vallabhbhai Patel led the Bardoli Satyagraha, a peasant movement in Bardoli, Gujarat, against the enhancement of land revenue. This movement was successful due to his able leadership and gained widespread sympathy across India.
Question 7. Choose the correctly matched pair.
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Intensive subsistence farming single crop production farming
  • (B) Primitive subsistence farming practised on large patches of land
  • (C) Plantation farming practised on small patches of land
  • (D) Commercial farming use of higher doses of modern inputs
Explanation: The correct option is 'Commercial farming use of higher doses of modern inputs.' Commercial farming typically involves the use of modern technology and high doses of inputs such as fertilizers, pesticides, and machinery to produce large quantities of crops for sale and profit. Other options are incorrect because intensive subsistence farming involves growing multiple crops on small land, primitive subsistence farming is done on small patches of land often with simple tools, and plantation farming is practised on large areas growing a single crop.
Question 8. When was the Wildlife Protection Act implemented?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) 1972
  • (B) 1978
  • (C) 1980
  • (D) 1985
Explanation: The correct option is 1972. The Wildlife Protection Act was implemented in India in 1972 to establish a national wildlife protection program. It provided legal protection to wildlife habitats, banned hunting of endangered species, and restricted trade in wildlife, helping to conserve India’s remaining wildlife populations.
Question 9. Mention the main reason for land degradation in states like Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh and Odisha.
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Mining
  • (B) Over-grazing
  • (C) Over irrigation
  • (D) Mineral processing
Explanation: The main reason for land degradation in states like Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh and Odisha is Mining. According to the provided context, deforestation due to mining activities has caused severe land degradation in these states. Mining sites are often abandoned after excavation, leaving deep scars and traces of over-burdening on the land that lead to degradation.
Question 10. Which one of the following languages was declared as the official language of Sri Lanka by an Act passed in 1956?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Sinhala
  • (B) Tamil
  • (C) English
  • (D) Hindi
Explanation: The correct answer is Sinhala. In 1956, an Act was passed in Sri Lanka that recognized Sinhala as the only official language, which disregarded Tamil. This was part of majoritarian measures by the Sinhala majority to establish dominance in government and administrative affairs.
Question 11.

Which one of the following options prove that India is a quasi-federal state?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) I, III and IV
  • (B) I, II and IV
  • (C) II, III and IV
  • (D) I, II and III
Explanation: India is called a quasi-federal state because it has features of both federal and unitary systems. The options I, II and III together explain this: I) Existence of more than one level of government (Union, State, and Panchayati Raj as the third tier), II) Distribution of power between Union and States but with the Centre having greater power (a characteristic of 'holding together' federations), and III) The Constitution provides a clear three-fold distribution of legislative powers through three lists (Union List, State List, Concurrent List). All these features reflect India's quasi-federal nature where the Central Government holds more power compared to the States, distinguishing it from a purely federal system.
Question 12. Which one of the following statements is not true?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) The Constitution prohibits discrimination on the grounds of religion.
  • (B) The Constitution allows us to practice, profess and propagate any religion or not to follow any.
  • (C) As per the Constitution, religion can never be separated from politics.
  • (D) The Constitution of India allows the state to intervene in the matters of religion in order to ensure equality within religious communities.
Explanation: The statement 'As per the Constitution, religion can never be separated from politics.' is not true. According to the provided context, the Indian Constitution mandates a secular state, meaning that the state does not enforce or favor any particular religion, which implies separation of religion from state affairs. The other statements are true as the Constitution prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, allows freedom to practice any religion or none, and permits state intervention in religious matters to ensure equality.
Question 13.

There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements and choose the correct option as your answer:

Assertion (A): India has a multiparty system.

Reason (R): It is because of the social and geographical diversities in India. Options:

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (B) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • (C) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Explanation: Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A). India has a multiparty system because of its vast social and geographical diversities which cannot be easily absorbed by just two or three political parties. Therefore, multiple political parties exist to represent the diverse interests across the country.
Question 14. What percentage of the population of Belgium lives in the Flemish region?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) 40%
  • (B) 80%
  • (C) 59%
  • (D) 70%
Explanation: 59% of the population of Belgium lives in the Flemish region and speaks Dutch. This is directly stated in the provided context, where it says, 'Of the country’s total population, 59 per cent lives in the Flemish region and speaks Dutch language.'
Question 15.

Select which among the following cannot be purchased through money. Choose the correct option:

I. Full protection from infectious diseases

II. A pollution-free atmosphere

III. High quality education

IV. A luxury home

[1 Marks]
  • (A) I and III
  • (B) III and IV
  • (C) I and IV
  • (D) I and II
Explanation: The correct option is I and II. According to the context, money alone cannot buy full protection from infectious diseases because it requires collective community preventive steps. Similarly, a pollution-free atmosphere cannot be purchased with money, as it depends on environmental factors and community actions. On the other hand, high quality education and luxury homes can be purchased or accessed through money.
Question 16.

Study the data given in the table and answer the question by selecting the correct option. Which is the most important sector that provides maximum jobs to the people?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Secondary sector, especially organized sector
  • (B) Primary sector, especially organized sector
  • (C) Tertiary sector, especially organized sector
  • (D) Primary sector, especially unorganized sector
Explanation: The primary sector, especially the unorganized sector, provides maximum jobs to the people. This is because a large number of people work in unorganized activities like agriculture and allied activities, which fall under the primary sector. Though the secondary and tertiary sectors are growing and include organized sectors, the primary sector remains the largest employer in the unorganized category.
Question 17. Which among the following organisations issues the currency notes in India?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) The NITI Aayog
  • (B) The Central Government of India
  • (C) The Finance Ministry
  • (D) The Reserve Bank of India
Explanation: The Reserve Bank of India issues currency notes in India on behalf of the Central Government. No other organisation or individual has the legal authority to issue currency in the country. This is authorized by Indian law to maintain the currency's validity and legal status as a medium of exchange.
Question 18. Cargill Foods, a very large MNC, is the largest producer of edible oil in India. Which one of these countries does it belong to?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) France
  • (B) India
  • (C) Great Britain
  • (D) United States of America
Explanation: The correct answer is 'United States of America'. According to the given context, Cargill Foods is described as a very large American multinational corporation (MNC), indicating that it belongs to the USA.
Question 19. In which one of the following ways has information and communication technology stimulated the globalisation process the most?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Access foods across countries
  • (B) Access raw material across countries
  • (C) Access information instantly across countries
  • (D) Access services across countries
Explanation: The correct option is 'Access information instantly across countries'. Information and communication technology (ICT) such as telecommunications, computers, and the Internet have revolutionized the way countries connect by allowing instant access to information and enabling quick communication across the world. This has been a major factor in stimulating globalization, as highlighted in the context stating that telecommunication facilities allow people to contact one another around the world and access information instantly.

Section C

Question 20. Why did Europeans flee to America in the 19th century? Explain.
[2 Marks]
Answer: In the 19th century, many Europeans fled to America primarily due to poverty, hunger, and lack of job opportunities in their home countries. The rapid population growth resulted in more people than available jobs, causing overcrowded cities and poor living conditions. Religious conflicts and persecution also forced many to leave. America and Australia had a shortage of labour, attracting Europeans in search of better job opportunities and land ownership, especially younger sons who would not inherit property in Europe.
Question 21. Why is there a pressing need to use non-conventional energy resources? Explain.
[2 Marks]
Answer: There is a pressing need to use non-conventional energy resources because the consumption of conventional fossil fuels such as coal, oil, and gas is increasing rapidly, leading to potential shortages and rising prices. This dependence creates insecurity in energy supply, which negatively affects the national economy. Furthermore, burning fossil fuels causes serious environmental problems like pollution and climate change. Therefore, using renewable sources like solar, wind, tidal, and biomass energy is essential for sustainable development, energy security, and protecting the environment.
Question 22. Suggest any two ways to create more employment in the rural sector.
[2 Marks]
Answer: Two effective ways to create more employment in the rural sector are: first, promoting industrial development, especially small and medium industries in rural and backward areas, which can provide jobs to surplus agricultural laborers; second, improving the tertiary sector by encouraging services such as healthcare, education, and rural infrastructure development, which create various job opportunities. Both these methods help in reducing poverty and migration by providing alternative employment to rural people.

Section D

Question 23. Explain any three effects of Non-Co-operation Movement on the Indian economy.
[3 Marks]
Answer: The Non-Co-operation Movement had significant effects on the Indian economy. Firstly, there was a widespread boycott of foreign goods, especially British-made products. People stopped buying foreign cloth and instead promoted indigenous goods, which led to the growth of local industries. Secondly, the movement led to the closure of liquor shops and boycotting of foreign goods, which affected British trade and revenue adversely. Thirdly, many professionals like lawyers gave up their practices in government courts, which disrupted the administrative and legal systems tied to the colonial economy. These actions shook the British economic control and encouraged the idea of self-reliance and swaraj, aiming at economic independence.
Question 24. How was the Rowlatt Act opposed by the people of India? Explain with three examples.
[3 Marks]
Answer: The Rowlatt Act of 1919 was strongly opposed by the Indian people as it curtailed fundamental rights and increased police powers. Mahatma Gandhi led a nationwide satyagraha, calling for a day of non-violent protest and prayer on 6th April 1919, which included hartals (strikes). Satyagraha Sabhas were formed to organize the movement, showing united resistance. Large-scale demonstrations and hartals took place in many cities, despite harsh government repression. The protests eventually led to tragic events like the Jallianwala Bagh massacre, which further intensified the opposition to British rule.
Question 25. Explain the importance of pipelines as a means of transportation in India.
[3 Marks]
Answer: Pipelines have become a crucial mode of transportation in India, especially for carrying crude oil, petroleum products, and natural gas. They connect oil and gas fields with refineries, fertilizer factories, and power plants, facilitating smooth and efficient transport over long distances. Pipeline transport is cost-effective after the initial high investment in construction, as running costs are low. Additionally, pipelines enable the development of industries in far inland areas, which would otherwise be difficult to support. India’s network of pipelines has grown significantly, supporting the expansion of the gas market and contributing to the country’s energy infrastructure. Moreover, pipelines can transport solids in slurry form, further enhancing their utility. Overall, pipelines provide a safe, reliable, and environment-friendly mode of transport essential for India’s industrial growth and energy security.
Question 26. Describe the impact of flexibility in the labour laws on the workers in India.
[3 Marks]
Answer: The flexibility in labour laws in India allows businesses, especially local and foreign companies, to cut costs by employing workers for longer hours at lower wages. While this may help companies increase profits, it often leads to poor working conditions for workers. Many workers, particularly in the unorganised sector, face lower safety standards and fewer benefits such as housing and healthcare. This flexibility often results in exploitation, making workers vulnerable to harsh conditions and inadequate protection of their rights. Therefore, despite economic benefits for companies, workers suffer from lack of adequate protection and poorer quality of work life, highlighting the need for stronger and better-enforced labour laws in India.
Question 27. Which are the two sectors based on the ownership of resources? Explain each of them.
[3 Marks]
Answer: The two sectors based on the ownership of resources are the Public Sector and the Private Sector. In the Public Sector, the government owns most of the assets and is responsible for delivering services to the people. Examples include government-owned industries like Hindustan Aeronautics Limited and Steel Authority of India Limited. In the Private Sector, individuals or groups own and operate businesses or industries. Examples include TISCO, Bajaj Auto Ltd., and Dabur Industries. The private sector aims at earning profits and operates independently from the government. Both sectors play important roles in the economy by providing goods, services, and employment opportunities.

Section E

Question 28. Explain the process of unification of Italy.
[5 Marks]
Answer:

The unification of Italy was a complex process that took place during the 19th century, resulting in the consolidation of various independent states and kingdoms into a single nation. Before unification, Italy was divided into several small states such as the Kingdom of Sardinia, Kingdom of the Two Sicilies, the Papal States, and others, as shown in the map of Italian states in 1858.

One of the key figures in the unification was Count Camillo di Cavour, the Prime Minister of the Kingdom of Sardinia. He worked through diplomacy and alliances, notably with France, to expel Austrian influence from northern Italy. Another important figure was Giuseppe Garibaldi, who led volunteer forces known as the Red Shirts to conquer southern Italy.

The unification process began with the Kingdom of Sardinia expanding its territory by annexing Lombardy in 1859. By 1860, most of central and northern Italy had joined the kingdom after Cavour’s diplomatic and military activities and Garibaldi’s southern campaign. The Kingdom of Italy was officially proclaimed in 1861, with Victor Emmanuel II as the king.

The last region to join Italy was Veneto in 1866 and Rome in 1870, completing the unification. Most of the Italian states joined between 1859 and 1861, marking the largest phase of unification. People in these regions initially identified more with their local states but gradually developed a shared Italian identity as unification progressed.

Thus, through a combination of wars, diplomacy, popular movements, and political strategy, Italy was unified into a single nation by 1870.

Question 29. Explain the importance of manufacturing industries.
[5 Marks]
Answer:

Manufacturing industries play a vital role in the economic growth and development of a country. They help in modernizing agriculture by providing agricultural tools like irrigation pumps, fertilizers, and insecticides, which increase productivity. Manufacturing reduces the overdependence on agriculture by creating jobs in the secondary and tertiary sectors, thus offering alternative employment opportunities.

Manufacturing involves converting raw materials into finished goods of higher value, such as making paper from wood, sugar from sugarcane, iron and steel from iron ore, and aluminum from bauxite. This transformation adds value to the product and boosts the economy. It also encourages the development of backward and tribal areas by establishing industries there, thereby promoting balanced regional development.

The export of manufactured goods enhances trade and commerce and brings in much-needed foreign exchange, improving the country's economic strength. Prosperous countries are those that diversify and increase their manufacturing capacities, making the nation self-reliant and strong. Hence, manufacturing industries are considered the backbone of development and economic progress.

Question 30. Explain any five ways to reduce industrial pollution.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Industrial pollution is a major cause of environmental degradation, affecting air, water, and soil quality. To reduce industrial pollution, several measures can be taken. First, industries should minimize the use of water in their processes by reusing and recycling water multiple times, which reduces wastewater discharge. Second, rainwater harvesting can be adopted to meet water requirements, decreasing reliance on freshwater sources. Third, air pollution can be reduced by fitting smoke stacks with devices like electrostatic precipitators, fabric filters, and scrubbers to capture particulate matter. Fourth, industries should switch to cleaner fuels like oil or gas instead of coal to reduce smoke emissions. Fifth, proper storage and limited quantity of toxic substances are essential to prevent accidental releases that can harm the environment. Additionally, industries should improve fire warning and firefighting systems to handle emergencies effectively. Separating industrial areas from densely populated residential zones also helps in reducing human exposure to pollutants. These measures collectively help in controlling pollution and protecting the environment from further degradation.
Question 31. Explain any five challenges faced by political parties in India.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Political parties in India face several challenges that affect their performance and the overall democratic process. First, there is a lack of internal democracy within parties, where power is often concentrated in the hands of a few leaders, and regular internal elections or organizational meetings are not held. Second, political parties often depend heavily on a few leaders or families, leading to dynastic politics and limiting opportunities for new leaders. Third, parties face financial constraints and often rely on undisclosed sources of funding, which affects transparency. Fourth, small parties and independent candidates suffer a major disadvantage compared to larger parties in terms of resources and visibility, reducing genuine political competition. Fifth, political parties sometimes fail to present clear policies and focus more on winning elections than working towards social welfare. These challenges contribute to popular dissatisfaction and weaken the democratic process, making it essential for parties to implement reforms and strengthen their internal structures to be effective instruments of democracy.
Question 32. Explain any five major functions of the political parties.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Political parties perform several important functions in a democracy. First, they contest elections by selecting candidates to represent them and compete for government positions. Second, political parties form and run the government when they win elections, making policies and decisions on behalf of the people. Third, they provide a link between the government and the public by communicating people’s needs and opinions to the government and explaining government policies to the public. Fourth, parties play a key role in opposition by critiquing and restraining the ruling party to ensure accountability and prevent misuse of power. Fifth, political parties help in forming public opinion by educating voters about political issues and encouraging participation in the political process. These functions make political parties an essential part of any representative democracy as they organize political activity, express different views, and help maintain a balance of power in society.
Question 33. How does credit play a positive and a negative role? Explain with examples.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Credit plays both positive and negative roles depending on the situation. On the positive side, credit helps individuals and businesses meet their financial needs and supports economic activities. For example, Salim needed credit to purchase raw materials and meet his working capital requirements. This credit allowed him to complete production on time and increase his earnings. Therefore, credit acted as a helpful financial tool enabling growth and timely production. However, credit can also have negative effects if misused or if excessive interest rates are involved. Take the case of Swapna who borrowed from informal sources at very high interest rates. She struggled to repay the loan as the cost kept increasing, making her worse off financially. This shows that credit can become a burden and worsen the borrower’s situation if repayment is difficult or if the terms are unfavorable. Thus, while credit supports business and personal needs, it must be managed carefully to avoid negative consequences. Borrowers should choose appropriate sources of credit and understand repayment terms to benefit positively from loans.
Question 34. What is a collateral? Why is it a main reason to prevent the poor getting a loan from banks? Explain.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Collateral is an asset owned by a borrower that is pledged to a lender as a security for a repayment of a loan. Examples of collateral include land titles, buildings, vehicles, livestock, and bank deposits. If the borrower fails to repay the loan, the lender has the right to sell the collateral to recover the loan amount. Banks usually require collateral to minimize the risk of default. However, many poor people do not have valuable assets to offer as collateral, which makes it difficult for them to get loans from banks. This requirement prevents them from accessing formal credit despite needing funds for various purposes. In contrast, informal moneylenders often do not demand collateral and lend based on personal trust but charge very high interest rates, which can trap the poor in cycles of debt. To overcome this problem, Self-Help Groups (SHGs) provide an alternate solution by enabling poor borrowers to get timely loans without collateral and at reasonable interest rates. Therefore, the requirement of collateral is a major barrier for the poor to access bank loans and improve their economic conditions.

Paper Details

CBSE Board Exam 2023

Class

CLASS 10

Subject

SOCIAL SCIENCE

Year

2023

Set

Set 4

Other Years — SOCIAL SCIENCE

2022 Set-1

2022 Set-2

2022 Set-3

2022 Set-4

2023 Set-1

2023 Set-2

2023 Set-3

2023 Set-4

2023 Set-5

2024 Set-1

2024 Set-2

2024 Set-3

2024 Set-4

2024 Set-5

2025 Set-1

2025 Set-2

2025 Set-3

2025 Set-4

2025 Set-5

2025 Set-6