social-science/
previous-year-question-paper-2023-set-5

SOLUTIONS

2023 BOARD EXAM

CBSE CLASS 10 SOCIAL SCIENCE Board Paper 2023 — Set 5

2023

SOCIAL SCIENCE

CLASS 10

CBSE EXAMINATION SOLVED PAPER-2023 SOCIAL SCIENCE

CBSE EXAMINATION PAPER-2023

SOCIAL SCIENCE

(Solved)

Time allowed : 3 hours

Maximum Marks : 80

General Instructions :

Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :

  1. This question paper contains 40 questions. All questions are compulsory.
  2. This question paper is divided into 5 sections.
  3. Section A – questions number 1 to 5 are case based questions
  4. Section B – questions number 6 to 22 are multiple choice questions
  5. Section C – questions number 23 to 27 are very short answer
  6. Section D – questions number 28 to 33 are short answer
  7. Section E – questions number 34 to 40 are long answer
  8. There is no overall choice given in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions.
  9. Use of calculator is NOT allowed.

Section A

Question 1.

INDUSTRIAL DEVELOPMENT

By the first decade of the 20th century, a series of changes affected the pattern of industrialization in India. As the Swadeshi movement gathered momentum, nationalists raised palaces for boycotts. Industrialists organized themselves to protect their collective interest, pressuring the government to increase tariff protection and grant other concessions. From 1906, moreover, the export of Indian yarn to China declined since produce from Chinese and Japanese mills flooded the Chinese market. So industrialists in India began shifting from yarn to cloth production. Cotton piece goods production in India doubled between 1900 and 1912.

Yet, till the First World War, industrial growth was slow. The war created a dramatically new situation. With British mills busy with war production to meet the needs of the army, Manchester imports into India declined. Suddenly, Indian mills had a vast home market to supply. As the war prolonged, Indian factories were called upon to supply war needs: jute bags, cloth for army uniforms, tents and leather boots, horse and mule saddles and a host of other items. New factories were set up and old ones made shifts. Many new workers were employed and everyone was made to work long hours. Over the war years industrial production boomed.

(1) Why did the cotton piece goods production in India double between 1900 to 1912?

[1 Marks]
Answer: Between 1900 and 1912, cotton piece goods production in India doubled primarily due to the shift in focus from yarn production to cloth production. This shift happened because Japanese and Chinese mills flooded the Chinese market with yarn, reducing Indian yarn exports. Indian industrialists responded by producing more finished cotton cloth locally. Additionally, the Swadeshi movement encouraged the boycott of foreign goods, promoting the use of Indian-made products, which also boosted domestic cotton cloth production. Furthermore, industrialists organized themselves to protect their interests and pressured the government for tariff protection and concessions, which supported the growth of the cotton textile industry.
Key Points: Japanese and Chinese mills flooded the Chinese market - Indian industrialists shifted from yarn to cloth production - Cotton piece goods production doubled between 1900 and 1912 - Swadeshi movement encouraged boycott of foreign goods - Pressure on government for tariff protection and concessions supporting industry growth

(2)

Explain any two events that helped India to regain its market.

[2 Marks]
Answer: Two important events helped India to regain its market. First, due to competition from Japanese mills flooding the Chinese market, Indian industrialists shifted their focus from yarn production to cloth production. As a result, cotton piece goods production in India doubled between 1900 and 1912, helping India expand its industrial output. Second, the First World War created a new situation where British mills were occupied producing war materials, which resulted in a decline in imports from Britain into India. This gave Indian mills a vast home market to supply, and Indian factories began producing war-related goods like jute bags, army uniforms, and tents. New factories were established and existing ones increased production, leading to a boom in Indian industrial production during the war years.
Key Points: Shift from yarn to cloth production due to competition from Japanese mills-Doubling of cotton piece goods production from 1900 to 1912-Decline in British imports during World War I leading to increased demand for Indian goods-Indian mills supplying war materials such as jute bags, uniforms, and tents-Growth and expansion of Indian industries during the war

(3) What was the Swadeshi Movement?

[1 Marks]
Answer: The Swadeshi Movement was a part of the Indian freedom struggle that emerged in the early 20th century. It aimed to promote Indian goods and boycott British products to weaken British economic control over India. Nationalists encouraged people to stop buying foreign cloth and instead use Indian-made goods. This movement also inspired Indian industrialists to protect their interests by demanding government support such as tariff protection. The movement led to the growth of Indian industries, especially in textile production, as Indian mills began shifting from yarn to cloth production to meet the growing demand.
Key Points: Swadeshi Movement was part of the freedom struggle-nationalists promoted boycott of foreign goods-nationalists encouraged use of Indian goods-industrialists demanded tariff protection and concessions-boost to Indian textile industry-increased cotton piece goods production between 1900 and 1912
Question 2.

COMMUNITY AND CONSERVATION

Conservation strategies have not been new in our country. We often ignore that in India, forests are also home to some of the traditional communities. In some areas of India, local communities are trying to conserve these habitats along with government officials, recognising that only this will secure their own long-term livelihood. In Sariska Tiger Reserve, Rajasthan, villagers have fought against mining by citing the Wildlife Protection Act. In many areas, villagers themselves are protecting habitats and explicitly rejecting government involvement. The inhabitants of five villages in the Alwar district of Rajasthan have declared 1200 hectares of forest as the Bhairoder Dak ‘Sanctuary’, devising their own set of rules and regulations which do not allow hunting, and are protesting the wild against any outside encroachments.

(1)

How are forests related with Communities?

[1 Marks]
Answer: Forests are closely related to communities, especially traditional ones, as these communities live in or near forests and rely on them for their livelihood and well-being. In India, local communities not only depend on forests but also actively engage in conserving them. For example, villagers in the Sariska Tiger Reserve fought against mining activities to protect their forest habitat. Similarly, five villages in the Alwar district declared 1,200 hectares of forest as a sanctuary, creating their own rules to prevent hunting and external encroachments. Across India, from Mizoram to Kerala, forests have survived because villages protect them through sacred groves and community patrols. Thus, forests and communities have a symbiotic relationship where protecting forests helps secure the livelihood of the people, and the communities play an important role in conserving forest habitats.
Key Points: Forests are home to traditional communities-Communities depend on forests for livelihood-Communities actively conserve forests along with or sometimes without government involvement-Examples include Sariska Tiger Reserve and villages in Alwar district-Use of sacred groves and community patrols across India-Communities create rules to protect forests-Forests and communities have a mutual relationship

(2)

Explain the aim of 'Wildlife Protection Act.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The Wildlife Protection Act was implemented in India in 1972 with the main aim of protecting the country's wildlife and their habitats. It was introduced as part of a national wildlife protection programme to conserve endangered species and to ban hunting of wild animals. The act provides legal protection to wild animals, birds, and plants, and restricts activities such as hunting and poaching. It also includes provisions for protecting important habitats and establishing protected areas where wildlife can thrive safely. The act helps in preserving biodiversity and ensuring the long-term survival of various species, thereby maintaining ecological balance.
Key Points: Implemented in 1972-National wildlife protection programme-Ban on hunting legal protection to animals and plants-Protect habitats and endangered species-Maintain ecological balance-Conserve biodiversity

(3)

How are communities working for the conservation of Wildlife ? Explain with example.

[2 Marks]
Answer: Communities in India are actively participating in wildlife conservation by protecting their local habitats and forming their own rules to preserve nature. For example, in Sariska Tiger Reserve, Rajasthan, villagers have opposed mining activities by citing the Wildlife Protection Act, helping to protect the tiger reserve. Similarly, in Alwar district of Rajasthan, the inhabitants of five villages declared 1200 hectares of forest as the Bhairodev Dak Sanctuary. They created their own regulations that ban hunting and prevent outside encroachment. Moreover, in many parts of India, villages protect sacred groves by patrolling their forests themselves, with each household taking turns. These community efforts help in the long-term conservation of wildlife and forests, securing their own livelihoods as well as preserving biodiversity.
Key Points: Communities participate in conservation-Conserve habitats with or without government involvement-Sariska Tiger Reserve villagers fought mining using Wildlife Protection Act-Alwar villages declared forest sanctuary with own rules-No hunting and no outside encroachment allowed-Sacred groves in various states protected by villages-Villages patrol forests themselves, each household takes turn-Long-term livelihood and biodiversity conservation
Question 3. Please refer to the map-based questions in Section F which are not case-based/source-based and therefore excluded.
Question 4. Read the given source and answer the questions that follow : DECENTRALISATION IN INDIA This new system of local government is the largest experiment in democracy conducted anywhere in the world. There are now about 36 lakh elected representatives in the panchayats and municipalities etc., all over the country. This number is bigger then the population of many countries in the world. Constitutional status for local government has helped to deepen democracy in our country. It has also increased women's representation and voice in our democracy. At the same time, there are many difficulties. While elections are held regularly of Panchayats and people participate enthusiastically in it but meetings of gram sabhas are not held regularly.

(1) Why is Indian decentralisation considered as the largest experiment in democracy?

[1 Marks]
Answer: Indian decentralisation is considered the largest experiment in democracy because it involves around 36 lakh elected representatives in panchayats and municipalities across the country, which is more than the population of many countries. This massive decentralisation allows for local self-government, encouraging democratic participation at the grassroots level. The constitutional recognition of local governments has strengthened democracy by increasing people's involvement, especially women’s representation and voice. Moreover, the three-tier Panchayati Raj system provides rural people a chance to manage their own affairs and participate directly and through elected representatives. This extensive scale of democratic decentralisation makes it the largest such experiment in the world.
Key Points: Largest number of elected representatives (36 lakh)-Constitutional recognition of local governments-Increases democratic participation at the grassroots level-Increases women's representation-Panchayati Raj three-tier system enables local self-government-Represents the world’s largest democracy

(2)

Analyse how constitutional status for local government has helped to deepen democracy in India?

[1 Marks]
Answer: The constitutional status given to local government institutions like Panchayats and Municipalities has played a vital role in strengthening and deepening democracy in India. Firstly, it led to the establishment of the largest local government system in the world, involving about 36 lakh elected representatives, which is more than the population of many countries. This constitutional backing ensured regular and free elections at the local level, thus promoting democratic participation among citizens. Secondly, it enhanced the representation and voice of women in democratic processes by reserving at least one-third of elected positions for them. Thirdly, decentralisation enabled local self-governance, allowing people in rural areas to manage their own issues, participate directly through Gram Sabhas, and collaborate in development plans. This not only inculcates democratic habits but also ensures that decision-making is closer to the people affected by it. Finally, the creation of independent State Election Commissions and the sharing of powers and revenue between State governments and local bodies have institutionalised and strengthened democratic governance at the grassroots level. Therefore, giving constitutional status to local governments has deepened democracy by increasing participation, inclusiveness, accountability, and decentralisation of power in India.
Key Points: Constitutional status ensured regular elections and democratic participation-Established world's largest local government system-Increased women's representation via reservation-Enabled local self-governance and direct participation through Gram Sabhas-Decentralisation of power and revenue sharing between State and local bodies-Independent State Election Commissions institutionalised electoral process at local level-Strengthened grassroots democracy and accountability

(3)

Explain any two steps taken by the Indian Government for decentralisation.

[2 Marks]
Answer: The Indian Government has taken several important steps to promote decentralisation in the country. Firstly, a major step was the amendment of the Constitution in 1992, which gave constitutional status to local government bodies like Panchayats and municipalities. This made it mandatory to hold regular elections for these local government institutions, ensuring continuous representation and participation of the people in local governance. Secondly, the government organised the local government in rural areas into a three-tier system, which includes gram panchayats at the village level, panchayat samitis at the block level, and zilla parishads at the district level. This structure facilitates direct participation of people and their elected representatives in the decision-making process and grants rural communities a measure of self-governance to handle their local issues and developmental plans effectively.
Key Points: Constitutional amendment in 1992 making local governments constitutionally recognised and mandating regular elections - Establishment of a three-tier system of Panchayati Raj in rural areas - These steps help increase democratic participation and local self-governance
Question 5. Two places (A) and (B) have been marked on the given political outline Map of India. Identify them with the help of given information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them.

(1) The Place where Indian National Congress Session was held in 1927.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The Indian National Congress session in 1927 was held at Madras. This session was important because it was one of the annual meetings where key decisions regarding the freedom struggle were discussed. Madras, now known as Chennai, was a major center of political activity during the Indian independence movement.
Key Points: Indian National Congress session 1927 - held at Madras - significant political meeting - important for freedom struggle discussions

(2)

The place where Mahatma Gandhi broke Salt law.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The place where Mahatma Gandhi broke the Salt law was Dandi. On 6 April 1930, Mahatma Gandhi reached the coastal village of Dandi in Gujarat and picked up a lump of natural salt from the seashore, thus disobeying the British salt law that prohibited Indians from producing or collecting salt independently. This act marked the beginning of the famous Salt March or Dandi Satyagraha, which was a significant event in the Indian struggle for independence.
Key Points: Dandi - date 6 April 1930 - breaking salt law - salt monopoly of British - start of Salt March - civil disobedience movement led by Gandhi

(3)

On the same outline Map of India locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols.

(i) Indira Gandhi International Airport.

(ii) Kakrapara-Atomic Power Station.

(iii) Hyderabad-Software Technology Park

(iv) Kandla Sea Port

[3 Marks]
Answer: On the given outline map of India, mark and label any three of the following with suitable symbols: 1. Indira Gandhi International Airport - located near Delhi in northern India. 2. Kakrapara Atomic Power Station - located in Gujarat, western India. 3. Hyderabad Software Technology Park - located in Hyderabad, Telangana in southern India. 4. Kandla Sea Port - located on the coast of Gujarat, western India. For example, if you choose (i) Indira Gandhi International Airport, (ii) Kakrapara Atomic Power Station, and (iv) Kandla Sea Port, mark their respective locations on the map and write their names clearly next to the marked points with appropriate symbols depicting airport, power station, and sea port respectively.
Key Points: Locate the exact positions of the selected places on the outline map- Use suitable symbols for each (airport, power station, software park, sea port)- Write the correct names clearly near the marked spots- Know the states where these places are located (Delhi for Indira Gandhi International Airport, Gujarat for Kakrapara Atomic Power Station and Kandla Sea Port, Hyderabad in Telangana for Software Technology Park)- Use an atlas or political map for accurate marking

(4)

The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only:

Attempt any five questions..

(i)Name the place where the session of Indian National Congress was held in 1927.

(ii) Name the place where Mahatma Gandhi broke the Salt law.

(iii) Name the city where Indira Gandhi International Airport is located.

(iv) Name the State where Kakrapara Nuclear plant is located.

(v) Name the State where Hyderabad Software Technology park is located.

(vi) Name the State where Kandla Sea Port is located.

[6 Marks]
Answer: (i) The session of Indian National Congress in 1927 was held at Madras (now Chennai). (ii) Mahatma Gandhi broke the Salt law at Dandi in Gujarat. (iii) Indira Gandhi International Airport is located in New Delhi. (iv) The Kakrapar Nuclear Plant is located in the state of Gujarat. (v) Hyderabad Software Technology Park is located in Telangana. (vi) Kandla Sea Port is located in the state of Gujarat.
Key Points: Mention the location of the 1927 INC session as Madras-Chennai - State the place of Salt March as Dandi, Gujarat - Indira Gandhi International Airport location as New Delhi - Kakrapar Nuclear Plant is in Gujarat - Hyderabad Software Technology Park is in Telangana - Kandla Sea Port is in Gujarat

Section B

Question 6.

Match the following and choose the correct option:

[1 Marks]
  • (A) IV-II-III-I
  • (B) II-I-IV-III
  • (C) I-IV-III-II
  • (D) I-IV-II-III
Explanation: The correct option is I-IV-III-II because in classification tasks, the matching is done based on the logical grouping of items. According to the context provided, amines are classified based on the number of hydrogen atoms replaced. The correct matching aligns the first term with the fourth, the third with the third, and the second with the second, which is represented by I-IV-III-II in the given options.
Question 7. Who among the following brought out Bengal Gazette, the first weekly newspaper?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Bipin Chandra Pal
  • (B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
  • (C) Gangadhar Bhattacharya
  • (D) Raja Rammohan Roy
Explanation: The Bengal Gazette, the first weekly newspaper, was brought out by Gangadhar Bhattacharya. According to the context, Gangadhar Bhattacharya, who was close to Rammohun Roy, published this weekly newspaper. Therefore, the correct answer is Gangadhar Bhattacharya.
Question 8. Which of the following industries increased with the expansion of railways in England from 1840s to 1860s?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Iron and Steel
  • (B) Aluminium and Bauxite
  • (C) Jute and Cotton
  • (D) Copper and Steel
Explanation: The correct answer is Iron and Steel. According to the context, after the 1840s the iron and steel industry led the way in England, and with the expansion of railways from the 1840s to 1860s, the demand for iron and steel increased rapidly. This growth was significant as Britain was exporting large amounts of iron and steel by 1873, indicating the industry's rapid expansion due to railway development.
Question 9. Why did Europeans flee to America in the 19th century? Identify the correct reason from the following options.
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Poverty and diseases
  • (B) Ducogod rash
  • (C) To escape from the French Revolution
  • (D) Aftermath of the Vietnam War
Explanation: The correct reason is 'Poverty and diseases'. In the 19th century, Europe experienced widespread poverty, hunger, overcrowding in cities, and deadly diseases. Religious conflicts and persecution also forced many to flee. Due to labor shortages in America, nearly 50 million Europeans emigrated there to escape these hardships. The other options like the French Revolution, Ducogod rash, and the Vietnam War are either historically inaccurate or irrelevant to this period.
Question 10.

Identify the Crop with the help of the following information and choose the correct option.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Wheat
  • (B) Maize
  • (C) Rice
  • (D) Sugarcane
Explanation: The correct crop based on the provided context is Maize. Maize is described as a crop used both as food and fodder, it is mainly a kharif crop that requires temperatures between 21°C to 27°C and old alluvial soil. It is also noted that maize can be grown as a rabi crop in some states like Bihar. This matches the characteristics given in the context, making Maize the correct option compared to Wheat, Rice, or Sugarcane.
Question 11. Which organization prepares the World Development Report?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) World Bank
  • (B) International Monetary Fund
  • (C) World Health Organisation
  • (D) International Labour Organisation
Explanation: The World Development Report is prepared by the World Bank. The given context mentions the World Bank as an international financial institution set up to finance post-war reconstruction and development projects, indicating its role in global development issues. The IMF focuses on monetary cooperation and financial stability, WHO works on health matters, and ILO deals with labor standards, but the World Bank is the organization responsible for the World Development Report.
Question 12.

Which one of the following is the preceding Government Agency of NITI Aayog?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Planning Commission
  • (B) University Grants Commission
  • (C) Election Commission
  • (D) Union Public Service Commission
Explanation: The preceding government agency of NITI Aayog was the Planning Commission. This is evident from the context which states that the erstwhile Planning Commission is now known as NITI Aayog. The other options, such as University Grants Commission, Election Commission, and Union Public Service Commission, are different agencies with distinct functions and are not related as predecessors to NITI Aayog.
Question 13.

Assume there are four families in a locality. If the income of each family is ₹6,000, ₹ 4,000, ₹7,000 and 3,000 then find out the average income of the locality from the following options:

[1 Marks]
  • (A) ₹5,000
  • (B) ₹6,000
  • (C) ₹2,000
  • (D) ₹3,000
Explanation: To find the average income, we add the incomes of all four families and then divide by 4. So, average income = (6000 + 4000 + 7000 + 3000) ÷ 4 = 20000 ÷ 4 = ₹5,000. Therefore, the correct option is ₹5,000.
Question 14.

Which one of the following is a major benefit to a local company which goes for joint production with an MNC?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) MNC provides Money and Technology to local company.
  • (B) MNC purchases all shares of local company for faster production.
  • (C) MNC takes all decisions to reduce burden of local company.
  • (D) MNC might ask for labour and capital investment from local company.
Explanation: The correct answer is 'MNC provides Money and Technology to local company.' This is because MNCs invest money in local companies for additional investments like buying new machines which help in faster production. They also bring the latest technology for production, which benefits the local company by improving their production efficiency and capabilities.
Question 15.

Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Primary Sector - Money Lender
  • (B) Secondary Sector - Priest
  • (C) Manufacturing Sector - Gardener
  • (D) Tertiary Sector - Bank
Explanation: The correct option is 'Tertiary Sector - Bank'. According to the provided context, the tertiary sector, also known as the service sector, includes services such as banking, healthcare, communication, trade, and transportation. Banks provide financial services, which clearly fall under the tertiary sector. The other pairs are incorrect because: Primary Sector involves activities like agriculture and mining, not money lenders; Secondary Sector relates to manufacturing and construction, not priests; Manufacturing Sector is part of the secondary sector and is different from gardening, which belongs to the primary sector.
Question 16.

Which one of the following is an activity of the unorganized sector?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) A teacher teaching in a school.
  • (B) A worker going to work in a big factory.
  • (C) A doctor treating patients in a hospital.
  • (D) A daily wage labourer working under a contractor.
Explanation: The correct option is 'A daily wage labourer working under a contractor.' According to the context, the unorganized sector mainly includes casual workers in construction, trade, transport, small-scale industries, and other informal jobs like daily wage laborers. These jobs lack job security, regular income, and are often outside formal regulations, fitting the description of a daily wage labourer working under a contractor. The other options, such as teachers, factory workers, and doctors, generally belong to the organized sector which has defined employment conditions and regulations.
Question 17.

Who among the following takes the decision regarding saving and loan activities in the Self Help Groups (SHGs)?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Manager of a Bank
  • (B) Local Money Lenders
  • (C) Members of Non-Governmental Organisation (NGO)
  • (D) Members of Self-Help Group (SHG)
Explanation: The correct answer is 'Members of Self-Help Group (SHG)'. According to the given context, most of the important decisions regarding savings and loan activities are taken by the group members themselves. They decide on the purpose, amount, interest, and repayment schedule of loans. The group is also responsible for loan repayment and follows up on any non-repayment by members. Thus, it is the SHG members who manage and take decisions related to savings and loans.
Question 18.

Consider the following statements on Power sharing and choose the correct option.

I. Imposing the will of majority community over others.

II. It helps in reducing the possibility of conflict between the social groups.

III. Power sharing is a good way to ensure the stability of political order.

IV. It brings socio-political opposition among parties.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) I and III
  • (B) II and III
  • (C) I and IV
  • (D) I and II
Explanation: The correct statements are II and III. Power sharing helps reduce conflict between social groups by distributing power among them, preventing any one group from dominating others. It also ensures the stability of the political order by balancing power and promoting cooperation. Statement I is incorrect because imposing the will of the majority on others opposes the idea of power sharing. Statement IV is incorrect as power sharing aims to reduce socio-political opposition, not bring it.
Question 19.

Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A) Political Parties are important in the functioning of democracy.

Reason (R) The media plays an important role in the making of Political Parties.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (B) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
  • (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  • (D) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Explanation: The assertion that political parties are important in the functioning of democracy is true because political parties fulfill essential functions such as supporting or restraining the government, making policies, and reflecting fundamental political divisions in society. However, the reason that the media plays an important role in the making of political parties is not the primary explanation for the importance of political parties in democracy. Therefore, both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Question 20.

Which one of the following countries have One Party System?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) China
  • (B) America
  • (C) India
  • (D) Pakistan
Explanation: The correct answer is China. According to the context, China has a one-party system where only the Communist Party is allowed to rule. Although other parties can legally be formed, the electoral system does not permit free competition for power, making it effectively a one-party system. The other countries listed—America, India, and Pakistan—do not have a one-party system; they have multiple political parties competing in elections.
Question 21.

Read the following statements and choose the correct option:

I. There is no official religion in India.

II. Communities have freedom to profess and practice their religion.

III. State helps communities by giving aid to educational institutions run by them.

IV. India believes in theocracy.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) I, III and IV
  • (B) I, II and IV
  • (C) II, III and IV
  • (D) I, II and III
Explanation: The correct option is 'I, II and III'. According to the Indian Constitution, there is no official religion in India (Statement I). The Constitution provides all individuals and communities the freedom to profess, practice, and propagate any religion (Statement II). The State also aids communities by providing financial support to educational institutions run by them on a non-preferential basis (Statement III). However, India does not believe in theocracy, as the State does not enforce any particular religion nor is it ruled by any religious group, so Statement IV is incorrect.
Question 22.

Which one of the following countries has the highest representation of women in their National Parliament?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Russia
  • (B) Sweden
  • (C) Australia
  • (D) India
Explanation: According to the provided context, India's women representation in its Lok Sabha is about 14.36%, which places it among the bottom group of nations worldwide. Although the exact figures for Russia, Sweden, and Australia are not explicitly mentioned, Sweden is widely known for having one of the highest percentages of women in national parliaments globally. Therefore, Sweden has the highest representation of women in their National Parliament among the given options.

Section C

Question 23.

How did the 'Treaty of Constantinople of 1832 recognize Greece as an independent nation? Explain.

[2 Marks]
Answer: The Treaty of Constantinople of 1832 officially recognized Greece as an independent nation after a long struggle against the Ottoman Empire. Greece had been under Ottoman rule since the fifteenth century, but inspired by the rise of nationalism in Europe, the Greeks began their fight for independence in 1821. The revolution received support from Greeks living abroad and from European sympathizers who admired ancient Greek culture. The treaty marked the end of the conflict, acknowledging Greece's sovereignty and establishing it as a separate state, free from Ottoman control.
Question 24.

Explain any two efforts taken by the Government of India to modernise agriculture.

[2 Marks]
Answer: The Government of India has taken several initiatives to modernise agriculture. First, the Kissan Credit Card (KCC) scheme was introduced to provide farmers with timely and adequate credit support, helping them purchase essential inputs like seeds, fertilizers, and equipment. Second, the government launched special agricultural programmes on radio and television, including weather bulletins, to provide farmers with crucial and timely information about weather and farming practices. These efforts help enhance productivity and reduce risks faced by farmers.
Question 25.

Explain any two features of Rabi cropping season.

[2 Marks]
Answer: The Rabi cropping season refers to the spring crops sown in winter from October to December and harvested in summer from April to June. One key feature of Rabi crops is that they require cooler weather to grow well, which is why they are sown in winter. Another important feature is that these crops need irrigation as they do not depend on monsoon rains. Important Rabi crops include wheat, barley, peas, gram, and mustard.
Question 26.

Explain the role of Election Commission regarding recognition of Political Parties in India.

[2 Marks]
Answer: The Election Commission of India plays a crucial role in recognizing political parties. It sets specific criteria for parties to be recognized officially. For a party to be recognized as a State party, it must secure at least six percent of the total votes in a State Legislative Assembly election and win at least two seats. Recognized parties are given a unique election symbol, which only their official candidates can use. The Commission registers all political parties and grants special facilities only to recognized parties to maintain fairness and organization in elections.
Question 27.

How to create more employment in rural areas? Explain with examples.

[2 Marks]
Answer: To create more employment in rural areas, we can promote agriculture-based industries, encourage regional crafts, and develop tourism. For example, setting up food processing units and handicraft centers provides jobs to local people. Providing better healthcare and education services in villages also creates employment opportunities for nurses and teachers. Additionally, government support in training and investment can help develop IT services in some regions. These efforts help reduce migration from villages and improve rural incomes.

Section D

Question 28. Examine any three effects of Print culture on the French Revolution.
[3 Marks]
Answer: Print culture had a significant impact on the French Revolution by spreading new ideas and fostering public debate. Firstly, print popularised the ideas of Enlightenment thinkers like Voltaire and Rousseau, whose writings challenged the traditional authority of the Church and the monarchy, encouraging people to question established social orders. Secondly, print created a culture of dialogue and debate, allowing diverse opinions to circulate widely, which helped to mobilise public opinion against tyranny. Thirdly, printed materials made information more accessible, empowering common people to understand their rights and the injustices within society. This widespread dissemination of knowledge created an informed public that was ready to demand change, ultimately contributing to the revolutionary movements in France.
Question 29. Why do we call Tourism as a Trade? Explain.
[3 Marks]
Answer: Tourism is called a trade because it involves the exchange of services between the provider and the consumer, similar to other trades. In tourism, services such as travel, accommodation, and entertainment are offered to tourists in exchange for money. It creates economic activity by providing employment to over 15 million people in India directly and supports local handicrafts and cultural industries. Moreover, tourism promotes national integration and international understanding of culture and heritage. Like trade, tourism requires transportation and infrastructure to move tourists from one place to another, helping economic development. Hence, tourism functions as a trade by generating income, creating jobs, and fostering cultural exchange.
Question 30. Explain the importance of Transportation in the economic development of the country.
[3 Marks]
Answer: Transportation plays a vital role in the economic development of a country by facilitating the movement of goods and services from their production centers to the market or demand locations. Efficient transport systems reduce the cost and time involved in transportation, making goods more accessible and affordable for consumers. It also helps in the growth of trade and industries by connecting backward areas with developed regions, encouraging industrialization there. Furthermore, transportation supports urban development by enabling the supply of essential goods to cities. Water transport, being the cheapest mode, often supports major trade activities. Overall, the pace of a country's development largely depends on how well goods and services are produced and moved across different regions through land, water, and air transport. Without efficient transportation, economic activities would slow down, affecting the overall growth of the nation.
Question 31. Distinguish between formal and informal sources of credit.
[3 Marks]
Answer: Formal sources of credit include banks, cooperative societies, and other financial institutions regulated by the government and the Reserve Bank of India. These sources offer loans at reasonable interest rates with proper documentation and legal agreements. Formal credit is more accessible to richer households and aims to expand to reach poorer sections of society. On the other hand, informal sources of credit comprise moneylenders, friends, relatives, and local traders. These sources usually charge very high-interest rates and have flexible terms but lack proper regulation, leading to potential exploitation of borrowers. People often depend on informal credit due to easy accessibility, especially when formal credit is not available or difficult to obtain. It is important to increase the reach of formal credit to reduce dependence on informal sources for the welfare of all sections of society.
Question 32. “In modern democracies, power sharing arrangements can take many forms.” Explain the statement.
[3 Marks]
Answer: In modern democracies, power sharing is essential to ensure that political power is not concentrated in the hands of a few but is distributed among many citizens. This distribution of power can take various forms. For example, competition among different political parties allows citizens to choose their leaders freely, ensuring that power changes hands democratically. Power sharing also occurs through the role of pressure groups and social movements that influence decision-making without holding formal power. Furthermore, democratic governance involves including different communities and regions in decision-making processes, which may be achieved through federal structures or local self-government. This prevents domination by a single group and promotes inclusive governance. Sharing power is fundamental to democracy as it respects citizens’ rights to participate and be consulted in decisions that affect their lives, fostering legitimacy and stability in the political system.
Question 33. Why is the issue of sustainability important for development? Explain with examples.
[3 Marks]
Answer: Sustainability is important for development because it ensures that we meet the needs of the present without harming the environment or compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs. Development should not cause environmental damage or depletion of resources like crude oil and forests. For example, India depends heavily on importing crude oil, which is limited and non-renewable. If oil prices rise or supplies reduce, it affects economic growth. Sustainable development encourages using resources wisely, such as promoting renewable energy sources and conserving natural resources, to maintain a balance between growth and environmental protection. This approach helps countries like India develop economically, while preserving resources for the future.

Section E

Question 34. How did the Business class relate itself to the Civil Disobedience Movement? Explain with examples.
[5 Marks]
Answer: The business class in India played a significant role in the Civil Disobedience Movement, aligning itself with the cause for Swaraj (self-rule). During the First World War, Indian merchants and industrialists had profited greatly and became powerful. However, the colonial government imposed policies that restricted their business growth. This economic dissatisfaction motivated them to support the movement launched by the Indian National Congress. Industrialists like G.D. Birla openly opposed colonial control over the Indian economy and contributed financial assistance to the movement. They also adopted boycott strategies by refusing to buy or sell imported British goods, thereby promoting Swadeshi products. The business class viewed Swaraj as an opportunity to remove colonial restrictions and expand commerce freely. Their support was crucial in sustaining the movement financially and economically. In summary, the business class related to the Civil Disobedience Movement through a shared goal of economic freedom from British colonial policies, actively participating via financial support and boycotting foreign goods to promote indigenous industries.
Question 35.

How can the industrial pollution of fresh water be reduced? Explain with examples.

[5 Marks]
Answer:

Industrial pollution of fresh water is a serious environmental issue that contaminates water bodies with harmful chemicals and wastes, affecting both ecosystems and human health. To reduce this pollution, several methods can be adopted. Firstly, industries should minimize the use of fresh water for processing by reusing and recycling wastewater through successive stages. This reduces the volume of wastewater discharged into rivers and lakes. Secondly, industries can implement wastewater treatment processes to treat effluents before releasing them, ensuring harmful chemicals are neutralized or removed. Thirdly, harvesting and using rainwater can supplement industrial water needs, reducing dependency on freshwater sources and preventing over-extraction and pollution. For example, a textile industry can recycle wastewater from dyeing processes and harvest rainwater to lower freshwater use. Additionally, strict regulations and continuous monitoring can ensure industries comply with pollution control norms. Protecting forest and vegetation cover near water bodies also helps by slowing runoff and naturally filtering pollutants. These measures collectively help in controlling water pollution and preserving freshwater for safe human use and maintaining ecological balance.

Question 36. “The economic strength of a country is measured by the development of manufacturing industries.” Explain with examples.
[5 Marks]
Answer: The economic strength of a country is often gauged by the growth and development of its manufacturing industries, which form the backbone of economic progress. Manufacturing industries fall under the secondary sector and are crucial because they transform raw materials into finished goods of higher value, which contribute significantly to the country’s prosperity. For example, countries that efficiently export manufactured goods gain foreign exchange, expanding trade and commerce. In India, agro-based industries such as those producing irrigation pumps, fertilizers, and insecticides have not only contributed to industrial growth but also modernized agriculture by increasing productivity. Establishing industries in tribal and backward areas helps create jobs and reduces dependence on agriculture, thus diversifying income sources and improving living standards. Manufacturing industries also stimulate economic activities in other sectors and promote overall development. Hence, the rapid and diversified growth of manufacturing industries is a clear indicator and driver of a country’s economic strength and development.
Question 37. Why is Democratic Government considered as Legitimate Government? Explain.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Democratic government is considered a legitimate government because it is truly the government of the people. Unlike other forms of government, where power may be concentrated in the hands of a few or imposed by force, democracy is based on the principle of political equality. Every citizen, whether rich or poor, educated or uneducated, has an equal status and the right to participate in decision-making processes, either directly or through elected representatives. This participation gives the government its legitimacy as it reflects the collective will of the people. Moreover, democratic governments operate through free and fair elections, ensuring that rulers are chosen and can be held accountable by the citizens. While democracy may sometimes appear slow, less efficient or less responsive, its legitimacy comes from the fact that it respects the dignity of individuals and treats them as equals rather than subjects. This is why democracy enjoys overwhelming support worldwide, as it embodies the true essence of people’s own government, making it the most accepted and legitimate form of governance in modern times.
Question 38. How is Democracy a better form of government in comparison to dictatorship? Explain.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Democracy is considered a better form of government compared to dictatorship because it is based on the will and participation of the people. In a democracy, rulers are elected by the people and are accountable to them, which ensures that the government acts according to the interests and needs of its citizens. Unlike dictatorship, where decisions depend solely on the ruler’s wishes and there is no guarantee of addressing the people's concerns, democracy provides legitimacy since it is the people’s own government. Although democracy may sometimes be slow or less efficient, it respects the voices of all citizens and protects their rights, making the government more responsive and just. Furthermore, democracy allows for freedom of expression and participation, which leads to better decision-making through diverse opinions. This inclusiveness creates trust and support among the people for the government, which dictatorships often lack. In summary, democracy ensures accountability, responsiveness, legitimacy, and protection of individual rights, making it a far better system than dictatorship.
Question 39. “Liberalisation of foreign trade and foreign investment policy have shown far reaching changes in India.” Support the statement with suitable arguments.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Liberalisation of foreign trade and foreign investment policies in India since the early 1990s have brought about far-reaching changes in the country’s economic landscape. Before liberalisation, India had numerous restrictions, tariffs, and quotas on imports and foreign investments, which limited the flow of goods and foreign money. After liberalisation, many barriers were removed, allowing goods to be imported and exported more freely. This has encouraged competition from foreign companies, which in turn has led Indian producers to improve the quality and variety of their products. Additionally, foreign investment was allowed to enter various sectors in India. This influx of capital helped create job opportunities, improved technology transfer, and increased productivity. The presence of multinational companies has boosted industrial growth and contributed to overall economic development. Furthermore, these changes have integrated India more deeply with the global economy, increasing trade and foreign exchange earnings. The World Trade Organisation (WTO) and other international organisations supported this liberalisation by advocating for free trade and fewer barriers worldwide. As a result, India’s approach towards foreign trade and investment liberalisation has strengthened its economic reforms and contributed to faster growth and development in the country.
Question 40. “Among producers and workers, the impact of globalization has not been uniform.” Support the statement with suitable arguments.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Globalization has transformed the Indian economy significantly over the last two decades, but its impact on producers and workers has been uneven. Producers, especially those who are skilled and have access to capital, have benefited from globalization through expanded markets, new technology, and foreign investment. They face greater competition but also have opportunities to improve product quality and reduce costs. Consumers, particularly in urban areas, enjoy better choices and lower prices. However, workers have experienced mixed outcomes. Skilled and educated workers have benefited from new job opportunities in emerging industries like IT and services, leading to better standards of living. On the other hand, many unskilled workers have not shared these benefits equally. They often face job insecurity due to increased competition and the need for constant adaptation to new technologies. The agricultural sector and informal workers continue to struggle with limited opportunities and low incomes. Hence, while globalization has raised living standards for some producers and skilled workers, it has also widened economic disparities. To make globalization fair, the government must implement policies to create opportunities for all and ensure the benefits reach even the disadvantaged workers, through better education, skill development, and social security measures.

Paper Details

CBSE Board Exam 2023

Class

CLASS 10

Subject

SOCIAL SCIENCE

Year

2023

Set

Set 5

Other Years — SOCIAL SCIENCE

2022 Set-1

2022 Set-2

2022 Set-3

2022 Set-4

2023 Set-1

2023 Set-2

2023 Set-3

2023 Set-4

2023 Set-5

2024 Set-1

2024 Set-2

2024 Set-3

2024 Set-4

2024 Set-5

2025 Set-1

2025 Set-2

2025 Set-3

2025 Set-4

2025 Set-5

2025 Set-6