SOLUTIONS
2024 BOARD EXAM
CBSE CLASS 10 SOCIAL SCIENCE Board Paper 2024 — Set 5
2024
SOCIAL SCIENCE
CLASS 10
CBSE EXAMINATION PAPER-2024
SOCIAL SCIENCE
(Solved)
General Instructions :
Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :
- This question paper contains 43 questions. All questions are compulsory.
- This question paper is divided into 5 sections.
- Section A – questions number 1 to 5 are case based questions
- Section B – questions number 6 to 24 are multiple choice questions
- Section C – questions number 25 to 29 are very short answer
- Section D – questions number 30 to 35 are short answer
- Section E – questions number 36 to 43 are long answer
- There is no overall choice given in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions.
- Use of calculator is NOT allowed.
Section A
Question 1.
Read the given source and answer the questions that follow :
Print Comes to India
From 1780, James Augustus Hickey began to edit the Bengal Gazette, a weekly magazine that described itself as ‘a commercial paper open to all, but influenced by none’. So it was private English enterprise, proud of its independence from colonial influence, that began English printing in India. Hickey published a lot of advertisements, including those that related to the import and sale of slaves. But he also published a lot of gossip about the Company’s senior officials in India. Enraged by this, Governor-General Warren Hastings persecuted Hickey, and encouraged the publication of officially sanctioned newspapers that could counter the flow of information that damaged the image of the colonial government. By the close of the eighteenth century, a number of newspapers and journals appeared in print. There were Indians, too, who began to publish Indian newspapers. The first to appear was the weekly Bengal Gazette, brought out by Gangadhar Bhattacharya, who was close to Raja Rammohan Roy.
(1) In which language was ‘Bengal Gazette’ edited by James Augustus Hickey published?
[1 Marks]
Answer: The ‘Bengal Gazette’, edited by James Augustus Hickey, was published in English.
Key Points: Bengal Gazette - edited by James Augustus Hickey - published in English
(2) Why was James Augustus Hickey persecuted?
[1 Marks]
Answer: James Augustus Hickey was persecuted by Governor-General Warren Hastings because Hickey published gossip about the Company’s senior officials, which angered Hastings. The colonial government saw this as damaging to their image and sought to control the narrative by encouraging officially sanctioned newspapers.
Key Points: Published gossip about Company officials - Angered Governor-General Warren Hastings - He sought to counter damaging information - Encouraged sanctioned newspapers
(3) Which newspapers were encouraged during the 1780s? Why were they encouraged?
[2 Marks]
Answer: During the 1780s, the colonial government in India encouraged the publication of officially sanctioned newspapers to counter the criticisms and damaging information published in the Bengal Gazette, edited by James Augustus Hickey. These officially sanctioned newspapers were promoted to create a more favorable image of the colonial government and protect the interests of the East India Company from negative publicity, particularly concerning the actions of its officials.
Key Points: Bengal Gazette encouraged publications - Warren Hastings promoted officially sanctioned newspapers - Aimed to counter negative information about colonial government
Question 2.
Read the given source and answer the questions that follow :
Conservation of Resources
At the international level, the Club of Rome advocated resource conservation for the first time in a more systematic way in 1968. Subsequently, in 1974, Gandhian philosophy was once again presented by Schumacher in his book Small is Beautiful. The seminal contribution with respect to resource conservation at the global level was made by the Brundtland Commission Report, 1987. This report introduced the concept of ‘Sustainable Development’ and advocated it as a means for resource conservation, which was subsequently published in a book entitled Our Common Future. Another significant contribution was made at the Earth Summit at Rio de Janeiro, Brazil in 1992.
(1) Explain the meaning of sustainable development.
[1 Marks]
Answer: Sustainable development refers to the responsible and careful utilization of resources in a manner that fulfills the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs. Introduced by the Brundtland Commission in 1987, this concept emphasizes the balance between environmental health, economic growth, and social equity. It encourages practices that minimize resource depletion, protect biodiversity, and promote the quality of human life. By changing personal attitudes and practices towards the environment and enabling communities to take an active role in their sustainable practices, we uphold the principles of sustainable development.
Key Points: Responsible utilization of resources - Care for future generations - Balance economic growth with environmental protection - Protect biodiversity - Encourage community involvement
(2) In which international conference was ‘Agenda-21’ accepted?
[1 Marks]
Answer: ‘Agenda-21’ was accepted at the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED), commonly known as the Earth Summit, which took place in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil in June 1992. This conference brought together global leaders to address urgent environmental and development issues, and resulted in a comprehensive plan of action for sustainable development worldwide.
Key Points: United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED)-Earth Summit-Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, 1992
(3) Explain any two outcomes of the Summit.
[2 Marks]
Answer: The Earth Summit held in Rio de Janeiro in 1992 resulted in several significant outcomes aimed at promoting sustainable development. Firstly, the leaders present at the summit signed the Declaration on Global Climatic Change, underscoring the international commitment to address climate change and its impacts. This declaration served as a foundation for subsequent environmental agreements and policies. Secondly, the summit led to the adoption of Agenda 21, a comprehensive action plan which aimed at promoting sustainable development in the 21st century. This agenda outlined strategies for integrating social, economic, and environmental policies globally, thereby facilitating countries to work towards sustainable resource management and environmental conservation.
Key Points: Outcomes of the Earth Summit; signed Declaration on Global Climatic Change; adoption of Agenda 21 for sustainable development;
Question 3.
Read the given source and answer the questions that follow :
Loans from Cooperatives
Besides banks, the other major source of cheap credit in rural areas are the cooperative societies (or cooperatives). Members of a cooperative pool their resources for cooperation in certain areas. There are several types of cooperatives possible such as farmers cooperatives, weavers cooperatives, industrial workers cooperatives, etc.
Krishak Cooperative functions in a village not very far away from Sonpur. It has 2300 farmers as members. It accepts deposits from its members. With these deposits as collateral, the Cooperative has obtained a large loan from the bank. These funds are used to provide loans to members. Once these loans are repaid, another round of lending can take place. Krishak Cooperative provides loans for the purchase of agricultural implements, loans for cultivation and agricultural trade, fishery loans, loans for construction of houses and for a variety of other expenses.
(1) What are the different types of loans that ‘Krishak Cooperatives’ offer to their members?
[1 Marks]
Answer: The Krishak Cooperative provides a variety of loans to its members to support their agricultural and personal needs. These loans include: 1. Loans for the purchase of agricultural implements, which help members acquire the necessary tools for effective farming. 2. Loans for cultivation, providing funds necessary for farming activities such as planting and harvesting. 3. Fishery loans to support individuals involved in fishing and aquaculture. 4. Loans for the construction of houses, aiding members in building or improving their residences. 5. Loans for various other expenses, accommodating the diverse financial needs of farmers. These lending practices ensure that cooperative members can access the financial resources needed to improve their livelihoods.
Key Points: Loans for agricultural implements-Loans for cultivation-Fishery loans-Loans for house construction-Various other expenses
(2) Why are such cooperatives desirable in the rural areas?
[2 Marks]
Answer: Cooperatives are highly desirable in rural areas for several reasons. Firstly, they provide a source of cheap credit to farmers who might otherwise turn to informal lenders with high interest rates, which can lead to a cycle of debt. For instance, Krishak Cooperative serves as an essential financial institution for its 2300 farmer members by accepting their deposits and using them as collateral for obtaining bank loans. This enables the cooperative to lend money to members for essential needs such as purchasing agricultural implements and funding cultivation activities. Secondly, cooperatives foster a sense of community among farmers, encouraging them to pool their resources and collaborate towards common goals, increasing their bargaining power in the market. This collective approach strengthens the economic stability of the rural economy. Lastly, cooperatives support food security by offering low-priced goods to local communities, further integrating social welfare into their financial activities. Therefore, they play a vital role not only in providing financial assistance but also in enhancing community resilience and food security in rural areas.
Key Points: Access to cheap credit-Pooling of resources-Community support and food security
(3) How do ‘Krishak Cooperatives’ secure funds for providing loans to their members?
[1 Marks]
Answer: ‘Krishak Cooperatives’ secure funds for providing loans to their members through a systematic approach involving member deposits and bank loans. First, cooperative members pool their resources by depositing money into the cooperative. These deposits serve as collateral, which enables the cooperative to obtain large loans from banks. The collective savings of the members not only provide a reliable source of funds but also build trust and financial stability within the cooperative. The loans from banks are subsequently used to provide various types of loans to members, such as loans for agricultural implements, cultivation, fishery, and even for housing construction. This cycle of deposit and lending allows the cooperative to sustain its lending operations effectively, promoting continuous financial support to its members.
Key Points: Members pool resources, Deposits serve as collateral, Obtaining bank loans, Funds for agricultural and housing loans, Cycle of deposit and lending
Question 4.
Two places ‘A’ and ‘B’ have been marked on the given political outline map of India (on page 27). Identify them with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them :
(1) The place where the session of Indian National Congress was held in 1920.
Answer: The place where the Indian National Congress session was held in 1920 is Nagpur. This session is significant as it marked the formal adoption of the 'Non-Cooperation Movement' initiated by Mahatma Gandhi as a response to the repressive measures adopted by the British government.
Key Points: Location is Nagpur-Important Congress session in 1920-Non-Cooperation Movement initiation
(2) On the same political outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols : (i) Bailadila – Iron ore Mines (ii) Namrup – Thermal Power Plant (iii) Kandla – Major Sea Port (iv) Meenam Bakkam – International Airport
Answer: To accurately label the places on the political outline map of India, I will identify the following three locations with appropriate symbols: (i) I will use a mine symbol (⚒) to indicate Bailadila, which is famous for its iron ore mines located in Chhattisgarh. (ii) I will use a power plant symbol (🟡) to mark Namrup, which is known for its thermal power plant situated in Assam. (iii) Finally, I will use a port symbol (⚓) to designate Kandla, which is a major sea port located in Gujarat. Each of these symbols represents the significant economic resources related to these locations.
Key Points: Bailadila – Chhattisgarh, iron ore mines (⚒); Namrup – Assam, thermal power plant (🟡); Kandla – Gujarat, major sea port (⚓)
(3) The place where Gandhiji broke the salt law.
Answer: The place where Gandhiji broke the salt law is Dandi. On April 6, 1930, Mahatma Gandhi led a significant march from Sabarmati Ashram to Dandi, where he picked up a lump of natural salt as a symbol of protest against the British salt laws, which imposed a monopoly on salt production and sales in India. This act initiated the larger Civil Disobedience Movement against British colonial rule.
Key Points: Dandi-April 6, 1930-Gandhi's march to break the salt law-symbol of protest against British monopoly
Question 5.
Note : The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates
Attempt any five questions.
(1) Name the state where the session of Indian National Congress was held in 1927.
Answer: The session of the Indian National Congress in 1927 was held in the city of Madras, which is now known as Chennai. This session was significant as it marked a period of intensified struggle for independence from British rule, and the Congress party was able to regroup and strengthen its activities during this time.
Key Points: Session held in Madras-1927-significance to the Indian freedom struggle
(2) Name the place where Gandhiji broke the salt law.
Answer: Gandhiji broke the salt law at Dandi, a small coastal village in Gujarat, India. This act took place on April 6, 1930, during the famous Salt March, where he led a group of followers to protest against the British monopoly on salt production and sales, highlighting the importance of salt in every Indian household.
Key Points: Location: Dandi - Date: April 6, 1930 - Context: Salt March - Purpose: Protest against British salt law
(3) Name the state where Bailadila iron ore mines are located.
Answer: The Bailadila iron ore mines are located in the state of Chhattisgarh, India. These mines are situated in the Bastar district and are known for their deposits of super high-grade hematite, which is essential for steel manufacturing. The extracted ore is often exported to countries like Japan and South Korea via the Vishakhapatnam port.
Key Points: Bailadila iron ore mines-Chhattisgarh-Bastar district-super high-grade hematite-export to Japan and South Korea
(4) Name the state where Kandla sea port is located.
Answer: Kandla sea port, also known as Deendayal Port, is located in the state of Gujarat. It was developed after India's independence to facilitate trade, especially after the loss of Karachi port to Pakistan. Kandla serves as a vital port for handling exports and imports in the region.
Key Points: Kandla sea port, Deendayal Port, Gujarat, developed after Independence, facilitates trade
(5) In which state is Namrup Thermal Power Plant located ?
Answer: The Namrup Thermal Power Plant is located in the state of Assam. This power plant plays a crucial role in the energy sector of the region by utilizing natural gas and is one of the key thermal power stations in India, contributing to the electricity supply in the northeastern states.
Key Points: Namrup Thermal Power Plant- located in Assam- key player in energy sector- utilizes natural gas- contributes to northeastern electricity supply
(6) Name the state where Meenam Bakkam international airport is located.
Answer: The Meenambakkam International Airport, also known as Chennai International Airport, is located in the state of Tamil Nadu, India. It serves as a major hub for air travel in the region and is one of the busiest airports in the country, facilitating both domestic and international flights.
Key Points: Airport name is Meenambakkam International Airport - Located in Tamil Nadu - Major hub for domestic and international air travel
Section B
Question 6.
Who among the following hosted the ‘Vienna Congress’ in 1815?
[1 Marks]
Explanation: The correct answer is 'Chancellor Duke Metternich'. He hosted the Congress of Vienna, which aimed to restore the balance of power in Europe after the Napoleonic Wars and undo the changes caused by Napoleon's conquests.
Question 7.
Which one of the following religions emerged from eastern India and spread in several directions through intersecting points on the ‘silk routes’?
[1 Marks]
Explanation: Buddhism is the correct answer because it emerged from eastern India and is noted for spreading in various directions through the silk routes, as stated in the provided context.
Question 8.
[1 Marks]
Arrange the following events in chronological order and choose the correct option.
I Formation of Khilafat Committee in Bombay
II Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
III Bardoli Satyagraha
IV Withdrawal of Non-Cooperation Movement
Explanation:
The correct order is I, II, IV, III. The formation of the Khilafat Committee in Bombay occurred prior to the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre in April 1919. Following these events, the Non-Cooperation and Khilafat Movement launched in January 1921, which later led to the withdrawal of the Non-Cooperation Movement in February 1922 after the Chauri Chaura incident, and finally, the Bardoli Satyagraha took place in 1928.
Question 9.
[1 Marks]
Choose the correct option to fill in the blank.
In the beginning of the 19th century, _________ a girl married in a very orthodox household wrote an autobiography called ‘Amar Jiban’.
Explanation: The correct answer is Rashsundari Devi. The context clearly states that Rashsundari Devi was a young married girl in a very orthodox household who learned to read and later wrote her autobiography 'Amar Jiban', which is noted as the first known autobiography written by an Indian woman.
Question 10.
[1 Marks]
Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option.
Column I Column II
(National Park) (State)
i. Kaziranga a. Madhya Pradesh
ii. Jim Corbett b. Assam
iii. Sunderbans c. Sunderbans
iv. Bandhavgarh d. West Bengal
Explanation: The correct matches are: i-b (Kaziranga - Assam), ii-c (Jim Corbett - Uttarakhand), iii-d (Sunderbans - West Bengal), iv-a (Bandhavgarh - Madhya Pradesh). These matches are aligned with the context where Kaziranga is mentioned as located in Assam, Jim Corbett in Uttarakhand (not listed but implied), Sunderbans in West Bengal, and Bandhavgarh in Madhya Pradesh.
Question 11.
In which one of the following states is ‘bamboo drip irrigation system’ prevalent?
[1 Marks]
Explanation: The correct answer is Meghalaya. The bamboo drip irrigation system is a 200-year-old technique used in Meghalaya to tap stream and spring water using bamboo pipes, making it an integral part of agricultural practices in that state.
Question 12.
Which one of the following is the highest ‘bauxite’ producing state of India?
[1 Marks]
Explanation: The correct answer is Odisha, as it accounted for 65% of bauxite production in India according to the data provided for the year 2018-19.
Question 13.
[1 Marks]
Two statements, I and II are given below. Read both the statements and choose the correct option.
Statement I : Division of power is good for democratic systems.
Statement II : It helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between social groups.
Explanation: Both statements I and II are true, and II is the correct explanation of I. The context highlights that the division of power in democratic systems indeed helps mitigate conflicts between social groups by ensuring that power is distributed, which in turn reduces the likelihood of social tensions escalating into violence or instability.
Question 14.
[1 Marks]
Read the following provisions regarding Secularism in the Indian Constitution and choose the correct option.
I. The Indian State has not adopted any religion as its official religion.
II. The Constitution gives freedom to all the citizens to practice and propagate any religion.
III. The Constitution declares any kind of discrimination done on the basis of religion to be legal.
IV. It gives the government the right to intervene in religious matters for ensuring equality within religious communities.
Explanation: The correct option is 'Only I, II and IV are correct.' This is because: I is correct as the Indian State does not adopt any religion as its official religion, affirming the secular nature of the state. II is correct as the Constitution grants freedom to all individuals to practice and propagate any religion, which is a fundamental right. IV is correct as it permits state intervention in religious matters to ensure equality. However, III is incorrect, as the Constitution prohibits discrimination on the basis of religion.
Question 15.
[1 Marks]
Which one of the following steps has been taken by the Election Commission of India to reform political parties?
Explanation: The correct answer is 'It has been made mandatory for all parties to conduct organizational elections and file income tax returns.' This is accurate because the context explicitly states that the Election Commission has mandated political parties to hold organizational elections and file their income tax returns, aimed at increasing transparency and accountability within political parties.
Question 16.
[1 Marks]
Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) : Multi-party system has been adopted in India.
Reason (R) : It is capable of accommodating all the social and geographical differences in India.
Explanation: Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). The assertion is correct as India has indeed adopted a multi-party system due to its vast social and geographical diversity. The reason correctly explains that this system is effective in representing various interests which arise from India's varied social fabric, thus making it suitable for the country.
Question 17.
Which one of the following is a scheduled language as per the Constitution of India?
[1 Marks]
Explanation: Nepali is the correct answer because it is listed among the 22 scheduled languages recognized by the Constitution of India, while Bhojpuri, Garhwali, and Rajasthani are not officially recognized as scheduled languages.
Question 18.
[1 Marks]
Two statements, I and II are given below. Read both the statements and choose the correct option.
Statement I : Women are now actively contributing to various professions including roles as doctors, engineers, lawyers, managers and university teachers.
Statement II : Political expression of gender division and political mobilization helped to improve women’s role in public life.
Explanation: Both statements I and II are true. Statement I highlights the active participation of women in various professions, reflecting the advancements made over time. Statement II explains that political expression and mobilization around gender issues have been crucial in improving women's roles in public life, thereby serving as a correct explanation for the progress mentioned in Statement I. Thus, the correct option is that Statements I and II are true and II is the correct explanation of I.
Question 19.
[1 Marks]
In one of the small villages, a farmer borrows money from the village moneylender at a high monthly interest rate but is not able to repay it back. Next, he borrows it from a bank at a lower interest rate. Gradually he earns and pays back the loan to the moneylender and the bank.
Which of the following best describes the role of the bank in this credit situation?
Explanation: The correct answer is 'The bank saves the farmer from debt-trap.' This is because the farmer initially borrowed from the moneylender at a high interest rate, which could lead to a situation of being trapped in debt. By borrowing from the bank at a lower interest rate, the farmer is able to manage his repayments more effectively and avoid the exploitative terms of informal lenders.
Question 20.
[1 Marks]
Look at the given picture. The work being done in the picture comes under which one of the following economic sectors?
Explanation: The correct answer is the Tertiary sector because it includes activities that provide support to people involved in primary and secondary activities. The work depicted in the picture, based on the context provided, relates to services that are essential for facilitating processes like healthcare, trade, and logistics, which are part of the tertiary sector.
Question 21.
[1 Marks]
Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) : Rural poor families are still dependent on informal sources of credit.
Reason (R) : For obtaining loan from banks, collateral and special documents are required.
Explanation: Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). The assertion is correct as rural poor families indeed depend on informal sources of credit due to the lack of access to formal banking systems. The reason is also true because obtaining loans from banks typically requires collateral and extensive documentation, which many poor households cannot provide. However, the reason does not directly explain why the assertion is true; the reliance on informal credit stems more from the absence of equitable access to bank loans rather than just the documentation requirements.
Question 22.
Which one of the following is included in ‘liberalization’?
[1 Marks]
Explanation: The correct option is 'Removing trade barriers'. Liberalization involves reducing or eliminating government restrictions on trade, allowing businesses to operate more freely in both import and export activities. This aligns with the context that describes liberalization as the process where the government imposes fewer restrictions than before.
Question 23.
Which one of the following sectors has the highest share in employment in India?
[1 Marks]
Explanation: The correct answer is 'Primary'. Although the tertiary sector has become the largest in terms of production, the primary sector continues to be the largest employer, with most of the workforce involved in agriculture and related activities.
Question 24.
[1 Marks]
Select the formal sources of credit from the given sources and choose the correct option.
I. Bank
II Moneylender
III Cooperatives
IV Businessman
Explanation:
The correct option is 'Only I and III' because, according to the context, formal sources of credit include banks and cooperatives. Moneylenders and businessmen are categorized as informal sources of credit.
Section C
Question 25.
Why was the Indian subcontinent central to the flows of the trading network before the sixteenth century? Explain.
[2 Marks]
Answer: The Indian subcontinent was central to trading networks before the sixteenth century due to its strategic geographical location. It served as a hub connecting land and maritime routes to Central Asia, the Arabian Sea, and Southeast Asia. Indian goods like spices, textiles, and precious materials were in high demand across various regions, facilitating extensive trade. Furthermore, cultural exchanges enriched societies, while the entry of Europeans began to redirect trade flows towards Europe.
Question 26.
Why was the need for decentralisation recognized in the Indian Constitution? Explain.
[2 Marks]
Answer: The need for decentralisation was recognized in the Indian Constitution to address the historical centralization imposed by the colonial government. It aimed to promote local self-government, ensure democratic participation, and allow states to manage their affairs effectively. The 1992 amendment was crucial in giving constitutional status to local bodies, making regular elections mandatory, and enhancing local governance. Decentralisation helps in catering to the diverse needs of India's population and supports development at the grassroots level.
Question 27.
How have the developments in information and communication technology been the major factor to enable globalisation? Explain.
[2 Marks]
Answer: Developments in information and communication technology (ICT) have significantly enabled globalisation by facilitating instant communication and efficient information sharing across the globe. The internet and mobile telecommunications allow businesses to operate internationally, overcoming geographical barriers. Furthermore, ICT has enhanced the coordination of production and trade, exemplified by multinational companies managing operations worldwide. These technologies also foster cultural exchange, making the world feel smaller and more interconnected, thus driving global economic integration.
Question 28.
[2 Marks]
‘Minerals occur in igneous and metamorphic rocks.’’ Explain the statement with example.
Answer: Minerals are found within igneous and metamorphic rocks, typically occurring in cracks, crevices, and faults. These smaller deposits are called veins, while larger accumulations are known as lodes. For example, copper, zinc, and lead are significant metallic minerals extracted from veins in igneous rocks, showcasing their role in mineral formation. In metamorphic rocks, the alteration process can also concentrate minerals, leading to valuable ores.
Question 29.
[2 Marks]
‘‘The ocean waters contain vast quantities of minerals.’’ Explain the statement with example.
Answer: The ocean waters hold a vast array of dissolved minerals, including common salt, magnesium, and bromine, which are critical for various industrial processes. Although these minerals are present in low concentrations and are widely distributed, they still have significant importance. For instance, common salt is harvested from seawater and used extensively in food and chemical industries. Additionally, the ocean floors are rich in manganese nodules, which are important for metal production.
Section D
Question 30.
Explain the role of women in the Civil Disobedience Movement, with examples.
[3 Marks]
Answer: Women played a pivotal role in the Civil Disobedience Movement, stepping out of their traditional roles into active participation. Initially, Gandhi was reluctant to include women, but he eventually recognized their potential after persuasion from leaders like Sarojini Naidu. They engaged in activities such as the Salt Satyagraha, where thousands marched and manufactured salt, thereby defying British laws. Notable figures like Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay inspired many women to join protests, picketing foreign cloth and liquor shops. This movement not only allowed women to contribute to the national struggle but also facilitated their emergence in public life. It marked a significant shift in women's activism and showcased their capacity for leadership and resistance, with personal stories like that of Ambabai from Karnataka, who faced arrest and imprisonment for her commitment.
Question 31.
Describe any three impacts of globalisation on Indian agriculture.
[3 Marks]
Answer: Globalisation has significantly transformed Indian agriculture in various ways. Firstly, it has led to increased access to modern agricultural inputs such as tractors, pumpsets, fertilizers, and pesticides, allowing farmers to enhance productivity. However, this also means that any rise in input costs can directly reduce farmers' profits, leading to financial stress. Secondly, the global market integration has exposed Indian farmers to international price fluctuations. For example, if cotton prices fall due to global competition, farmers may struggle to sustain their livelihoods. Lastly, globalisation has encouraged the shift towards cash crops, which can lead to a decline in food security, as farmers may prioritize lucrative crops over essential food production.
Question 32.
Analyse any three challenges faced by political parties in India.
[3 Marks]
Answer: Political parties in India face several challenges that hinder their effectiveness in democracy. The first challenge is the lack of internal democracy, which manifests as power being concentrated in the hands of a few leaders. Many parties do not hold regular internal elections or maintain membership lists, affecting the participation of ordinary members. The second challenge is the influence of money and muscle power, where wealthy candidates are prioritized, leading to corruption in the electoral process. This reliance on funding often compromises the integrity of the candidates nominated. Lastly, political parties often fail to provide meaningful choices to voters, leading to dissatisfaction and disillusionment among the electorate. This lack of genuine policy differences makes it difficult for voters to hold parties accountable, which ultimately undermines democracy.
Question 33.
Describe any three characteristics of the Indian federal system.
[3 Marks]
Answer: The Indian federal system is characterized by a two-tier structure of governance, comprising the Union Government at the national level and State Governments. Additionally, a third tier was introduced through the Panchayati Raj system, emphasizing decentralized governance at the local level. Another key characteristic is the constitutional distribution of powers, where subjects are categorized into Union, State, and Concurrent Lists, allowing both levels of government to legislate on specified matters. Finally, federalism in India is deeply rooted in democracy, ensuring that diverse regional identities are respected while maintaining national unity.
Question 34.
Why has the issue of sustainability become essential for development in present times? Explain with example.
[3 Marks]
Answer: The issue of sustainability has become paramount for development in modern times due to the growing environmental crises and the urgent need for equitable resource distribution. As nations industrialize, the overutilization of resources like crude oil can lead to environmental degradation, which does not respect geopolitics. For instance, India, which relies heavily on oil imports, faces economic instability due to fluctuating prices. Sustainable practices, such as conservation and renewable energy adoption, can mitigate these issues, ensuring resources for future generations. By conserving biodiversity and minimizing resource depletion, countries can pursue a balanced approach that caters to present needs while safeguarding the planet's health.
Question 35.
[3 Marks]
How did the Indian folklore and symbols strengthen the idea of nationalism during the twentieth century ? Explain with examples.
Answer: Indian folklore and symbols played a pivotal role in shaping nationalism during the twentieth century, serving as cultural foundations that inspired unity among diverse communities. Nationalists such as Rabindranath Tagore collected folk tales and songs, highlighting India's rich traditions and creating a sense of shared identity. The Swadeshi movement, which featured the adoption of a tricolor flag, reinforced national pride. Ultimately, these cultural elements fostered a collective consciousness, emphasizing India’s historical legacy and strengthening aspirations for independence from British rule.
Section E
Question 36.
Evaluate the role of Giuseppe Mazzini in the unification of the Italian Republic.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Giuseppe Mazzini played a pivotal role in the unification of Italy by advocating for a democratic republic and the idea of national identity. He founded the secret society Young Italy in 1831 to promote his vision of a unified Italian Republic, emphasizing that God intended nations to be natural units for mankind. His relentless opposition to monarchy and call for national rights inspired many revolutionaries, leading movements not just in Italy but across Europe. Mazzini’s theories of nationalism influenced young revolutionaries in polities like Poland, Germany, and France, broadening the scope of national unification. Despite his failure to achieve immediate results through uprisings in 1831 and 1848, his ideas laid the groundwork for future successes. Mazzini's vision for a singular Italian identity and citizen rights contributed to popular sentiments that eventually led to unification under King Victor Emmanuel II in 1861, although many Italians remained illiterate and unaware of the liberal ideologies that fueled these movements. Ultimately, Mazzini remains celebrated as a true nationalist who sought not only to unify Italy but also to empower its citizens through the establishment of a republic based on individual rights and freedoms.
Question 37.
Evaluate the role of Otto von Bismarck in the unification of Germany.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Otto von Bismarck played a crucial role in the unification of Germany, acting as the chief architect of the process. By leveraging Prussia’s military strength and bureaucratic efficiency, Bismarck orchestrated three decisive wars between 1864 and 1871 – against Denmark, Austria, and France. Each war not only showcased Prussia's military capabilities but also rallied the German states around the idea of a unified nation. Bismarck's diplomatic skills further enabled him to manipulate European politics to Prussia's advantage, isolating Austria and securing alliances with other German states. His establishment of the German Empire in 1871, proclaimed at Versailles, marked the culmination of these efforts. Additionally, Bismarck's policies modernized Germany's economic systems, creating a unified currency and trade practices that strengthened national identity. Despite his ruthless realpolitik approach, Bismarck’s legacy is that of a unifier who transformed Germany into a powerful nation-state, demonstrating how nationalism could be harnessed to achieve political objectives.
Question 38.
‘Manufacturing sector is considered the backbone of development of the country.’ Justify the statement.
[5 Marks]
Answer: The manufacturing sector plays a crucial role in a country's development, acting as its economic backbone. Firstly, it modernizes agriculture, assisting in enhancing productivity and reducing dependency on agricultural income. By providing jobs in secondary and tertiary sectors, it opens a plethora of employment opportunities. Additionally, manufacturing industries are vital in generating foreign exchange through exports of finished products, thereby strengthening the country's economy. Furthermore, industrial development reduces unemployment and poverty, and strategically establishes industries in underdeveloped and tribal areas, promoting regional equity. The textile industry exemplifies this, contributing significantly to both employment and industrial output. Overall, a robust manufacturing sector leads to diversified economic growth, ensuring sustainable development for the nation.
Question 39.
‘Agriculture and Industry move hand in hand.’ Justify the statement.
[5 Marks]
Answer: The symbiotic relationship between agriculture and industry is pivotal for economic growth, particularly in India. Agriculture remains a primary sector, with a majority of the population engaged in it. Agro-based industries, such as textiles and sugar production, not only utilize agricultural raw materials but also enhance productivity through technological advancements. The manufacturing sector provides essential tools like fertilizers and irrigation pumps, thereby improving agricultural efficiency. Furthermore, the growth of agriculture fosters auxiliary sectors such as transport, trade, and storage, creating jobs and stimulating the economy. This interconnectedness leads to enhanced productivity in both sectors. As agriculture modernizes, it enables more individuals to transition to secondary and tertiary sectors, thus reducing dependency on agricultural income. Over time, the progress of manufacturing has empowered farmers to produce more efficiently, bridging the gap between traditional practices and industrial advancements. Ultimately, the collaboration between agriculture and industry is vital for sustaining economic development and improving the quality of life in rural areas.
Question 40.
Explain with examples the role of democracy in the reduction of inequality and poverty.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Democracy plays a significant role in addressing inequality and poverty by empowering citizens to participate in decision-making processes and ensuring political equality. One of the core principles of democracy is the recognition of the equal status of all individuals, which allows the poorest citizens to voice their concerns and influence policies that impact their lives. For instance, democratic initiatives like welfare programs and affirmative action can target marginalized communities, ensuring they receive resources and opportunities to improve their economic conditions. In contrast, countries like South Africa and Brazil illustrate that even within democracies, significant inequality can persist, with the wealthiest capturing a disproportionate share of national income. However, democracies provide mechanisms for public accountability and social movements, like the fight for land rights in India, which can lead to better economic outcomes. Overall, while democracy alone may not eradicate poverty, it fosters an environment where citizens can advocate for their rights and challenge systems of inequality, thus contributing to long-term social justice.
Question 41.
How is democracy a legitimate government? Explain with examples.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Democracy is considered a legitimate form of government primarily because it embodies the principle of the people's sovereignty. In a democratic system, the rulers are elected by the populace, ensuring that decisions reflect the will and needs of the majority. This legitimacy is evident in countries like India, where citizens participate in regular elections to choose their representatives. Moreover, democracies provide mechanisms for accountability and transparency, allowing citizens to scrutinize government actions. For instance, when the Indian government proposed a controversial law, public protests and discussions emerged, leading to a reconsideration of the policy. Additionally, democracies uphold fundamental rights and freedoms, ensuring that all citizens, regardless of their socio-economic background, have an equal voice. This system empowers individuals, enhances political equality, and fosters a sense of belonging. Therefore, the legitimacy of democracy is rooted in its ability to reflect the collective will of the people while providing avenues for correction and accountability, reinforcing its status as the most favored form of governance worldwide.
Question 42.
Explain the differences between public and private sector of economic activities.
[5 Marks]
Answer: The public and private sectors have distinct characteristics based on ownership and objectives. The public sector is owned and operated by the government, aiming to provide essential services to the population, often without a profit motive. This sector includes services like railways, schooling, and public health, which focus on social welfare and often involve state funding to ensure accessibility. Conversely, the private sector is operated by individuals or private entities for profit. Businesses like Tata Iron and Steel and Reliance Industries prioritize profitability and efficiency, often competing in the market to meet consumer demands. Furthermore, the public sector is funded through taxation, while the private sector relies on sales and investment revenue. The choice between these sectors also reflects broader economic ideologies; for instance, socialist systems favor public ownership, whereas capitalist economies support private enterprise. Overall, the balance between these sectors is crucial for a well-functioning economy.
Question 43.
Explain the differences between the organised and unorganised sector of economic activities.
[5 Marks]
Answer: The organised sector encompasses those enterprises that are officially registered, providing regular employment with established terms and conditions governed by government regulations. Workers in this sector benefit from job security, fair wages, and social security measures. In contrast, the unorganised sector consists of small, scattered units without formal recognition or regulation. Workers here often face irregular employment, lower pay, and lack of protection. They frequently experience social discrimination and exploitation. While the organised sector is crucial for economic stability, the unorganised sector plays a significant role in providing employment to a large portion of the workforce, particularly in urban areas through activities like street vending and casual labor. The unorganised sector lacks the supportive framework necessary for sustainable economic growth, making it essential to address the disparities and provide more robust protections for these workers. Overall, the differences in terms of job security, legal rights, and social benefits between these sectors illustrate the need for policies that bridge this gap and enhance workers' conditions in the unorganised sector.
Other Years — SOCIAL SCIENCE