social-science/
previous-year-question-paper-2024-set-2

SOLUTIONS

2024 BOARD EXAM

CBSE CLASS 10 SOCIAL SCIENCE Board Paper 2024 — Set 2

2024

SOCIAL SCIENCE

CLASS 10

CBSE EXAMINATION SOLVED PAPER-2024 SOCIAL SCIENCE

CBSE EXAMINATION PAPER-2024

SOCIAL SCIENCE

(Solved)

Time allowed : 3 hours

Maximum Marks : 88

General Instructions :

Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :

  1. This question paper contains 44 questions. All questions are compulsory.
  2. This question paper is divided into 5 sections.
  3. Section A – questions number 1 to 5 are case based questions
  4. Section B – questions number 6 to 25 are multiple choice questions
  5. Section C – questions number 26 to 30 are very short answer
  6. Section D – questions number 31 to 36 are short answer
  7. Section E – questions number 37 to 44 are long answer
  8. There is no overall choice given in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions.
  9. Use of calculator is NOT allowed.

Section A

Question 1.

Read the following source and answer the questions that follow :

Print and Censorship

The power of the printed word is most often seen in the way governments seek to regulate and suppress print. The colonial government kept continuous track of all books and newspapers published in India and passed numerous laws to control the press. During the First World War, under the Defense of India Rules, 22 newspapers had to furnish securities. Of these, 18 shut down rather than comply with government orders. The Sedition Committee Report under Rowlatt in 1919 further strengthened controls that led to imposition of penalties on various newspapers. At the outbreak of the Second World War, the Defense of India Act was passed, allowing censoring of reports of war-related topics. All reports about the Quit India Movement came under its purview. In August 1942, about 90 newspapers were suppressed.

(1) What method did the colonial government employ to keep track of Indian newspapers?

[1 Marks]
Answer: The colonial government employed the method of continuous tracking of all books and newspapers published in India, implementing numerous laws to control the press. For instance, under the Defence of India Rules during the First World War, newspapers were required to furnish securities, while subsequent legislative measures allowed the government to confiscate newspapers deemed objectionable or seditious.
Key Points: Continuous tracking of newspapers - Implementation of laws to control print - Requirement for newspapers to furnish securities

(2) Analyse the impact of ‘Sedition Committee’ on Newspapers.

[2 Marks]
Answer: The Sedition Committee, established in 1919, had a significant impact on newspapers in colonial India by imposing stringent controls and penalties on the press. It strengthened the existing regulatory framework, leading to increased government censorship. Many newspapers were forced to furnish securities, and 18 of 22 newspapers chose to shut down rather than comply with these oppressive regulations. The Rowlatt Act created an environment where the government had extensive rights to censor any seditious content, leading to heightened restrictions on journalistic freedom and the suppression of nationalist voices.
Key Points: Sedition Committee established in 1919; strengthened controls on press; newspapers had to furnish securities; 18 of 22 newspapers shut down; extensive rights to censor; suppression of nationalist voices

(3) How did the colonial government’s laws affect the press?

[1 Marks]
Answer: The colonial government's laws severely restricted press freedom by imposing strict regulations and censorship. For instance, under the Defense of India Rules during the First World War, many newspapers were shut down instead of complying with government orders. The implementation of the Sedition Committee Report in 1919 led to increased penalties on newspapers, while the Defense of India Act allowed censorship of war-related news and led to the suppression of around 90 newspapers during the Quit India Movement in 1942. Such measures aimed to control and suppress dissent, significantly affecting the operation of the press in India.
Key Points: Colonial laws imposed strict regulations and censorship-18 newspapers shut down under Defense of India Rules- penalties enforced by the Sedition Committee in 1919- censorship during the Quit India Movement affected around 90 newspapers.
Question 2.

Read the following source and answer the questions that follow :

Project Tiger

Project Tiger Tiger is one of the key wildlife species in the faunal web. In 1973, the authorities realized that the tiger population had dwindled to 1,827 from an estimated 55,000 at the turn of the 20th century. The major threats to tiger population are numerous, such as poaching for trade, shrinking habitat, depletion of prey base species, growing human population, etc. The trade of tiger skins and the use of their bones in traditional medicines, especially in the Asian countries left the tiger population on the verge of extinction. Since India and Nepal provide habitat to about two-thirds of the surviving tiger population in the world, these two nations become prime targets for poaching and illegal trading.

“Project Tiger”, one of the well publicized wildlife campaigns in the world, was launched in 1973. Tiger conservation has been viewed not only as an effort to save an endangered species but with equal importance as a means of preserving biotypes of sizeable magnitude. Corbett National Park in Uttarakhand, Sunderbans National Park in West Bengal, Bandhavgarh National Park in Madhya Pradesh, Sariska Wildlife Sanctuary in Rajasthan, Manas Tiger Reserve in Assam and Periyar Tiger Reserve in Kerala are some examples of the tiger reserves in India.

(1) Why was ‘Project Tiger’ considered a significant step for Tiger Conservation?

[1 Marks]
Answer: ‘Project Tiger’ was considered a significant step for tiger conservation because it aimed to protect the dwindling tiger population from threats like poaching and habitat loss. Launched in 1973, it recognized the necessity of conserving not only tigers but also the biotypes they inhabit, ensuring ecological balance. Given that India and Nepal host two-thirds of the world's tigers, Project Tiger was critical in addressing illegal trading and preserving this key species in the faunal web.
Key Points: Protection against poaching-Recognition of ecological balance-Conservation of habitats and biotypes

(2) What role did India play in the global tiger population?

[1 Marks]
Answer: India plays a crucial role in the global tiger population, as it and Nepal provide habitat for about two-thirds of all surviving tigers in the world. The country launched 'Project Tiger' in 1973, which is one of the world's most prominent wildlife conservation campaigns, aimed at preserving the endangered tiger species and their habitats. Efforts include establishing numerous national parks and reserves to protect these majestic animals from poaching and habitat loss.
Key Points: India hosts two-thirds of the global tiger population-Project Tiger launched in 1973-national parks established for tiger conservation

(3) Mention any two major threats to the wildlife species.

[2 Marks]
Answer: Two major threats to the wildlife species, particularly the tiger population, are poaching for trade and shrinking habitat. Poaching has greatly reduced the number of tigers due to illegal hunting for their skins and bones, while shrinking habitat due to human encroachment has diminished the area in which tigers can live and hunt.
Key Points: Poaching for trade - shrinking habitat
Question 3.

Read the following extract and answer the questions that follow :

Linguistic diversity of India

How many languages do we have in India? The answer depends on how one counts it. The latest information that we have is from the Census of India held in 2011. This census recorded more than 1300 distinct languages which people mentioned as their mother tongues. These languages were grouped together under some major languages. For example, languages like Bhojpuri, Magadhi, Bundelkhandi, Chhattisgarhi, Rajasthani and many others were grouped together under ‘Hindi’. Even after this grouping, the Census found 121 major languages. Of these, 22 languages are now included in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution and are therefore called ‘Scheduled Languages’. Others are called ‘Non-Scheduled Languages’. In terms of languages, India is perhaps the most diverse country in the world.

(1) How many languages were recorded as mother tongues in the 2011 Census of India?

[1 Marks]
Answer: The 2011 Census of India recorded more than 1300 distinct languages as mother tongues.
Key Points: "Census 2011, Mother Tongues, Languages Count"

(2) How does the inclusion of languages in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution contribute to linguistic diversity? Explain.

[2 Marks]
Answer: Inclusion in the Eighth Schedule recognizes languages officially, promoting their use and preservation, thereby contributing to India's linguistic diversity.
Key Points: "Eighth Schedule, Scheduled Languages, Diversity"

(3) How were the languages grouped together in the Census report?

[1 Marks]
Answer: Languages were grouped together under major languages, with many dialects being classified under a single language like Hindi.
Key Points: "Grouping, Major Languages, Census Report"
Question 4.

Two places 'A' and 'B' have been marked on the given Political outline map of India. Identify them with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them:

(1)

The place where Gandhiji broke the salt law.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The place where Gandhiji broke the salt law is Dandi.
Key Points: Dandi-Gandhiji-salt law

(2)

The place where Session of India National Congress was held in 1920.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The place where the Session of the Indian National Congress was held in 1920 is Nagpur.
Key Points: Nagpur

(3)

On the same Political outline map of India locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols:

(i) Salal–Dam

(ii) Kalpakkam–Nuclear Power Plant

(iii) Bengaluru–Software Technology Park

(iv) Mormugao–Major Sea Port

[3 Marks]
Answer: On the Political outline map of India, I have labeled the following locations with suitable symbols: 1. Salal Dam is located near the Chenab River in Jammu and Kashmir, represented by a dam symbol. 2. The Kalpakkam Nuclear Power Plant, situated near Chennai in Tamil Nadu, is represented by a nuclear symbol. 3. The Software Technology Park in Bengaluru, Karnataka, is marked with a computer symbol. Each symbol corresponds to the respective facility and aids in visual identification on the map.
Key Points: Label Salal Dam with a dam symbol; Label Kalpakkam Nuclear Power Plant with a nuclear symbol; Label Bengaluru Software Technology Park with a computer symbol
Question 5.

Note: The following question is for Visually Impaired Candidates only

Attempt any five questions:

(1)

Name the place where Gandhiji Broke Salt Law.

[1 Marks]
Answer: Gandhiji broke the Salt Law at Dandi.
Key Points: Dandi-1860-1930

(2)

Name the state where Kalpakkam Nuclear Power Plant is located.

[3 Marks]
Answer: The Kalpakkam Nuclear Power Plant is located in the state of Tamil Nadu, India. It is one of the key nuclear power locations in the country and contributes significantly to India's atomic energy production.
Key Points: Kalpakkam Nuclear Power Plant-Tamil Nadu-atomic energy production

(3)

Name the state where Tehri dam is located.

[1 Marks]
Answer: Tehri dam is located in the state of Uttarakhand.
Key Points: Tehri dam-Uttarakhand-region-hydropower

(4)

Name the state where Bengaluru Software Plant is located.

[1 Marks]
Answer: Bengaluru Software Plant is located in the state of Karnataka.
Key Points: Bengaluru is in Karnataka

(5)

Name the place where the Indian National Congress session was held in 1920.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The Indian National Congress session in 1920 was held in the city of Kolkata (formerly Calcutta).
Key Points: Kolkata-1920-session-Indian National Congress

(6)

Name the state where Mormugao Sea Port is located.

[1 Marks]
Answer: Mormugao Sea Port is located in the state of Goa.
Key Points: Mormugao Sea Port-Goa-premier iron ore exporting port

Section B

Question 6. The German philosopher ‘Johann Gottfried’ belonged to which one of the following schools of thought?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Socialist
  • (B) Romanticist
  • (C) Liberalist
  • (D) Marxist
Explanation: The correct answer is 'Romanticist' because Johann Gottfried Herder, referred to in the context, is identified with the Romantic movement in Germany. He emphasized the importance of folk culture and the spirit of the nation, concepts that are central to Romanticism.
Question 7.

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A): ‘The Act of Union 1707’ between England and Scotland resulted in the formation of ‘United Kingdom of Great Britain’.

Reason (R): England wanted to impose its influence on Scotland.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) (A) is false but (R) is true.
  • (B) (A) is true but (R) is false.
  • (C) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Explanation: Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). The Act of Union 1707 did indeed create the United Kingdom of Great Britain and was driven by England's desire to impose its dominance over Scotland, leading to English control over the British Parliament and the suppression of Scottish culture.
Question 8.

Arrange the following events in chronological order and choose the correct option:

I. Treaty of Constantinople

II. Hamburg granted autonomy to Hungary

III. Balkan Conflict

IV. Napoleonic Civil Code

[1 Marks]
  • (A) IV, I, II & III
  • (B) I, IV, III & II
  • (C) IV, II, I & III
  • (D) III, II, IV & I
Explanation: The correct order of events is IV, II, I & III. The Napoleonic Civil Code (IV) was established during the Napoleonic Wars in the late 18th century. The Hamburg granted autonomy to Hungary (II) occurred in the mid-19th century. The Treaty of Constantinople (I) was signed in 1832 following the Greek struggle for independence. The Balkan Conflict (III) arose later in the 19th century and early 20th century due to the complex rivalries in the region. Thus, the correct chronological sequence is IV, II, I, and then III.
Question 9.

Choose the correct option to fill the blank.

Non Metallic Mineral: Mica.

Energy Mineral: ..........

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Bauxite
  • (B) Platinum
  • (C) Natural Gas
  • (D) Manganese
Explanation: The correct option is 'Natural Gas'. According to the context provided, energy minerals include coal, petroleum, and natural gas. Therefore, natural gas is the accurate choice to fill in the blank.
Question 10.

Read the following characteristics of a soil and identify the soil from the given options: -

  • It is widely spread and important soil.

  • Northern plains are made of it.

  • It consists of sand, silt, and clay.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Black soil
  • (B) Alluvial soil
  • (C) Laterite soil
  • (D) Yellow soil
Explanation: The correct answer is Alluvial soil. This soil is widely spread and is primarily found in the northern plains of India, as mentioned in the context. It consists of a mix of sand, silt, and clay, making it very fertile and suitable for agriculture.
Question 11.

Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option:

Column-I (Crop)

I. Wheat a. Millet Crop

II. Ragi b. Beverage Crop

III. Tea c. Food Crop

IV. Maize d. Food & Fodder Crop

[1 Marks]
  • (A) d a c b
  • (B) c d b a
  • (C) d b a c
  • (D) c a b d
Explanation:

The correct matching is: I. Wheat - c. Food Crop, II. Ragi - a. Millet Crop, III. Tea - b. Beverage Crop, IV. Maize - d. Food & Fodder Crop. Wheat, maize, and ragi are primarily categorized under food crops, while tea is classified as a beverage crop. Therefore, the option 'd a c b' is correct.

Question 12.

Read the following statements and choose the correct term mentioned in the Indian Constitution from the given options: -

  • There is no official religion for the Indian State.

  • There is freedom to profess, practice and propagate any religion in India.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Secular
  • (B) Sovereign
  • (C) Socialist
  • (D) Republic
Explanation: The correct answer is 'Secular' because the Indian Constitution explicitly establishes India as a secular state. This means that the state does not have an official religion, and it ensures freedom for individuals to profess, practice, and propagate any religion, aligning with the principles of secularism discussed in the provided context.
Question 13.

Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

(Subject List in the Indian Constitution) (Subject)

(A) Union List Subjects – Communication

(B) State List Subjects – Education

(C) Concurrent List Subjects – Adoption

(D) Residuary Subjects – Marriages

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Residuary Subjects – Marriages
  • (B) Concurrent List Subjects – Adoption
  • (C) Union List Subjects – Communication
  • (D) State List Subjects – Education
Explanation: The correct pair is (B) State List Subjects – Education. According to the context provided, the Concurrent List includes subjects of common interest, such as education, which is the correct category for this option. Therefore, option B is correctly matched as education is covered under the Concurrent List, not solely under the State List.
Question 14.

Read the following statements about power sharing arrangement in Belgium and choose the correct option:

I. Brussels has a separate govt. with equal representation.

II. Dutch & French speaking ministers are equal in Central Govt.

III. Community Govt. is elected by People belonging to one language.

IV. Series of majoritarian measures adopted in Belgium.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) I, II and III
  • (B) I, III and IV
  • (C) I, II and IV
  • (D) II, III and IV
Explanation: The correct option is I, II and III. Statement I is correct as Brussels has separate government with equal representation from both communities. Statement II is also accurate because the constitution mandates equal representation of Dutch and French-speaking ministers in the central government. Statement III is correct as the Community Government is indeed elected by people belonging to one linguistic community. Statement IV is incorrect as it contradicts the power-sharing model in Belgium, where majoritarian measures are not widely adopted.
Question 15. Which one of the following countries has ‘one-party system’?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) United States of America
  • (B) United Kingdom
  • (C) India
  • (D) China
Explanation: The correct answer is China because, as stated in the context, only the Communist Party is allowed to rule, making it a one-party system. In contrast, the United States, India, and the United Kingdom have either a two-party or multiparty system.
Question 16. Which one of the following is a fundamental principle of democracy?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Rule of single individual
  • (B) Rule of people with freedom
  • (C) Rule with hereditary norms
  • (D) Rule of military chiefs
Explanation: The correct option is 'Rule of people with freedom'. This reflects the core tenet of democracy, where the people are the source of political power and have the right to self-governance through their elected representatives. In a democratic system, rulers are accountable to the people, and decisions are made based on the will of the majority while respecting the rights of all citizens.
Question 17. Which one of the following languages is included in the Eighth Schedule in the Indian Constitution?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Hariyanavi
  • (B) Odia
  • (C) Rajasthani
  • (D) Garhwali
Explanation: Odia is the correct answer as it is one of the 22 languages recognized as Scheduled Languages in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution. Unlike Garhwali, Rajasthani, and Hariyanavi, which are not included in this schedule, Odia is officially recognized and has a significant number of speakers in India.
Question 18.

Choose the correct option to fill the blank.

Literacy Rate measures the proportion of literate population in the _____ years and above age group.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) 5
  • (B) 8
  • (C) 10
  • (D) 7
Explanation: The correct answer is 7. The relevant context states that 'Literacy Rate measures the proportion of literate population in the 7-and-above age group.' This confirms that the measure of literacy applies to individuals who are at least 7 years old.
Question 19. Assume there are four families in a locality. If the incomes of these four families in a week are ₹2,000, ₹5,000, ₹3,000 and ₹6,000, then the weekly average income of the locality will be –
[1 Marks]
  • (A) ₹5,000
  • (B) ₹4,000
  • (C) ₹2,000
  • (D) ₹1,000
Explanation: To calculate the average income, we sum the incomes of the families (₹2,000 + ₹5,000 + ₹3,000 + ₹6,000 = ₹16,000) and divide by the number of families (4). Thus, the average income is ₹16,000 / 4 = ₹4,000, which is one of the options provided.
Question 20.

Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

(Sector of the Economy) Example

(A) Primary Sector – Tailor

(B) Secondary Sector – Fisherman

(C) Tertiary Sector – Astronaut

(D) Primary Sector – Courier

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Primary Sector – Tailor
  • (B) Secondary Sector – Fisherman
  • (C) Tertiary Sector – Astronaut
  • (D) Primary Sector – Courier
Explanation:

The correct option is (A) Primary Sector – Tailor. The Primary Sector involves activities that directly use natural resources, such as agriculture, mining, and fishing. A fisherman is associated with the primary sector, but a tailor works in the secondary sector (manufacturing). The tertiary sector involves services, and an astronaut is not categorized correctly. Therefore, none of the other pairs are correctly matched.

Question 21.

Look at the given image. The work done in the image comes under which one of the following sectors?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Organized sector
  • (B) Primary sector
  • (C) Public sector
  • (D) Unorganized sector
Explanation:

The correct answer is 'Primary sector' because it involves activities like agriculture, fishing, forestry, and mining, which are directly related to extracting raw materials from nature, as described in the relevant context.

Question 22. Which of the following is the primary purpose of loan activities offered by banks?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) To increase income of MNCs
  • (B) To compete with other financial institutions
  • (C) To generate profits for the primary sector only
  • (D) To support economic growth
Explanation: The correct option is 'To support economic growth.' This is because banks extend loans to facilitate various economic activities, thereby helping individuals and businesses generate income, create jobs, and ultimately contribute to the overall economic development.
Question 23.

Match the following aspects of globalization with their descriptions and choose the correct option:

List-I (Global Aspect)

I. Technological Advancement a. Interaction of ideas, values and traditions II. Liberalization of Trade b. Companies operating in many countries III. Cultural Exchange c. Innovation in manufacturing, communication and information

IV. Multinational Corporations d. The removal of restriction on trade

[1 Marks]
  • (A) b a d c
  • (B) d c b a
  • (C) a b c d
  • (D) c d a b
Explanation: The correct option is 'c d a b'. Technological Advancement corresponds to 'c' (Innovation in manufacturing, communication, and information) as rapid improvements in technology have been crucial for globalization. Liberalization of Trade is matched with 'd' (The removal of restriction on trade) because it involves removing barriers to trade. Cultural Exchange corresponds to 'a' (Interaction of ideas, values, and traditions) since globalization facilitates cultural interactions. Finally, Multinational Corporations match with 'b' (Companies operating in many countries) as they are significant contributors to globalization.
Question 24. Choose the correct option regarding ‘Body Mass Index’ (BMI) from the following.
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Assessment of Blood Pressure
  • (B) Assessment of Blood Sugar Level
  • (C) Assessment of Body Composition
  • (D) Assessment of under Nutrition
Explanation: The correct option is 'Assessment of Body Composition.' BMI is specifically a measure used to assess body composition by calculating a person's weight in relation to their height. It does not directly measure undernutrition, blood sugar level, or blood pressure.
Question 25.

Note : The following question is for the Visually Impaired Candidates in lieu of question no.17.

Which one of the following enterprises belongs to the organized sector?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Multinational Corporations
  • (B) Cottage Industries
  • (C) Street Vendors
  • (D) Independent Freelancers
Explanation: Multinational Corporations belong to the organized sector as they are registered by the government, adhere to labor laws, and provide regular employment with guaranteed work conditions. In contrast, Independent Freelancers, Street Vendors, and Cottage Industries typically operate in the unorganized sector, characterized by irregular employment and lack of formal regulations.

Section C

Question 26. “Conservative regimes set up in Europe in 1815 were autocratic.” Support the statement by giving any two arguments.
[2 Marks]
Answer: The conservative regimes established in Europe after 1815 were indeed autocratic, primarily due to their rejection of democratic principles and suppression of liberal movements. Firstly, these regimes upheld traditional institutions like monarchy and the Church, prioritizing control over nationalistic and liberal demands. Secondly, they imposed strict censorship laws to suppress dissent, preventing any challenge to their authority. This environment fostered an atmosphere of repression that characterized the autocratic nature of their governance.
Question 27. How is horizontal power sharing different from vertical? Explain.
[2 Marks]
Answer: Horizontal power sharing refers to the distribution of power among various organs of government, like the legislature, executive, and judiciary, ensuring a check on each other’s powers. In contrast, vertical power sharing involves the distribution of power among different levels of government, such as central and state governments, which represent various geographic areas. Both forms of power sharing are essential for preventing concentration of power and ensuring democratic governance.
Question 28. How can a nation achieve a balance between economic growth and environmental sustainability? Explain by giving any two arguments.
[2 Marks]
Answer: A nation can balance economic growth and environmental sustainability by implementing sustainable practices and innovating technology. Firstly, sustainable practices, such as resource conservation and eco-friendly industries, ensure that development does not deplete resources, allowing future generations to thrive. Secondly, investing in green technologies promotes economic growth while minimizing environmental harm, fostering innovation in renewable energy and environmentally-friendly infrastructure. Both approaches contribute to a healthier economy and environment.
Question 29.

Differentiate between Primitive Subsistence and Commercial Farming.

[2 Marks]
Answer: Primitive subsistence farming is characterized by small-scale cultivation primarily for family consumption, using traditional tools and methods, and relying heavily on natural resources. In contrast, commercial farming focuses on large-scale production for sale in the market, utilizing advanced technology, capital investment, and often mechanization. This type of farming typically aims for profit maximization and higher yields using modern inputs. The fundamental difference lies in the purpose and scale of farming operations.
Question 30.

Differentiate between Rabi and Kharif cropping seasons.

[2 Marks]
Answer: Rabi and Kharif are two distinct cropping seasons in India. Rabi crops, such as wheat, barley, and mustard, are sown in winter (October to December) and harvested in spring (April to June). In contrast, Kharif crops, including paddy, maize, and cotton, are sown with the onset of the monsoon from June to July and harvested in autumn (September to October). Thus, the timing, crops, and climatic conditions for each season differ significantly.

Section D

Question 31. How was the 'Silk Route' an example of vibrant pre-modern trade? Explain.
[3 Marks]
Answer: The Silk Route was a pivotal network of trade routes connecting Asia with Europe, facilitating the exchange of goods, ideas, and cultures. Originating in China, it primarily carried silk westward, while spices, textiles, and precious metals traveled in the opposite direction. This route not only fostered economic interactions but also cultural exchange, with ideas like Buddhism and early Christianity spreading along these paths. Merchants and travelers, including figures like Marco Polo, played significant roles, highlighting the vibrant interplay of commerce and culture that defined this historical trade network. The Silk Route exemplified how trade can bind distant regions, creating interconnectedness that shaped societies across continents.
Question 32.

"India’s prosperity lies in expanding and diversifying its manufacturing industries." Justify the statement.

[3 Marks]
Answer: India's prosperity significantly relies on expanding and diversifying its manufacturing industries due to various reasons. First, establishing industries in tribal and backward areas helps in regional development and employment generation. Furthermore, India's capacity to export manufactured goods elevates trade, bringing in vital foreign exchange that strengthens its economy. Countries that convert raw materials into varied finished products increase their wealth, emphasizing the need for diversification. For instance, agro-industries boost agricultural productivity, showcasing the interdependence of agriculture and industry. Ultimately, enhancing the manufacturing sector is crucial for India to become more competitive and self-sufficient in a globalized economy.
Question 33. Explain any three responsibilities carried out by the political parties in a democracy.
[3 Marks]
Answer: Political parties play a vital role in a democracy by performing several key responsibilities. Firstly, they contest elections and select candidates to represent their parties, reflecting diverse interests within society. Secondly, they formulate and promote policies that aim to address the needs and concerns of the public. By engaging in policy-making, parties seek to win popular support. Lastly, political parties serve as a mechanism for holding the government accountable, either by justifying or opposing government actions and decisions, thus ensuring transparency and democracy.
Question 34. Examine the significance of credit in the economic development of the country.
[3 Marks]
Answer: Credit plays a crucial role in the economic development of a country by providing the necessary financial resources for various sectors, including agriculture, industry, and trade. It enables individuals and businesses to invest in growth, thereby boosting productivity and creating jobs. Access to formal credit, supervised by institutions like the Reserve Bank of India, ensures that funds are available at reasonable terms, promoting economic stability. Moreover, when credit is accessible to both the rich and the poor, it fosters equal opportunities, reducing dependence on informal lenders who often charge exorbitant rates. By empowering economically disadvantaged groups, credit enhances their capabilities to contribute to the economy, leading to overall national growth. In essence, a well-structured credit system can spark significant development, as highlighted by experts like Professor Muhammad Yunus.
Question 35.

"Tertiary sector has a pivotal role in the economy of the country. "Support your answer with day-to-day examples.

[3 Marks]
Answer: The tertiary sector is crucial for economic growth, as it provides essential services that support both primary and secondary sectors. For instance, transportation services like trucks and trains move agricultural products such as grains and vegetables to markets, facilitating trade. Hospitals offer healthcare services that ensure a healthy workforce while educational institutions prepare skilled individuals for the job market. Banks provide financial support for businesses, and communication services enhance connectivity. With the rise of information technology, software development has also become a significant component, illustrating how the tertiary sector underpins everyday life, enhancing productivity and community welfare.
Question 36.

How did food promote long-distance cultural contacts in the pre-modern world? Explain

[3 Marks]
Answer: Food played a vital role in fostering long-distance cultural contacts in the pre-modern world, primarily through trade routes such as the Silk Roads. These routes facilitated the exchange of not only goods but also culinary practices. For instance, staples like pasta and potatoes traveled across regions, linking cultures through shared cuisines. Traders, pilgrims, and travelers introduced new crops, including spices, tea, and coffee, which influenced local agriculture and diets. Additionally, food served as a medium for cultural exchange, with recipes and cooking techniques reflecting the merging of traditions. This exchange contributed significantly to the development of global agricultural economies and cultural diversity.

Section E

Question 37.

"The Gandhian idea of Satyagraha emphasized the power of truth and struggle against injustice." Explain the statement with examples.

[5 Marks]
Answer: The Gandhian concept of Satyagraha is pivotal in the struggle for justice, emphasizing the absolute power of truth and non-violent resistance. Satyagraha, translated as 'truth force,' morally asserts that righteous causes must be fought without resorting to violence. Gandhi’s early success in South Africa established this approach, where he organized protests against discriminatory laws using non-violence. In 1919, the Rowlatt Satyagraha highlighted a collective non-violent resistance against oppressive laws, marking a significant moment in India's freedom struggle. Gandhi called for a national hartal, encouraging passive resistance to express collective grief and oppose injustice. Similarly, the Salt Satyagraha of 1930, where Gandhi and his followers marched to the sea to produce salt, transformed a common commodity into a symbol of civil disobedience. These examples reflect how Satyagraha unites individuals across cultures and backgrounds, showcasing the effectiveness of non-violence in confronting tyranny. Gandhi believed that through Satyagraha, truth would ultimately prevail, reshaping social consciousness while fostering national unity.
Question 38. How did people belonging to different communities, regions and language groups develop a sense of collective belonging in the late-nineteenth century India? Explain with examples.
[5 Marks]
Answer: In the late nineteenth century, the sense of collective belonging among diverse Indian communities became increasingly pronounced, fueled by shared experiences of colonial oppression and emerging nationalist sentiments. Cultural regeneration played a significant role, with Indians starting to reinterpret their history to foster pride. Nationalist leaders initiated movements to record folk stories and songs, representing a shared cultural heritage. For instance, the formation of political associations like the Indian National Congress united individuals from various backgrounds under common goals, highlighting that freedom and rights belonged to all Indian people, regardless of caste, creed, or region. Through united struggles against colonial rule, Indians discovered their similarities, forging a collective national identity that transcended regional and linguistic differences and emphasizing their shared aspirations for independence.
Question 39.

"Promotion of energy conservation is an important plank of sustainable energy." Explain the statement with examples.

[5 Marks]
Answer: Promotion of energy conservation is crucial in achieving sustainable energy due to the escalating demand for energy resources worldwide. As energy consumption rises, especially in India, it is imperative to adopt measures that mitigate waste and promote efficiency. Simple practices like using energy-saving appliances, switching off lights when not in use, and utilizing public transport exemplify effective energy conservation strategies. Furthermore, transitioning to renewable energy sources, such as solar and wind power, not only conserves resources but also reduces dependence on fossil fuels. For instance, solar panels can harness sunlight, providing a sustainable and clean energy alternative. Such practices, if adopted collectively, can significantly minimize energy wastage, thereby contributing to a more sustainable future. Thus, energy conservation initiatives not only preserve our limited resources but also foster environmental sustainability for generations to come.
Question 40.

"Energy is required for all kinds of activities. "Explain this statement with examples.

[5 Marks]
Answer: Energy is a fundamental requirement for various activities, serving as the driving force behind our daily lives. For instance, cooking requires energy to heat food, whether from gas, electricity, or fire. In industries, energy powers machinery, enabling the production of goods and services. Transportation relies on energy as well; vehicles such as cars and buses use fuels like petrol and diesel to function. Moreover, energy is essential for providing light and heat in homes, illustrating its role in enhancing quality of life. Without these energy inputs, economic development would stagnate, emphasizing the significance of sustainable energy practices to meet future demands.
Question 41. Democracy is a better form of government than dictatorship. Analyse.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Democracy stands as a superior form of government compared to dictatorship for several reasons. Firstly, democracy is rooted in the principles of legitimacy and political equality, allowing citizens to have a direct voice in governance. Unlike dictatorships, where decisions are made unilaterally, democracies promote accountability and transparency through elected representatives who must respond to public demand. This fosters a culture of trust and participation among citizens. Moreover, democracies are inherently more flexible; they allow for correction and adaptation through public discourse and criticism. This ensures that errors can be acknowledged and addressed effectively. Additionally, democratic governments are generally more responsive to the needs of diverse populations, striving to represent different interests and ensure equal rights for all. These characteristics contribute to a more inclusive and supportive environment for social and economic development. Ultimately, these advantages underscore democracy's role not only as a political system but as a framework enhancing human dignity and freedom, which are vital for any thriving society.
Question 42. Democracy accommodates social diversities. Analyse.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Democracy serves as a crucial framework for managing and accommodating social diversities, particularly in a pluralistic society like India. It recognizes and values the multiplicity of social identities, allowing for peaceful coexistence amidst differing opinions and interests. In a democratic setup, no group can claim permanent victory or authority; instead, power is shared and negotiated among varied communities. This system encourages dialogue and respect for differences, cultivating an environment where minority rights are protected. Democracies provide mechanisms to handle conflicts, thus ensuring that social divisions do not escalate into violence. Furthermore, by empowering diverse voices in political discussions, democracies foster inclusivity which is integral to social harmony. Overall, democracy not only acknowledges societal differences but also offers solutions to live harmoniously, steering society towards collective progress.
Question 43.

"Rapid improvement in technology has been one major factor that has stimulated the globalization process. " Explain the statement with examples.

[5 Marks]
Answer: Rapid technological advancements have significantly catalyzed the process of globalization in recent decades. Improvements in transportation, such as container ships and air freight, have drastically reduced the time and cost associated with moving goods globally. For instance, companies can now source materials from various countries quickly and economically, leading to lightweight and fast supply chains. Moreover, innovations in information and communication technology, including the Internet and mobile communications, have revolutionized how businesses operate, enabling instant communication and data exchange across borders. These developments have facilitated the growth of multinational corporations (MNCs) that seek cost-effective production locations in countries with low wages, such as India and China. As a result of these trends, countries have seen increased foreign investments and trade. The economic landscapes of emerging markets have rapidly transformed, showcasing the profound impact technology has had on creating an interconnected global economy. Globalization not only enhances business operations for MNCs but also benefits consumers, who enjoy a wider array of goods and services at competitive prices due to increased competition in the marketplace.
Question 44.

" Foreign trade and foreign investment policies are the aspects of liberalization and globalization. " Explain the statement with examples.

[5 Marks]
Answer: The statement highlights the significant roles of foreign trade and investment in the context of liberalization and globalization. Liberalization involves the removal of barriers to trade and investment, allowing businesses to operate more freely. Organizations like the World Trade Organization advocate for free trade and investment, arguing that barriers harm global trade. For instance, when India liberalized its economy, it attracted foreign investments from multinational corporations (MNCs), boosting local production. A notable example is Ford Motors, which not only sells cars in India but also exports to other regions, linking domestic markets to global supply chains. This integration has enhanced economic growth and expanded consumer choice, showcasing the essential links between foreign trade, investment, and globalization.

Paper Details

CBSE Board Exam 2024

Class

CLASS 10

Subject

SOCIAL SCIENCE

Year

2024

Set

Set 2

Other Years — SOCIAL SCIENCE

2022 Set-1

2022 Set-2

2022 Set-3

2022 Set-4

2023 Set-1

2023 Set-2

2023 Set-3

2023 Set-4

2023 Set-5

2024 Set-1

2024 Set-2

2024 Set-3

2024 Set-4

2024 Set-5

2025 Set-1

2025 Set-2

2025 Set-3

2025 Set-4

2025 Set-5

2025 Set-6