social-science/
previous-year-question-paper-2025-set-2

SOLUTIONS

2025 BOARD EXAM

CBSE CLASS 10 SOCIAL SCIENCE Board Paper 2025 — Set 2

2025

SOCIAL SCIENCE

CLASS 10

CBSE EXAMINATION SOLVED PAPER-2025 SOCIAL SCIENCE

CBSE EXAMINATION PAPER-2025

SOCIAL SCIENCE

(Solved)

Time allowed : 3 hours

Maximum Marks : 88

General Instructions :

Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :

  1. This question paper contains 42 questions. All questions are compulsory.
  2. This question paper is divided into 5 sections.
  3. Section A – questions number 1 to 3 are case based questions
  4. Section B – questions number 4 to 23 are multiple choice questions
  5. Section C – questions number 24 to 28 are very short answer
  6. Section D – questions number 29 to 34 are short answer
  7. Section E – questions number 35 to 42 are long answer
  8. There is no overall choice given in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions.
  9. Use of calculator is NOT allowed.

Section A

Question 1. Print Culture and the French Revolution Many historians have argued that print culture created the conditions within which French Revolution occurred. Some arguments have been usually put forward in this context. First : print popularised the ideas of the Enlightenment thinkers. Collectively, their writings provided a critical commentary on tradition, superstition and despotism. They argued for the rule of reason rather than custom, and demanded that everything be judged through the application of reason and rationality. They attacked the sacred authority of the Church and the despotic power of the state, thus eroding the legitimacy of a social order based on tradition. The writings of Voltaire and Rousseau were read widely; and those who read these books saw the world through new eyes, eyes that were questioning, critical and rational. Second : print created a new culture of dialogue and debate. All values, norms and institutions were re-evaluated and discussed by a public that had become aware of the power of reason, and recognised the need to question existing ideas and beliefs. Within this public culture, new ideas of social revolution came into being.

(1) What impact did the ideas of Enlightenment thinkers have on society?

[1 Marks]
Answer: The ideas of Enlightenment thinkers had a profound impact on society by promoting critical thinking and questioning of traditional norms. Their writings challenged the authority of the Church and the despotic power of the state, leading to a transformation in how people viewed legitimacy and governance. This shift allowed individuals to adopt a rational perspective, fostering a culture of dialogue and debate that was crucial for the emergence of revolutionary ideas.
Key Points: 1. Enlightenment thinkers promoted critical thinking. 2. Their ideas challenged the authority of tradition and the state. 3. Fostered a culture of dialogue and the questioning of existing beliefs.

(2) How did print culture contribute to the social revolution in France?

[2 Marks]
Answer: Print culture significantly contributed to the social revolution in France by popularizing Enlightenment ideas, which challenged traditional authority and promoted rational thinking. The writings of thinkers like Voltaire and Rousseau encouraged readers to question established norms and beliefs, thus fostering a critical public discourse. This culture of dialogue and debate helped create an environment where revolutionary ideas could thrive, ultimately leading to a collective demand for social change and the questioning of the status quo.
Key Points: Popularized Enlightenment ideas; Eroded legitimacy of traditional authority; Fostered culture of dialogue and debate

(3) How did print culture affect religion in France?

[1 Marks]
Answer: Print culture significantly affected religion in France by popularizing Enlightenment ideas that criticized traditional beliefs and the authority of the Church. The widespread distribution of literature challenged established religious norms, promoting rationality and questioning the legitimacy of religious authority, which led to increased scrutiny and debate about religious practices and institutions.
Key Points: 1. Print popularized Enlightenment criticism of traditional beliefs; 2. Writings questioned the authority of the Church; 3. Encouraged rational thinking and debate about religion
Question 2. Decentralisation in India The need for decentralisation was recognised in our Constitution. Since then, there have been several attempts to decentralise power to the level of villages and towns. Panchayats in villages and municipalities in urban areas were set up in all the States. But these were directly under the control of state governments. Elections to these local governments were not held regularly. Local governments did not have any powers or resources of their own. Thus, there was very little decentralisation in effective terms. A major step towards decentralisation was taken in 1992. The Constitution was amended to make the third-tier of democracy more powerful and effective.

(1) At how many levels has decentralisation of power been done in the Indian Constitution?

[1 Marks]
Answer: Decentralisation of power in the Indian Constitution has been done at three levels: the Union Government, the State Governments, and the local government tier, which includes Panchayats and Municipalities.
Key Points: three levels - Union Government, State Governments, local government (Panchayats and Municipalities)

(2) Explain the role of local self-government in solving problems.

[1 Marks]
Answer: Local self-government plays a crucial role in addressing problems at the grassroots level by allowing villagers and urban residents to participate directly in decision-making processes. It fosters democratic participation, enabling communities to identify and solve their own issues effectively. Through the Panchayati Raj system and municipalities, local governments empower citizens, manage local resources, and collaborate on development plans, ensuring that governance is responsive to the unique needs of local populations.
Key Points: Democratic participation-local self-governance-empowerment of citizens

(3)

"Local government is the best way to realise one important principle of democracy,namely local self-government."Explain the statement.

[2 Marks]
Answer: Local government enhances direct participation in democracy by allowing citizens to have a voice in decision-making at the grassroots level. The Panchayati Raj system, established after the 1992 Constitution amendment, empowers local bodies to manage local issues and promote self-governance. This system promotes accountability and ensures that the needs of the local community are addressed effectively. Thus, local government is essential for realizing the principle of local self-government.
Key Points: Local government promotes democratic participation-local governance empowers communities-Panchayati Raj enhances self-government
Question 3.

(a) Two places A and B have been marked on the given political outline map of India (on page 27). Identify them with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them :

(1)

The place where the session of Indian National Congress was held in December 1927.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The session of the Indian National Congress in December 1927 was held in the city of Nagpur.
Key Points: Nagpur

(2)

The place where Jallianwala Bagh incident took place

[1 Marks]
Answer: The place where the Jallianwala Bagh incident took place is Amritsar.
Key Points: Jallianwala Bagh incident; Amritsar; April 13, 1919

(3)

Note : The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 37 (a).

Name the place where the session of Indian National Congress was held in December 1927.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The session of the Indian National Congress in December 1927 was held in Madras, which is now known as Chennai.
Key Points: Indian National Congress-Session held in December 1927-Madras (Chennai)

(4)

On the same political outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols :

Eastern terminal station of the East-West Corridor

[1 Marks]
Answer: The eastern terminal station of the East-West Corridor is located in the city of Kolkata. It should be marked appropriately on the political outline map of India.
Key Points: Kolkata - eastern terminal station - East-West Corridor

(5)

Name the place where Jallianwala Bagh incident took place.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The Jallianwala Bagh incident took place in Amritsar.
Key Points: Jallianwala Bagh-Amritsar-massacre-protest-1919

(6)

Nuclear power plant located in Uttar Pradesh

[1 Marks]
Answer: The nuclear power plant located in Uttar Pradesh is the 'Narora Atomic Power Station.'
Key Points: Narora Atomic Power Station - Uttar Pradesh

(7)

Leading state in coffee production

[1 Marks]
Answer: The leading state in coffee production in India is Karnataka.
Key Points: Karnataka-coffee production-Arabica variety

(8)

Major sea port located in Odisha

[1 Marks]
Answer: The major sea port located in Odisha is Paradwip port.
Key Points: Paradwip port-export of iron ore-Odisha

(9)

Name the leading state in coffee production

[1 Marks]
Answer: The leading state in coffee production in India is Karnataka.
Key Points: Karnataka is known for coffee production-Coffee varieties include Arabica and Robusta-Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu are major coffee cultivation states

(10)

Name the place where nuclear power plant is located in Uttar Pradesh

[1 Marks]
Answer: The nuclear power plant located in Uttar Pradesh is 'Tarapur'.
Key Points: Uttar Pradesh-nuclear power plant-Tarapur

(11)

Note : The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 37 (b).

(b) Attempt any three questions.

(i) Name the eastern terminal station of the East-West

Corridor.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The eastern terminal station of the East-West Corridor is Silchar.
Key Points: Eastern terminal; East-West Corridor; Location of Silchar

(12)

Name the place where a major sea port is located in Odisha.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The major sea port located in Odisha is Paradip Port.
Key Points: Odisha-sea port-Paradip

Section B

Question 4.

'Potato famine' was related to which of the following countries ?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Ireland
  • (B) Finland
  • (C) Scotland
  • (D) England
Explanation:

The correct answer is Ireland, as the context explicitly states that during the Great Irish Potato Famine (1845 to 1849), about 1,000,000 people died of starvation in Ireland due to the destruction of the potato crop.

Question 5.

Arrange the following events in chronological order and choose the correct option:

I. Defeat of Napoleon in the better of Leipzig

II. Beginning of struggle for Greek independence

III. Formation of customs union Zollverein

IV. Signing of Treaty of Vienna

[1 Marks]
  • (A) I, II, III, IV
  • (B) II, I, III, IV
  • (C) I, IV, II, III
  • (D) II, I, IV, III
Explanation: The correct order of events based on the provided context is II, I, IV, III. The Greek struggle for independence began in 1821 (event II), followed by Napoleon's defeat in the Battle of Leipzig in 1814-1815 (event I), which subsequently led to the signing of the Treaty of Vienna in 1815 (event IV). The Zollverein, a customs union, was formed later in 1833 (event III).
Question 6.

In the mid-16th century, diseases like smallpox reached America through which of the following?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Portuguese sailors
  • (B) British tourists
  • (C) French merchants
  • (D) Spanish soldiers
Explanation:

The correct option is 'Spanish soldiers.' The context notes that during the mid-16th century, the Portuguese and Spanish conquests and colonization of America were underway, and it was primarily through these European explorers and soldiers that diseases like smallpox were introduced to the indigenous populations of America, who had no immunity against such diseases.

Question 7.

Read the following characteristics of Korea carefully and choose the correct option:

I. It is one of the oldest existing printed books in the world.

II It contains the main beliefs of Christianity.

III Its second volume is available in the National Library of France.

IV. It was inscribed on the UNESCO Memory of the World Register in

2001.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Only I, II and III are correct.
  • (B) Only I, III and IV are correct.
  • (C) Only II,IIIand IV are correct.
  • (D) Only I, II and IV are correct.
Explanation:

Only option 'Only I, III and IV are correct.' is true. The Jikji is indeed one of the oldest existing printed books in the world (I). Its second volume is available in the National Library of France (III), and it was inscribed on the UNESCO Memory of the World Register in 2001 (IV). However, it does not contain beliefs of Christianity; instead, it features Zen Buddhism (II is incorrect).

Question 8. Choose the correctly matched pair from the following:
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Corbett National Park - Himachal Pradesh
  • (B) Bandhavgarh National Park - Rajasthan
  • (C) Manas Tiger Reserve - Assam
  • (D) Periyar Tiger Reserve - Tamil Nadu
Explanation: The correct option is 'Manas Tiger Reserve - Assam'. Manas Tiger Reserve is located in Assam, and it is a recognized UNESCO World Heritage Site. The other pairs are incorrect because Corbett National Park is in Uttarakhand, Bandhavgarh National Park is in Madhya Pradesh, and Periyar Tiger Reserve is in Kerala.
Question 9.

Which of the following characteristics of the Indian Wild Life (Protection) Act are correct? Choose the most appropriate option.

I. To make provisions for habitat for wild animals.

II. To publish list of protected species.

III. To ban hunting to save endangered species.

IV. To include important subjects like forests and wildlife in the Union

List.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Only I, II and III are correct.
  • (B) Only I, II and IV are correct.
  • (C) Only II, III and IV are correct.
  • (D) Only I, III and IV are correct.
Explanation: Only I, II and III are correct. The Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act provides provisions for habitat protection (I), establishes a list of protected species (II), and bans hunting to safeguard endangered species (III). Option IV is incorrect as it does not solely pertain to the Act's characteristics.
Question 10.

Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option:

[1 Marks]
  • (A) a-ii,b-iii,c-i,d-iv
  • (B) a-iii, b-iv , c-i, d-ii
  • (C) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
  • (D) a-ii, b-iii , c-iv, d-i
Explanation:

The correct option is a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i. This matches the country incomes with their respective values based on the figures provided in the context. The average incomes listed correspond correctly to the appropriate country in Column II.

Question 11. Choose the correct option of the states that have been majorly benefitted by the Sardar Sarovar Dam.
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Rajasthan
  • (B) Rajasthan, Gujarat, Punjab and Haryana
  • (C) Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Karnataka and Chhattisgarh
  • (D) Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Telangana and Andhra Pradesh
Explanation: The correct option is 'Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Rajasthan.' The Sardar Sarovar Dam has been built over the Narmada River in Gujarat and benefits these four states significantly, providing irrigation facilities and addressing water requirements, especially in drought-prone areas.
Question 12.

Swapna is a small farmer. Swapna wants to cultivate cotton. What kind of geographical conditions will be suitable for this?Choose the most

appropriate option.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Black soil, High rainfall, Low temperature and Moderate sunshine
  • (B) Laterite soil, Light rainfall, High temperature and Moderate sunshine
  • (C) Black soil, Light rainfall, High temperature and Bright sunshine
  • (D) Laterite soil, Moderate rainfall, Low temperature and Bright sunshine
Explanation: The correct option is 'Black soil, Light rainfall, High temperature and Bright sunshine' because cotton cultivation requires high temperature, light rainfall, and bright sunshine for optimal growth, along with specific soil types that include black soil, which is well-suited for cotton.
Question 13.

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements and choose the correct option:

Assertion (A) : India has enormous possibilities of production of solar

energy.

Reason (R) : Most of the land area of India falls under the cold zone.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (B) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
  • (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  • (D) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Explanation: (A) is true, but (R) is false. India indeed has enormous possibilities for solar energy production due to its tropical climate, which receives abundant sunlight. However, the claim that 'most of the land area of India falls under the cold zone' is incorrect, as India has various climatic zones, and most of its land area is not in the cold zone.
Question 14.

Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option:

[1 Marks]
  • (A) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
  • (B) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
  • (C) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
  • (D) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
Explanation:

The correct option is a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii. This is correct because the monthly incomes for each country align as follows: Country A's income of 9500 matches with II (10500), Country B's income of 500 matches with I (500), the numerical order should match the average to the income levels provided.

Question 15. Which one of the following organisations has its headquarters in Brussels?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) United Nations Organisation
  • (B) European Union
  • (C) Non-Alignment Movement
  • (D) South Asian Association for Regional Co-operation
Explanation: The European Union has its headquarters in Brussels, as stated in the context where it mentions that Brussels was chosen as the headquarters when many countries of Europe came together to form the European Union.
Question 16.

Which of the following countries is an example of sharing power between the national and state governments to account for internal diversity?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Switzerland
  • (B) Belgium
  • (C) United States of America
  • (D) Australia
Explanation:

The correct answer is Switzerland. The context explains that countries such as Switzerland, the USA, and Australia operate under a federal system where power is shared equally between national and state governments, allowing them to accommodate internal diversity effectively.

Question 17. Choose the correctly matched pair from the following:
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Maharashtrawadi Gomantak Party - Goa
  • (B) Janata Dal (Secular) - Bihar
  • (C) Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam - Andhra Pradesh
  • (D) All India Forward Bloc - Punjab
Explanation: The correct option is 'Maharashtrawadi Gomantak Party - Goa'. This is because the Maharashtrawadi Gomantak Party is indeed a regional political party based in Goa, while the other pairs do not correctly match the parties with their respective states.
Question 18.

Study the following table related to World Human Development Index and answer the question that follows:

Which one of the following countries has the lowest rank in 'Human Development Index' ?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Pakistan
  • (B) India
  • (C) Nepal
  • (D) Myanmar
Explanation:

Since a lower rank number indicates a higher HDI ranking, India (Rank 130) has the highest HDI rank among the given countries.

Question 19. Choose the correct option to fill in the blank. The total value of all final goods and services produced within a country in a particular year is called __________.
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Per Capita Income
  • (B) Per Capita Production
  • (C) Gross National Income
  • (D) Gross Domestic Production
Explanation: The correct option is 'Gross Domestic Production', as it directly refers to the total value of all final goods and services produced within a country during a particular year. The provided context clarifies that this concept is known as Gross Domestic Product (GDP), which shows the size of the economy.
Question 20.

Look at the given picture and answer the question that follows: The work being done in the picture falls under which sector of the economy?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Secondary
  • (B) Quaternary
  • (C) Primary
  • (D) Tertiary
Explanation:

The image shows industrial manufacturing activity (e.g., steel or machinery production)

this the part of secondary sector , which includes industries that process raw materials into finished goods.

Question 21.

Rakhi has done an economic survey of her area. The survey has revealed

that people earn their livelihood by doing different jobs. The table

prepared by Rakhi for this is given below. Study the table carefully and answer the question that follows :

How many people are working in the organised sector ?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) 380
  • (B) 140
  • (C) 210
  • (D) 320
Explanation:

Teachers in school- 10 (Organised), workers in big factories(oranised)-140, Employees working at a hospital (organised)- 60. total= 10+140+60= 210

Question 22.

Arrange the following sources of credit in the most to least order to meet the credit requirement of rural households in India and choose the correct option I. Government II. Cooperative Banks and Societies III. Moneylenders IV. Relatives and friends

[1 Marks]
  • (A) III, II, I, IV
  • (B) I, III, II, IV
  • (C) I, III, IV, II
  • (D) III, II, IV, I
Explanation:

The correct order is III, II, I, IV. Moneylenders are still the most commonly used source in rural India. Followed by cooperative banks and societies then the government least relatives and friends.

Question 23.

Two statements I and II are given below. Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option : 1 Statement I : Information and communication technology stimulate the process of globalisation.Statement II : It is used to contact each other, receive information instantly and communicate with remote areas.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect.
  • (B) Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct.
  • (C) Both statements I and II are correct, but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I.
  • (D) Both statements I and II are correct and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I.
Explanation:

Both statements I and II are correct, and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I. Statement I asserts that information and communication technology (ICT) encourages globalization, which aligns with the context that describes ICT's role in facilitating instant communication and access to information, thereby enabling global connectivity.

Section C

Question 24. How did reinterpretation of history become a means of creating a sense of nationalism by the end of the 19th century in India? Explain.
[2 Marks]
Answer: Reinterpretation of history was vital for fostering nationalism in 19th century India, as it highlighted India's glorious past before British rule. Nationalist leaders challenged British portrayals of Indians as primitive, instead emphasizing their rich cultural heritage and achievements. This narrative inspired pride among Indians and encouraged resistance against colonial oppression. Folk tales, songs, and popular prints united people in their shared identity, cultivating a collective consciousness that transcended class and caste, fostering a sense of belonging to the nation.
Question 25. How did symbols and icons contribute to create a feeling of nationalism among the people in the national movement of India? Explain.
[2 Marks]
Answer: Symbols and icons, such as the tricolor flag and images of leaders, played a significant role in fostering nationalism in India. These representations helped unify diverse groups and instill a collective identity. The tricolor flag designed during the Swadeshi movement was a powerful emblem of resistance against colonial rule. Reinterpretation of history also contributed to nationalist sentiments, encouraging pride in Indian heritage. Together, these elements galvanized the populace toward a common nationalist cause.
Question 26. Why is planning necessary for judicious use of resources? Explain.
[2 Marks]
Answer: Planning is crucial for the judicious use of resources, especially in a diverse country like India. It helps identify and inventory resources, ensuring that regions with different resource availability can utilize them efficiently. Effective planning promotes equitable distribution, preventing depletion by a select few and ensuring sustainable development. It also addresses conservation needs, aligning with socio-economic goals and environmental protection. Through proper planning, we can secure resources for future generations while enhancing quality of life.
Question 27.

Describe any two provisions made in the Constitution to establish the model of 'secular governance'in india.

[2 Marks]
Answer: Two key provisions in the Indian Constitution that establish secular governance are Article 15 and Article 25. Article 15 prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth, ensuring that all citizens are treated equally regardless of their religious affiliations. Article 25 guarantees the freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice, and propagate religion, allowing individuals to follow their beliefs without state interference. These provisions prevent religious dominance and promote equality.
Question 28.

"Globalisation is the process of rapid integration and interconnection between countries." Explain the statement with examples.

[2 Marks]
Answer: Globalisation refers to the increasing interconnectedness of countries worldwide, primarily driven by Multinational Corporations (MNCs). For example, companies like Apple and Toyota source materials globally, produce in various countries, and sell products internationally. Technological advancements have facilitated this process, enhancing transport and communication, allowing for quicker and cheaper trade. Countries now experience more foreign investments and trade than ever before, deeply integrating their economies and cultures.

Section D

Question 29. Why did Mahatma Gandhi decide to withdraw the Non-Cooperation Movement? Analyse any three reasons.
[3 Marks]
Answer: Mahatma Gandhi decided to withdraw the Non-Cooperation Movement in February 1922 for several significant reasons. Firstly, the movement was witnessing increasing violence, such as the incident at Chauri Chaura, where protestors killed policemen, which went against the principles of ahimsa (non-violence). Secondly, Gandhi felt that the satyagrahis were not adequately trained in the discipline required for a mass struggle, leading to a lack of control over the movement. Lastly, Gandhi believed that the withdrawal was necessary to regroup and focus on social reform work, ensuring a more strategic approach to future protests. This decision marked a pivotal moment in India’s struggle for independence.
Question 30.

Read the story of Rinjha and answer the question that follows :

Rinjha lived with her family in a small village at the outskirts of Diphu in Assam. She enjoys watching her family members clearing, slashing and burning a patch of land for cultivation. She often helps them in irrigating the fields with water running through a bamboo canal from the

nearby spring. She loves the surroundings and wants to stay here as long as she can, but this little girl has no idea about the declining fertility of the soil and her family's search for a fresh patch of land in the next season.

Suggest any three measures to Rinjha so that the fertility of the soil of her fields remains intact for a long time.

[3 Marks]
Answer: To help Rinjha maintain the soil fertility of her fields, I suggest three important measures. First, practicing crop rotation can prevent nutrient depletion and diseases associated with specific crops, promoting a balanced ecosystem. Second, incorporating organic matter such as compost or green manure can enhance soil structure and provide essential nutrients, improving overall health. Lastly, utilizing cover crops during the off-seasons helps prevent soil erosion, enhances moisture retention, and adds nutrients back to the soil, ensuring sustainable farming practices for years to come.
Question 31.

"The government measures gradually increased the felling of alienation among the Sri Lankan Tamils."Explain the statement.

[3 Marks]
Answer: The statement highlights the impact of government policies on the Sri Lankan Tamils. Following Sri Lanka's independence in 1948, the majority Sinhala leaders adopted measures that marginalized the Tamil community. They felt ignored in terms of their cultural and linguistic rights, as the constitution favored Sinhala speakers. Discriminatory practices in employment and education further fueled their sense of alienation. Consequently, the Tamils began to organize politically, demanding equal rights and regional autonomy, but were continually denied. This discontent eventually escalated into a civil conflict, illustrating the severe consequences of majoritarianism.
Question 32.

Describe three main functions of political parties.

[3 Marks]
Answer: Political parties play a vital role in democratic governance through various functions. Firstly, they contest elections, providing candidates from within the party to represent the people's interests. This competitive element ensures that citizens have a choice and can voice their preferences. Secondly, political parties formulate and promote policies, acting as the main vehicle through which political ideologies are expressed. They engage in debate, advocating for laws and regulations that reflect their values and the needs of society. Lastly, parties are essential for governmental support and accountability, as they either back or oppose the actions of the government, thereby creating checks and balances necessary for a healthy democracy. Through these functions, political parties uphold democratic processes and represent diverse views within society.
Question 33.

Describe three major challenges faced by the political parties in India.

[3 Marks]
Answer: Political parties in India face several significant challenges that impact their effectiveness. Firstly, there is a lack of internal democracy within parties which hinders participation and transparency. This often leads to autocratic leadership and disillusionment among party members and the public. Secondly, the use of money and muscle power during elections is rampant, as parties prioritize winning over ethical considerations. This results in the nomination of wealthy candidates and the influence of rich individuals on party decisions. Lastly, public dissatisfaction with political parties is growing, as they are often seen as failing to address the pressing issues faced by citizens. Such challenges undermine their role as vital instruments of democracy in India.
Question 34.

Analyse the problem of underemployment in agriculture sector in India.

[3 Marks]
Answer: Underemployment in India's agricultural sector is a significant issue, particularly evident in cases like Laxmi, a small farmer with two hectares of unirrigated land. All family members work the fields, but their efforts do not yield enough income to alleviate poverty. Although labor sharing reduces the impact of unemployment, it highlights a fundamental problem: surplus labor remains unutilized, leading to increased migration from rural areas in search of better opportunities. This migration points toward the necessity for developing non-agricultural job sectors that can engage surplus agricultural labor more productively. Better work opportunities can enhance family incomes and overall economic stability without adversely affecting agricultural outputs. Also, this underemployment is not exclusive to agriculture; many casual workers in service sectors also experience similar conditions. Thus, addressing underemployment in agriculture is essential for improving both the economic conditions of rural families and the overall health of the agricultural economy.

Section E

Question 35. How did the French Revolution spread the spirit of nationalism in Europe? Explain with suitable arguments.
[5 Marks]
Answer: The French Revolution, which began in 1789, heralded a significant shift in political ideologies and concepts of nationhood across Europe. By first establishing the principle of popular sovereignty, it empowered citizens and emphasized the idea of the nation as a collective identity beyond monarchies. French armies, while engaging in revolutionary wars, exported these ideologies, igniting nationalist sentiments in various European nations. This inspired movements aimed at unifying fragmented states like Germany and Italy, reshaping the political landscape. Furthermore, the Nationalist response was not limited to Europe; it inspired colonized peoples around the world, who began to envision their own sovereign nations. Figures such as Tipu Sultan in India and Rammohan Roy embraced revolutionary ideas, adapting them to their contexts, thereby demonstrating the global resonance of nationalism. After 1848, nationalism evolved, intertwining with both democratic movements and conservative state interests, leading to the emergence of nation-states. The legacy of the French Revolution thus fundamentally altered the course of European and world history, fostering a deep-seated sense of identity and unity among various peoples that continues to influence modern nationalism.
Question 36. How did the Greek freedom struggle arouse nationalist sentiments in Europe? Explain with suitable arguments.
[5 Marks]
Answer: The Greek freedom struggle, which began in 1821, significantly aroused nationalist sentiments across Europe, primarily due to its symbolic importance and the support it garnered from various quarters. Greece's fight for independence from the Ottoman Empire was not merely a local affair; it resonated with the broader European context of revolutionary nationalism. Understanding Greece as the cradle of European civilization, many Europeans, including poets and intellectuals, viewed this struggle as an embodiment of their values. Figures like Lord Byron not only rallied financial support but also inspired many to participate directly, placing the Greek cause in a larger narrative of resistance against an oppressive empire. This act of solidarity helped forge new connections among various nationalist movements across Europe. Moreover, the struggles of Greeks echoed with the aspirations of other nations under imperial rule, provoking similar feelings of nationalism among them. Consequently, the Greek independence movement contributed to a shifting landscape in which cultural pride and political aspirations began to intertwine, helping to pave the way for the emergence of nation-states and the rise of nationalist movements throughout Europe. As such, the Greek struggle was pivotal in stimulating a sense of shared heritage and collective identity amongst Europeans.
Question 37. Explain the role of industries in increasing air pollution and suggest measures to control it.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Industries play a significant role in increasing air pollution, primarily due to the emission of harmful gases such as sulfur dioxide and carbon monoxide. Thermal power plants, manufacturing units, and chemical factories are major contributors, releasing particulate matter and toxic fumes into the atmosphere. This pollution adversely affects air quality, leading to respiratory illnesses and environmental degradation. To mitigate these issues, industries should implement stringent emission norms, adopt cleaner technologies, and invest in air purification systems. Additionally, encouraging the use of renewable energy sources can significantly reduce dependence on fossil fuels, thereby lowering air pollution levels. Reusing and recycling water in industrial processes would also minimize waste discharge into the air. Thus, a multi-faceted approach combining technology, policy enforcement, and community awareness is crucial for effective air pollution control.
Question 38.

Explain the measure taken by 'National Thermal Power Corporation' to prevent environmental degradation.

[5 Marks]
Answer: The National Thermal Power Corporation (NTPC) has implemented a variety of measures to mitigate environmental degradation while generating power. Firstly, it has obtained ISO certification for its Environmental Management System (EMS) 14001, which demonstrates its commitment to environmental stewardship. NTPC has adopted optimum utilization of equipment, and focuses on afforestation initiatives to enhance ecological balance. Additionally, it actively reduces environmental pollution through effective ash pond management and a recycling system for ash water. This includes minimizing waste generation by maximizing the use of ash, which in turn lessens the environmental footprint. The corporation also emphasizes the importance of ecological monitoring, which involves regular assessments and maintaining an online database for its power stations. Rainwater harvesting and water reuse for processing further contribute to reducing water pollution. Collectively, these measures exemplify NTPC’s proactive approach to environmental conservation.
Question 39. How is democracy better than other types of government? Analyse.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Democracy is often hailed as a superior form of government compared to its alternatives due to several key reasons. Firstly, it is considered a legitimate form of governance, as it is built upon the consent of the governed. This legitimacy fosters a sense of ownership among citizens, leading to widespread support for democratic ideals worldwide. Secondly, democracies are more responsive to the needs and aspirations of the people. While non-democratic regimes may cater to needs, they often do so at the discretion of those in power, without accountability. In contrast, democratic governments must respond to public opinion, ensuring that the people's voices are heard. Furthermore, democracies possess mechanisms for self-correction. Mistakes made can be acknowledged and rectified due to the open nature of governance, allowing citizens to demand change and holding leaders accountable. This adaptability is a significant advantage, as errors cannot be concealed indefinitely. Ultimately, democracy fosters an environment in which citizens can actively participate in decision-making processes, contributing to a more equitable and just society. Thus, the combination of legitimacy, responsiveness, and self-correcting mechanisms positions democracy as a preferred form of governance, empowering individuals while ensuring accountability and representation.
Question 40. Analyse the role of democracy in reducing inequality and poverty.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Democracy plays a crucial role in addressing inequality and poverty, but its effectiveness can vary widely between countries. While democracies are expected to ensure equitable distribution of resources, high levels of inequality persist in some democratic nations. For instance, in countries like South Africa and Brazil, the wealth distribution is starkly imbalanced, with the top 20% capturing over 60% of national income. Conversely, nations like Denmark and Hungary exemplify better outcomes, demonstrating that democratic governance can lead to more equitable wealth distribution. The participatory nature of democracy empowers citizens to make decisions and hold their governments accountable, which is essential for promoting policies aimed at poverty reduction. However, democracy alone is not a panacea; it does not guarantee good decisions or outcomes. In many cases, the populace may still face economic challenges despite their democratic rights. Therefore, while the democratic process fosters a conducive environment for addressing poverty and inequality, it must be supplemented by effective governance, social policies, and targeted interventions that prioritize the needs of the less privileged. In summary, democracy provides the framework for citizens to advocate for change, yet tangible efforts are necessary to ensure that economic growth translates into reduced poverty and inequality.
Question 41. How is income an important factor in assessing the development of a country? Mention the classification done by the World Bank.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Income is a fundamental factor in assessing a country's development since it reflects the economic capabilities and standard of living within a nation. Higher average income generally signifies better access to resources, healthcare, education, and overall quality of life. The World Bank classifies countries based on their per capita income, a metric that measures income relative to the population. As of 2019, countries with per capita incomes above US$ 49,300 are labeled as high-income or developed countries, while those with income below US$ 2,500 are classified as low-income countries. India, with a per capita income of US$ 6,700, falls into the low-middle-income category. This classification emphasizes that greater income not only correlates with better living standards but also shows a country’s ability to provide essential services to its population, highlighting the intrinsic link between income levels and development.
Question 42. How has the overuse of underground water created a serious crisis in many parts of India? Explain with examples in the context of sustainable development.
[5 Marks]
Answer: The overuse of underground water in India has led to a severe crisis, particularly in regions like Punjab and Western U.P. Over the last two decades, 300 districts have reported a decrease of more than four meters in groundwater levels. Factors contributing to this crisis include increasing population, rising demands for food, rapid urbanization, and heightened living standards. For instance, agricultural practices heavily depend on groundwater for irrigation, often leading to depletion. As cities expand, the demand for water escalates, compromising groundwater resources further. Sustainable development in this scenario is crucial; it involves managing water resources wisely. Solutions include rainwater harvesting, promoting drought-resistant crops, and implementing stricter regulations on water usage. It is imperative that development be redefined to ensure that it does not come at the expense of natural resources, thereby establishing a balance between growth and the sustainability of groundwater resources. Example initiatives, such as community-driven water management systems in Tamil Nadu, demonstrate that development can be achieved without relentless overuse. Therefore, redefining growth and employing sustainable practices is essential for ensuring that future generations inherit adequate and clean water supplies.

Paper Details

CBSE Board Exam 2025

Class

CLASS 10

Subject

SOCIAL SCIENCE

Year

2025

Set

Set 2

Other Years — SOCIAL SCIENCE

2022 Set-1

2022 Set-2

2022 Set-3

2022 Set-4

2023 Set-1

2023 Set-2

2023 Set-3

2023 Set-4

2023 Set-5

2024 Set-1

2024 Set-2

2024 Set-3

2024 Set-4

2024 Set-5

2025 Set-1

2025 Set-2

2025 Set-3

2025 Set-4

2025 Set-5

2025 Set-6