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previous-year-question-paper-2023-set-1

QUESTION PAPER

2023 BOARD EXAM

CBSE CLASS 10 SOCIAL SCIENCE Board Paper 2023 — Set 1

2023

SOCIAL SCIENCE

CLASS 10

CBSE EXAMINATION PAPER-2023 SOCIAL SCIENCE

CBSE EXAMINATION PAPER-2023

SOCIAL SCIENCE

(Solved)

Time allowed : 3 hours

Maximum Marks : 86

General Instructions :

Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :

  1. This question paper contains 40 questions. All questions are compulsory.
  2. This question paper is divided into 5 sections.
  3. Section A – questions number 1 to 3 are case based questions
  4. Section B – questions number 4 to 21 are multiple choice questions
  5. Section C – questions number 22 to 26 are very short answer
  6. Section D – questions number 27 to 32 are short answer
  7. Section E – questions number 33 to 40 are long answer
  8. There is no overall choice given in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions.
  9. Use of calculator is NOT allowed.

Section A

Question 1.

Market for Goods

One way in which new consumers are created is through advertisements. As you know, advertisements make products appear desirable and necessary. They try to shape the minds of people and create new needs. Today we live in a world where advertisements surround us. They appear in newspapers, magazines, hoardings, street walls, television screens. But if we look back into history, we find that from the very beginning of the industrial age, advertisements have played a part in expanding the markets for products, and in shaping a new consumer culture. When Manchester industrialists began selling cloth in India, they put labels on the cloth bundles. The label was needed to make the place of manufacture and the name of the company familiar to the buyer. The label was also to be a mark of quality. When buyers saw ‘MADE IN MANCHESTER’ written in bold on the label, they were expected to feel confident about buying the cloth.

(1) How was the marketing of goods done in India by the British?

[1 Marks]

(2) How were the new consumers created through advertisement during colonial India?

[1 Marks]

(3) Identify the messages conveyed through advertisements during industrialization.

[2 Marks]
Question 2.

CONSERVATION OF ENERGY RESOURCES

Energy is a basic requirement for economic development. Every sector of the national economy – agriculture, industry, transport, commercial and domestic – needs inputs of energy. The economic development plans implemented since independence necessarily required increasing amounts of energy to remain operational. As a result, consumption of energy in all forms has been steadily rising all over the country. In this background, there is an urgent need to develop a sustainable path of energy development. Promotion of energy conservation and increased use of renewable energy sources are the twin planks of sustainable energy. India is presently one of the least energy efficient countries in the world. We have to adopt a cautious approach for the judicious use of our limited energy resources. For example, as concerned citizens we can do our bit by using public transport systems instead of individual vehicles; switching off electricity when not in use, using power-saving devices and using non-conventional sources of energy. As a saying goes, 'Energy Saved is energy produced.'

(1) Why is sustainable energy a key to sustainable development?

[1 Marks]

(2) Why is consumption of energy rising all over India?

[1 Marks]

(3) Explain ‘Energy saved is energy produced.’

[2 Marks]
Question 3. Two places (A) and (B) have been marked on the given outline political Map of India. Identify them with the help of given information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them:

(1) The place where the session of INC was held in September, 1920

[1 Marks]

(2)

The place where Mahatma Gandhi broke Salt Law.

[1 Marks]

(3)

On the same outline Map of India, locate and label any THREE of the following with suitable symbols:

(1) Hirakud Dam

(ii) Tarapur Atomic Power Station

(iii) Pune Software Technology Park

(iv) Paradip Sea Port

[3 Marks]

(4)

The following questions are for Visually Impaired Candidates only:

(1) Name the place where the session of INC was held in September, 1920.

(2) Name the state where Gandhiji broke Salt Law.

(3) Name the place where Salal Dam is located.

(4) Name the state where Tarapur Nuclear Plant is located.

(5) Name the state where Pune Software Technology park is located.

(6) Name the state where 'Paradip' Sea Port is located.

[6 Marks]

Section B

Question 4.

Match the following attributes of allegory of Germania with its significance and choose the correct option:

[1 Marks]
  • (A) a-II, b=I, c=IV, d=III
  • (B) a-IV, b=III, c=I, d=II
  • (C) a-I, b=II, c=III, d=IV
  • (D) a-III, b=IV, c=II, d=I
Question 5. Which one of the following aspects was common between the writings of B.R. Ambedkar and B.Y. Ramaswamy Naicker?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Wrote on the caste system in India
  • (B) Highlighted the experiences of women
  • (C) Raised awareness about cultural heritage
  • (D) Motivated Indians for total freedom
Question 6.

Who of the following set up the first Iron and Steel industry in India?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) J.R.D. Tata
  • (B) R.G. Saraiya
  • (C) Purushotam Das
  • (D) Thakur Das
Question 7.

Arrange the following in chronological order and choose the correct option:

I. The Breton Woods conference established the International Monetary Fund,

II. The Second World War broke out between Axis and Allied powers,

III. A car manufacturer Henry Ford adopted the Assembly Line Method for production.

IV. The Western economies organised themselves as a group called The Group of 77.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) I, II, III, IV
  • (B) IV, III, II, I
  • (C) IV, II, III, I
  • (D) III, II, I, IV
Question 8.

Identify the crop with the help of the following information and choose the correct option.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Sugarcane
  • (B) Rice
  • (C) Wheat
  • (D) Maize
Question 9.

In which of the following States Tungabhadra Dam is located?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Tamil Nadu
  • (B) Karnataka
  • (C) Andhra Pradesh
  • (D) Kerala
Question 10. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Black Soil - Himalayan Region
  • (B) Alluvial Soil - Gangetic Plain
  • (C) Laterite Soil - Desert Area
  • (D) Arid Soil - Western Ghats
Question 11. Which of the following countries has the highest life expectancy at birth?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Nepal
  • (B) Bangladesh
  • (C) India
  • (D) Pakistan
Question 12. Which of the following organizations provides data regarding employment in India?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) National Statistical Office
  • (B) NITI Aayog
  • (C) Public Service Commission
  • (D) National Informatics Centre
Question 13. Which one of the following is a major benefit to a Multinational Corporation (MNC) when it works on joint production with a local company?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) MNC decides all parameters and prices of the product
  • (B) MNC shares its latest technology with the local company
  • (C) MNC builds good and familial relations with the local company
  • (D) MNC shares its institutional policy with local company
Question 14. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Primary Sector - Fishermen
  • (B) Secondary Sector - Priest
  • (C) Tertiary Sector - Basket Weaver
  • (D) Quaternary Sector - Gardener
Question 15. Assume there are four families in a locality. If the monthly incomes of each family are ₹10,000, ₹20,000, ₹30,000 and ₹40,000, then what is the average income of the locality? Choose the correct option.
[1 Marks]
  • (A) ₹25,000
  • (B) ₹20,000
  • (C) ₹10,000
  • (D) ₹15,000
Question 16. Who among the following gives formal credit?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Relative
  • (B) Trader
  • (C) Cooperative Society
  • (D) Money lender
Question 17.

Consider the following statements on Power Sharing and choose the correct option:

I. It deepens democracy.

II. It helps to reduce conflicts among social groups.

III. It is a way to ensure political stability.

IV. It brings socio-economic struggles.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) I, II and III
  • (B) II, III and IV
  • (C) I, II and IV
  • (D) I, III and IV
Question 18.

Two statements are given below as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option:

Assertion (A): Elections are the spirit of democracy.

Reason (R): Elections expand political participation.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (B) A is false, but R is true
  • (C) A is true, but R is false
  • (D) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
Question 19. Which one of the following is the most popular form of government in the contemporary world?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Dictatorial Government
  • (B) Constitutional Monarchy
  • (C) Military Government
  • (D) Democratic Government
Question 20. Two statements are given below as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read and choose the correct option: Assertion (A): Women in different parts of the world organized themselves and agitated for equal rights. Reason (R): Women's movement aimed at equality in personal and family life as well.
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
  • (C) A is true, but R is false
  • (D) A is false, but R is true
Question 21. Which one of the following matters does NOT deal with Family Laws?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Marriage
  • (B) Adoption
  • (C) Inheritance
  • (D) Finance

Section C

Question 22. Explain Romanticism as a cultural movement in Europe.
[2 Marks]
Question 23. Explain Frederic Sarrieu’s dream in the context of democratic and social public in France in 1848.
[2 Marks]
Question 24.

Mention any two features of Plantation agriculture.

[2 Marks]
Question 25.

Explain any two provisions that make India a secular state.

[2 Marks]
Question 26.

Imagine that you are the village Head. Suggest any two activities that you think should be taken up to increase the income of the villagers.

[2 Marks]

Section D

Question 27. Explain the implication of print culture on the religious reforms in India during 19th century.
[3 Marks]
Question 28.

How has Information Technology affected Electronic Industry? Explain.

[3 Marks]
Question 29.

The question of sustainability of development raises many fundamentally new issues about the nature and process of development.' Explain it with examples.

[3 Marks]
Question 30.

Explain any three functions of Political Party.

[3 Marks]
Question 31.

Explain any three functions of the Reserve Bank of India.

[3 Marks]
Question 32.

Explain the role of banks with regard to money which they accept from the public.

[3 Marks]

Section E

Question 33.

Analyse the implications of First World War on the economic and political situation of India.

[5 Marks]
Question 34. Analyse the role of folklore and symbols in the revival of nationalism in India during the 19th century.
[5 Marks]
Question 35.

'Efficient means of transport as a pre-requisite for fast development. Justify the statement.'

[5 Marks]
Question 36.

'Roadways have an edge over Railways. Justify the statement.'

[5 Marks]
Question 37. "There is overwhelming support for the idea of democracy all over the world". Support the statement with examples.
[5 Marks]
Question 38. "Democracy can address all socio-economic and political problems." Support the statement with arguments.
[5 Marks]
Question 39. Analyse the impact of globalization in India.
[5 Marks]
Question 40. Analyse the ways to make globalization fair.
[5 Marks]

Paper Details

CBSE Board Exam 2023

Class

CLASS 10

Subject

SOCIAL SCIENCE

Year

2023

Set

Set 1

Other Years — SOCIAL SCIENCE

2022 Set-1

2022 Set-2

2022 Set-3

2022 Set-4

2023 Set-1

2023 Set-2

2023 Set-3

2023 Set-4

2023 Set-5

2024 Set-1

2024 Set-2

2024 Set-3

2024 Set-4

2024 Set-5

2025 Set-1

2025 Set-2

2025 Set-3

2025 Set-4

2025 Set-5

2025 Set-6