social-science/
previous-year-question-paper-2024-set-4

SOLUTIONS

2024 BOARD EXAM

CBSE CLASS 10 SOCIAL SCIENCE Board Paper 2024 — Set 4

2024

SOCIAL SCIENCE

CLASS 10

CBSE EXAMINATION SOLVED PAPER-2024 SOCIAL SCIENCE

CBSE EXAMINATION PAPER-2024

SOCIAL SCIENCE

(Solved)

Time allowed : 3 hours

Maximum Marks : 86

General Instructions :

Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :

  1. This question paper contains 47 questions. All questions are compulsory.
  2. This question paper is divided into 5 sections.
  3. Section A – questions number 1 to 7 are case based questions
  4. Section B – questions number 8 to 28 are multiple choice questions
  5. Section C – questions number 29 to 33 are very short answer
  6. Section D – questions number 34 to 39 are short answer
  7. Section E – questions number 40 to 47 are long answer
  8. There is no overall choice given in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions.
  9. Use of calculator is NOT allowed.

Section A

Question 1.

Read the given source and answer the questions that follow :

After the Revolt of 1857, the attitude to freedom of the press changed. Enraged Englishmen demanded a clamp down on the ‘native’ press. As vernacular newspapers became assertively nationalist, the colonial government began debating measures of stringent control. In 1878, the Vernacular Press Act was passed, modelled on the Irish Press Laws. It provided the government with extensive rights to censor reports and editorials in the vernacular press. From now on the government kept regular track of the vernacular newspapers published in different provinces. When a report was judged as seditious, the newspaper was warned, and if the warning was ignored, the press was liable to be seized and the printing machinery confiscated.

(1) Why did the attitude of the British change towards the freedom of press after the Revolt of 1857? Explain.

[1 Marks]
Answer: After the Revolt of 1857, the British attitude towards freedom of the press shifted significantly due to the fear and anger among the British towards the nationalist sentiments emerging from the vernacular press. The rebellion had revealed the potential influence of the press in mobilizing public opinion against British rule, leading to heightened scrutiny and a clamp-down on what was perceived as seditious content. Enraged by the assertive nationalism displayed in vernacular newspapers, the British government began debating stringent measures to control the press. The enactment of the Vernacular Press Act in 1878 exemplified this change, as it authorized the government to censor nationalist reports and, if necessary, seize publications that ignored warnings. This reaction indicated a growing repression by the British to suppress dissent and maintain control over the narrative surrounding their rule in India.
Key Points: Fear of nationalist sentiments in the press-Implementation of the Vernacular Press Act-Censorship of seditious reports-Growing repression to maintain control

(2) Explain any two impacts of passing the ‘Vernacular Press Act.’

[2 Marks]
Answer: The Vernacular Press Act of 1878 had significant impacts on the press in colonial India. Firstly, it severely restricted the freedom of the vernacular press by granting the colonial government extensive rights to censor newspapers. This led to a dampening of nationalist expression, as many vernacular newspapers were censored or shut down for publishing content deemed seditious. Secondly, the Act created an atmosphere of fear and repression among journalists and editors, making them cautious in their reporting. This resulted in the decline of investigative journalism and the stifling of public discourse, as many writers chose to self-censor to avoid the threat of government action. Overall, the Act aimed to suppress nationalist sentiment and maintain colonial control over public opinion.
Key Points: Severe restriction on vernacular press; Censorship leading to decline of nationalist expression; Atmosphere of fear among journalists; Self-censorship to avoid government repression

(3) On which rule was the ‘Vernacular Press Act’ based?

[1 Marks]
Answer: The Vernacular Press Act, passed in 1878, was based on the Irish Press Laws. This Act allowed the colonial government extensive rights to censor vernacular newspapers, which had become increasingly nationalistic following the Revolt of 1857, reflecting a transformation in the British attitude toward press freedom. The government consistently monitored these newspapers and could take action against those deemed to be seditious.
Key Points: Vernacular Press Act-1878-Irish Press Laws-Government censorship-nationalistic vernacular newspapers
Question 2.

Read the given source and answer the questions that follow :

Conservation of Resources: Resources are vital for any developmental activity. But irrational consumption and over-utilisation of resources may lead to socio-economic and environmental problems. To overcome these problems, resource conservation at various levels is important. This had been the main concern of the leaders and thinkers in the past. For example, Gandhiji was very apt in voicing his concern about resource conservation in these words: 'There is enough for everybody’s need and not for anybody’s greed.' He placed the greedy and selfish individuals and exploitative nature of modern technology as the root cause for resource depletion at the global level. He was against mass production and wanted to replace it with the production by the masses.

(1) Define the term ‘Resource Planning’.

[1 Marks]
Answer: Resource Planning is the systematic assessment and management of resources to ensure their sustainable use in developmental activities. It involves identifying the types and quantities of resources required, forecasting future needs, and implementing strategies to avoid the overconsumption and depletion of these resources. The goal of resource planning is to balance human needs with environmental sustainability, thus supporting long-term economic growth without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.
Key Points: Definition of Resource Planning-Assessment and management of resources-Sustainable use of resources-Balancing human needs with environmental conservation

(2) Explain the need for conservation of resources.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The need for conservation of resources has become increasingly important due to the rapid depletion of these vital assets caused by irrational consumption and over-utilisation. As resources are crucial for developmental activities, their unsustainable use can lead to significant socio-economic and environmental problems. For instance, Gandhi highlighted that 'there is enough for everybody’s need and not for anybody’s greed,' emphasizing the importance of equitable resource usage. Therefore, conserving resources ensures that we can meet the needs of the present without compromising future generations' ability to meet theirs. Additionally, sustainable development requires balancing resource consumption and conservation, allowing ecosystems to recover and thrive. Hence, resource conservation is not just a personal responsibility but a collective duty to protect our planet and its life-support systems.
Key Points: Importance of resources for development-Consequences of irrational consumption-Gandhi's perspective on greed and conservation-Need for sustainable development and ecological balance

(3) Why did Gandhiji say – ‘There is enough for everybody’s need and not for anybody’s greed’? Analyse any two reasons.

[2 Marks]
Answer: Gandhiji’s statement highlights the necessity of equitable resource distribution and the dangers of excessive consumption driven by greed. Firstly, he believed that the earth has sufficient resources to meet everyone's basic needs, but overconsumption results in depletion and scarcity for others. Secondly, the unchecked greed of individuals leads to socio-economic disparities, where a few accumulate wealth and resources while many struggle for basic necessities. By advocating for moderation and sustainable use of resources, Gandhiji emphasized that society should focus on meeting needs rather than engaging in greed-driven consumption.
Key Points: Equitable resource distribution - Overconsumption leads to deprivation - Socio-economic disparities caused by greed - Emphasis on moderation and sustainability
Question 3.

Read the given source and answer the questions that follow :

Loans from Cooperatives:

Besides banks, the other major source of cheap credit in rural areas are the cooperative societies (or cooperatives). Members of a cooperative pool their resources for cooperation in certain areas. There are several types of cooperatives possible such as farmers cooperatives, weavers cooperatives and industrial workers cooperatives, etc. Krishak Cooperative functions in a village not very far away from Sonpur. It has 2300 farmers as members. It accepts deposits from its members. With these deposits as collateral, the Cooperative has obtained a large loan from the bank. These funds are used to provide loans to members. Once these loans are repaid, another round of lending can take place. Krishak Cooperative provides loans for the purchase of agricultural implements, loans for cultivation and agricultural trade, fishery loans, loans for construction of houses and for a variety of other expenses.

(1) 'Cooperative society' is an example of which source of ‘credit’?

[1 Marks]
Answer: A cooperative society is an example of a formal source of credit. It provides an organized and regulated means for its members to access loans at relatively low interest rates compared to informal lenders. In rural areas, cooperatives act as vital financial institutions that pool resources from their members and facilitate lending for agricultural and other developmental needs.
Key Points: Cooperative societies are formal sources of credit-They provide low-interest loans-They pool resources from members-Example includes the Krishak Cooperative for farmers

(2) Explain the contribution of Cooperative Societies in rural development.

[1 Marks]
Answer: Cooperative societies play a crucial role in rural development by providing affordable credit to farmers and members, which helps in enhancing agricultural productivity and improving living standards. They pool resources from their members, allowing them to access loans that might otherwise be unavailable. For instance, the Krishak Cooperative provides loans specifically aimed at agricultural needs, such as purchasing implements, cultivating crops, and financing construction. This direct support not only empowers local economies but also fosters community cooperation and increases the overall economic resilience of rural areas. Furthermore, by reducing reliance on informal lenders, who often charge exorbitant interest rates, cooperatives help ensure that farmers can achieve sustainable growth without falling into debt cycles. Overall, cooperative societies contribute to the financial inclusion of rural populations, which is essential for holistic rural development.
Key Points: Access to cheap credit-Enhanced agricultural productivity-Community cooperation and economic resilience-Financial inclusion and reduced reliance on informal lenders

(3) Mention any two sources of capital for Self-Help Groups.

[2 Marks]
Answer: Two sources of capital for Self-Help Groups (SHGs) include savings from the members of the group and loans from banks or cooperative societies. Members contribute savings regularly, which can be pooled together to fund various activities or provide loans within the group. Additionally, SHGs can secure loans from banks or cooperatives, which can be utilized for activities such as starting a business or investing in agriculture.
Key Points: savings from members-loans from banks-cooperative societies
Question 4.

Two places ‘A’ and ‘B’ have been marked on the given political outline map of India (on page 27). Identify them with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them :

Question 5.

Two places ‘A’ and ‘B’ have been marked on the given political outline map of India (on page 27). Identify them with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them :

Question 6.

Two places ‘A’ and ‘B’ have been marked on the given political outline map of India (on page 27). Identify them with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them :

(1)

The place where Gandhiji started Satyagraha for indigo peasants.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The place where Gandhiji started Satyagraha for indigo peasants is Champaran. This movement, initiated in 1917, was a significant step in India's freedom struggle as it aimed to address the grievances of indigo farmers against oppressive plantation practices.
Key Points: Champaran-1917-Satyagraha for indigo farmers-Gandhiji's leadership

(2)

The place where Gandhiji broke the Salt Law.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The place where Gandhiji broke the Salt Law is Dandi. On April 6, 1930, during the Salt March, Gandhiji and his followers marched to the coastal village of Dandi to protest against the British salt tax, which was considered unjust. By picking up natural salt, Gandhiji challenged the British monopoly on salt production and emphasized the importance of salt in every Indian household, thus making it a powerful symbol of resistance against colonial rule.
Key Points: Dandi-1930-Salt Law protest

(3)

On the same political outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols :

(i) Naharkatiya – Oil field

(ii) Talcher – Major Coal Mines

(iii) Narora – Atomic Power Plant

(iv) Tuticorin – Major Sea Port

[3 Marks]
Answer: On the political outline map of India, I have located and labeled the following three locations with appropriate symbols: 1. Naharkatiya Oil Field, located in Assam, recognized for its significant contributions to India's oil production, has been marked with an oil droplet symbol. 2. Talcher Coal Mines, located in Odisha, which is a major coal mining area, has been marked with a coal symbol. 3. Narora Atomic Power Plant, situated in Uttar Pradesh, known for its contribution to nuclear energy, has been indicated with a nuclear power symbol. These symbols help in easily identifying the important energy resources in India.
Key Points: Naharkatiya - Oil Field located in Assam; Symbol: Oil droplet; Talcher - Major Coal Mines located in Odisha; Symbol: Coal; Narora - Atomic Power Plant located in Uttar Pradesh; Symbol: Nuclear power
Question 7.

Note : The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only

Attempt any five questions.

(1)

Name the place where Gandhiji started ‘Satyagraha’ for indigo peasants

[1 Marks]
Answer: Gandhiji started the ‘Satyagraha’ for indigo peasants in Champaran, which is located in the state of Bihar. This movement aimed to address the grievances of the peasants who were forced to grow indigo under oppressive conditions imposed by the British planters. The Champaran Satyagraha in 1917 marked one of the first significant movements led by Gandhiji in India, highlighting the issues of agrarian distress and colonial exploitation.
Key Points: Champaran, Bihar - Indigo peasants - First significant Gandhiji-led movement - Oppressive conditions - Agrarian distress

(2)

Name the state where Talcher major coal mines are located.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The major coal mines in Talcher are located in the state of Odisha. Talcher is known for its significant coal reserves and is an important area for coal mining in the region. The coal produced here is primarily used to support thermal power stations and heavy industries located nearby, making it a key location for the energy sector in India.
Key Points: Talcher is in Odisha-Talcher is known for significant coal reserves-Important for thermal power stations and heavy industries

(3)

Name the place where Gandhiji broke the Salt Law.

[1 Marks]
Answer: Gandhiji broke the Salt Law at Dandi on 6 April 1930. His march to Dandi was a pivotal moment in the Indian independence movement, aimed at challenging the British monopoly on salt production and mobilizing the Indian population against colonial rule.
Key Points: Dandi-6 April 1930-challenged British monopoly on salt

(4)

In which state is Naharkatia oil field located ?

[1 Marks]
Answer: The Naharkatia oil field is located in the state of Assam, which is known as the oldest oil producing state in India. This region has important oil fields including Digboi, Naharkatia, and Moran-Hugrijan, contributing to the petroleum production in the country.
Key Points: Naharkatia oil field - Assam - oldest oil producing state - important oil fields: Digboi, Moran-Hugrijan

(5)

Name the state where Narora Nuclear Power Plant is located.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The Narora Nuclear Power Plant is located in the state of Uttar Pradesh, India. It is one of the nuclear power stations in the country contributing to the energy needs and is recognized by its strategic importance in the nuclear power sector.
Key Points: Narora Nuclear Power Plant-Uttar Pradesh-Nuclear power station

(6)

In which state is Tuticorin sea port located ?

[1 Marks]
Answer: Tuticorin sea port, also known as Thoothukudi port, is located in the state of Tamil Nadu. It is situated on the extreme south-eastern coast of India and has a natural harbour which supports significant trade activities, including handling a large variety of cargoes to neighbouring countries like Sri Lanka and the Maldives.
Key Points: Tuticorin port is in Tamil Nadu; it has a natural harbour; it facilitates trade with Sri Lanka and Maldives.

Section B

Question 8.

Arrange the following incidents in chronological order and choose the correct option.

I French Revolution

II Napoleon’s invasion of Italy

III Unification of Italy

IV Vienna Peace Treaty

[1 Marks]
  • (A) II, IV, I, III
  • (B) I, III, II, IV
  • (C) I, II, IV, III
  • (D) II, III, I, IV
Explanation: The correct chronological order is II, IV, I, III. Napoleon invaded Italy in 1797, followed by the Vienna Peace Treaty in 1814-1815 after his fall. The French Revolution occurred in 1789, leading to various repercussions across Europe, including the unification of Italy, which took place later in the 19th century.
Question 9.

Choose the correct option to fill in the blank.

___________ from India and Southeast Asia travelled through ‘Silk Route’ to other parts of the world.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Iron and other metals
  • (B) Grain and pulses
  • (C) Clothes and spices
  • (D) Gold and silver ornaments
Explanation: The correct option is 'Clothes and spices' because the context specifically mentions that textiles (which include clothes) and spices from India and Southeast Asia were significant commodities that traveled along the Silk Route to other regions of the world.
Question 10. Choose the correct option, related to the founders of the ‘Swaraj Party’ within the Congress.
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Subhas Chandra Bose and Jawaharlal Nehru
  • (B) Acharya Kripalani and Jayaprakash Narayan
  • (C) Mahatma Gandhi and Sardar Patel
  • (D) C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru
Explanation: The correct option is C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru, as they were the founders of the Swaraj Party within the Congress, formed to advocate for a return to council politics. This is directly mentioned in the provided context.
Question 11.

Who among the following said – ‘Printing is the ultimate gift of God and the greatest one.’?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Rashsundari Devi
  • (B) Johannes Gutenberg
  • (C) Martin Luther
  • (D) Mahatma Gandhi
Explanation: The correct answer is Martin Luther, as the provided context explicitly states that he expressed this sentiment, highlighting the significant impact that printing had on the spread of ideas during the Reformation.
Question 12.

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A): The famous ‘Chipko Movement’ in the Himalayas successfully resisted deforestation in several areas.

Reason (R): Through this, community afforestation campaign with indigenous species was made enormously successful.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (B) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
  • (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  • (D) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Explanation: Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). The Chipko Movement did indeed resist deforestation and was instrumental in promoting community afforestation using indigenous species, as stated in the context.
Question 13.

Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option.

Column I Column II

(Dams) (Rivers)

i. Sardar Sarovar a. Sutlej

ii Hirakud b. Krishna

iii Bhakra Nangal c. Narmada

iv Nagarjuna Sagar d. Mahanadi

[1 Marks]
  • (A) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
  • (B) i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a
  • (C) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
  • (D) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
Explanation: The correct matches are: i-c (Sardar Sarovar - Narmada), ii-d (Hirakud - Mahanadi), iii-a (Bhakra Nangal - Sutlej), iv-b (Nagarjuna Sagar - Krishna) based on their respective rivers where these dams are constructed. Therefore, the correct option is i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b.
Question 14. Choose the correct option for the following States’ share (in percentage) in the production of ‘manganese’ in India from the highest to the lowest order.
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Odisha
  • (B) Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha, Karnataka
  • (C) Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka, Odisha
  • (D) Maharashtra, Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka
Explanation: The correct option is 'Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Odisha'. According to the provided data, Madhya Pradesh has the highest share at 33%, followed by Maharashtra at 27%, then Karnataka at 12%, and finally Odisha at 16%. The percentages are arranged in decreasing order from Madhya Pradesh to Odisha, making this the correct sequence.
Question 15.

Read the arguments given in favour of power sharing and choose the correct option.

I. Reduces the likelihood of bias.

II. Barricades the decision-making process.

III. Accommodates diversities.

IV. Increases the participation of people in power.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Only I, II and IV are correct.
  • (B) Only II, III and IV are correct.
  • (C) Only I, III and IV are correct.
  • (D) Only I, II and III are correct.
Explanation: The correct option is 'Only I, III and IV are correct.' Arguments I, III, and IV highlight the benefits of power sharing: it reduces bias by distributing power among different groups, accommodates diversities by recognizing and representing various social groups, and increases participation by allowing more people to have a say in how they are governed. Argument II is incorrect as it suggests that power sharing barricades decision-making, which contradicts the spirit of democracy and effective governance.
Question 16. 'Education' falls under which one of the following lists given in the Indian Constitution?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Union List
  • (B) Concurrent List
  • (C) Residuary Subjects
  • (D) State List
Explanation: Education is listed in the Concurrent List of the Indian Constitution, which means that both the Union Government and State Governments can make laws regarding education. If there is a conflict between the laws made by both, the law made by the Union Government will prevail.
Question 17. In which one of the following institutions in India was a system of reservation for women made by amending the Constitution in 1992?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Lok Sabha
  • (B) Rajya Sabha
  • (C) Legislative Council
  • (D) Panchayat
Explanation: The correct option is 'Panchayat'. The Constitution was amended in 1992 to implement the Panchayati Raj system, which included a legal requirement to reserve one-third of the seats in local government bodies for women, thereby ensuring their representation in governance.
Question 18.

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A): Modern democracy cannot function without political parties.

Reason (R): Elected representatives will be accountable only to their constituencies, not towards the country.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (C) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (D) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
Explanation: The correct option is 'Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).', because while it is true that modern democracy relies on political parties for various functions, the reason given does not justify why political parties are essential. Political parties help facilitate accountability and representation in a democracy, but saying that representatives are accountable only to their constituencies overlooks the broader accountability they have to the nation as a whole.
Question 19. Which one of the following countries has a two-party system?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) China
  • (B) Pakistan
  • (C) United States of America
  • (D) France
Explanation: The correct answer is 'United States of America' as it exemplifies a two-party system where two major political parties predominantly compete for power, unlike China and Pakistan which have one-party systems, or France which allows multiple parties with varying powers.
Question 20. In which of the following regions was women representation the highest in their respective National Parliaments (2018)?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Nordic countries
  • (B) America (North and South)
  • (C) Europe
  • (D) Asia
Explanation: The correct option is 'Nordic countries'. These countries are known for their high levels of gender equality and have consistently had some of the highest percentages of women in national parliaments globally compared to other regions such as America, Europe, or Asia.
Question 21.

Read the following characteristics of democracy and choose the correct option.

I. Free and fair elections

II. Equality before law

III. Dignity of a person

IV. Majority rule

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Only I, II and III are correct.
  • (B) Only II, III and IV are correct.
  • (C) Only I, II and IV are correct.
  • (D) Only I, III and IV are correct.
Explanation: The correct option is 'Only I, II and III are correct.' as the context highlights the importance of free and fair elections (I), equality before the law (II), and the dignity of individuals (III) as essential characteristics of democracy. Majority rule (IV) is not necessarily a characteristic in all forms of democracy, as it can undermine the rights of minorities.
Question 22.

Read the following situation regarding credit and identify the positive impact of credit. Salim obtains credit to meet the working capital needs of production. The credit helps him to meet the ongoing expenses and complete production on time.

Impacts:

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Salim’s income will increase.
  • (B) The production will decrease.
  • (C) The burden of credit will increase on Salim.
  • (D) Salim may get stuck in a debt trap.
Explanation: The correct option is 'Salim’s income will increase.' This is because the credit enables Salim to meet his production expenses and complete production on time, ultimately leading to an increase in his earnings. The context highlights that credit plays a vital and positive role in helping him succeed in his business.
Question 23.

Study the following picture. The work done in the picture comes under which one of the following sectors of the economy?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Tertiary
  • (B) Quaternary
  • (C) Secondary
  • (D) Primary
Explanation: The correct answer is the Tertiary sector. This sector encompasses activities that provide support services to primary and secondary sectors. Given the context mentioning services such as healthcare, trade, communication, and other supportive roles, the work depicted in the picture is likely related to these service-oriented activities.
Question 24.

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A): No individual in India can legally refuse a payment made in rupees. Reason (R): In India the rupee is authorized by the State Governments.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  • (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Explanation: The correct answer is that both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). Assertion (A) is true because the use of rupees is mandated by law as the official currency in India, which cannot be refused in transactions. However, Reason (R) is incorrect because the authority to issue currency lies with the Reserve Bank of India on behalf of the central government, not the State Governments.
Question 25. Which one of the following statements best describes the meaning of ‘Globalization’?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Providing higher standard of living
  • (B) Removal of tax barriers on trade
  • (C) Process of rapid integration between countries
  • (D) Taking special steps to attract foreign companies
Explanation: The correct answer is 'Process of rapid integration between countries.' This aligns with the context provided, which describes globalization as a process characterized by greater foreign investment and trade leading to closer economic integration and interconnection among nations.
Question 26. On which of the following basis does the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) publish the ‘Human Development Report’?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Manufacturing, Infrastructure and Health
  • (B) Education, Health and Per Capita Income
  • (C) National Income, Health and Banking
  • (D) Gross Domestic Product, Technology and Innovation
Explanation: The correct answer is 'Health, Education, Health and Per Capita Income'. The UNDP focuses on measuring human development not just through income, but also through health and education, reflecting the well-being and quality of life of citizens. This aligns with the emphasis in the context on what is happening to the citizens of a country.
Question 27.

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A): Banks are not ready to lend money to certain borrowers.

Reason (R): Some people do not have collateral.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (C) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (D) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
Explanation: Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). Banks often require collateral to secure loans, and the lack of collateral is a significant reason why some borrowers are unable to obtain loans.
Question 28.

Note : The following question is for the Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 16.

Which one of the following sectors has the maximum share in the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of India ?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Tertiary
  • (B) Secondary
  • (C) Primary
  • (D) Quaternary
Explanation: The correct answer is Tertiary. The context explains that over the years, particularly between 1973-74 and 2013-14, the production in the tertiary sector has grown the most among the primary, secondary, and tertiary sectors. By 2013-14, the tertiary sector became the largest producing sector in India, indicating its maximum share in GDP.

Section C

Question 29. ‘Until the nineteenth century, poverty and hunger were common in Europe.’ Analyse the statement.
[2 Marks]
Answer: The statement highlights the pervasive nature of poverty and hunger in Europe until the nineteenth century. During this period, rapid population growth led to high job competition, especially as rural populations migrated to overcrowded urban areas. The economic hardships of the 1830s underscored extreme poverty, characterized by hunger, lack of shelter, and inadequate access to education and healthcare. Such conditions reflected broader dimensions of poverty that included insufficient resources to meet basic human needs.
Question 30. How is energy a basic requirement for economic development of a country? Explain with examples.
[2 Marks]
Answer: Energy is fundamental to economic development as it powers all sectors of the economy. For instance, agriculture relies on energy for irrigation and machinery, while industries require energy for production processes. Transportation, crucial for trade, depends heavily on energy. Furthermore, commercial activities and domestic use also need energy to function efficiently. The rising energy consumption in India reflects its critical role in sustaining economic growth and development plans.
Question 31. Examine the role of the Constitution in the Federal System of India in two points.
[2 Marks]
Answer: The Constitution of India establishes a federal system of governance with a clear division of powers between the Union and State governments, ensuring autonomy for both levels. Additionally, it empowers local self-governments through the 73rd and 74th Amendments, creating a three-tier system of governance that promotes grassroots participation in democracy. This framework supports unity while respecting diversity in a vast country like India.
Question 32. Examine the role of the Supreme Court in the Federal System of India in two points.
[2 Marks]
Answer: The Supreme Court serves as the highest authority in the Indian judiciary, ensuring the supremacy of the Constitution. Firstly, it resolves disputes between the Central and State governments, thus maintaining the federal balance. Secondly, it protects fundamental rights by reviewing laws that may infringe upon citizens' rights, reinforcing the role of an independent judiciary as essential to democracy.
Question 33. How is technology an important factor of globalization? Explain with examples.
[2 Marks]
Answer: Technology plays a crucial role in globalization by enhancing communication, transportation, and production processes. Advancements in transportation, such as faster ships and airplanes, lower delivery costs and accelerate trade. Similarly, improvements in communication technologies, like the internet and satellite television, allow people across the globe to connect and share information instantly. For example, companies can manage production across different countries efficiently, utilizing local advantages like cheap labor in China and proximity to markets in Mexico.

Section D

Question 34. How did people belonging to different communities, regions or language groups develop a sense of collective belonging in the National Movement? Explain with examples.
[3 Marks]
Answer: During the National Movement in India, people from diverse communities, regions, and language groups developed a sense of collective belonging primarily through shared struggles against colonial rule and cultural engagement. For instance, the Indian National Congress organized various mass movements that brought people together, regardless of their backgrounds. The use of folk songs, literature, and symbols unified the distinct groups, fostering a common identity. Key movements such as the Swadeshi Movement and the Non-Cooperation Movement empowered individuals to see themselves as part of a larger national identity, transcending regional and linguistic differences.
Question 35. Describe any three features of cultivation of millets in India.
[3 Marks]
Answer: The cultivation of millets in India is characterized by several significant features. Firstly, millets are hardy crops that are well-suited for less fertile and sandy soils, allowing them to thrive where other crops may fail. Secondly, millets require low rainfall and perform best in high to moderate temperatures, making them ideal for arid and semi-arid regions. Lastly, important varieties of millets such as jowar, bajra, and ragi are highly nutritious, offering essential micro-nutrients, making them a vital food source for many communities.
Question 36. Analyse the role of political parties in shaping public opinion.
[3 Marks]
Answer: Political parties play a crucial role in shaping public opinion by raising and highlighting issues that affect the populace. With a vast network of members and activists across the country, parties actively engage with various social sections to articulate their concerns. They often spearhead movements to address societal problems, thereby influencing public sentiment. Furthermore, political parties crystallize opinions along their ideological lines, guiding the perspectives of society. In essence, they are indispensable in molding democratic discourse.
Question 37. ‘Federal form of government is in direct contrast to the Unitary form of government.’ Explain the statement.
[3 Marks]
Answer: The federal form of government contrasts sharply with the unitary form primarily in how power is distributed. In a unitary system, there is typically one central government that holds the majority of the power, allowing it to issue orders to local governments, which are subordinate. Conversely, a federal system divides power between the central government and various state or regional governments. This division means that state governments have their own powers and responsibilities, independent of the central authority. For example, Belgium transitioned from a unitary to a federal system to empower regional governments, reducing the central government's authority. On the other hand, Sri Lanka operates as a unitary state, where the national government retains all significant powers, which has led to calls for a federal structure to accommodate regional diversity. Thus, federalism promotes regional governance and autonomy, ensuring that both levels of government are accountable to the people.
Question 38. Why could different persons have different notions of a country’s development? Explain with examples.
[3 Marks]
Answer: Different individuals have diverse perspectives on a country's development due to their varying needs, aspirations, and experiences. For instance, a farmer may prioritize agricultural policies and rural infrastructure to improve his livelihood, while an urban dweller might focus on job creation and better public transportation. Additionally, higher-income individuals may emphasize technological advancement and economic growth, whereas lower-income groups may seek basic necessities like health care and education. These differing priorities lead to unique interpretations of what development means, making it subjective and multifaceted.
Question 39.

‘‘Workers had their own understanding of Mahatma Gandhi and the notion of ‘Swaraj’.’’ Explain the statement with examples.

[3 Marks]
Answer: Workers, particularly in regions like Assam, understood Mahatma Gandhi's notion of ‘Swaraj’ differently. For plantation workers, freedom was tied to the ability to move freely, both within the plantation and back to their home villages. They sought to break free from their confinement and reconnect with their roots. Similarly, dalits began to identify as ‘oppressed’ and demanded recognition and rights, reflecting a different interpretation of Gandhi's ideals. The tribal peasants of Gudem Hills interpreted ‘Swaraj’ as autonomy from oppressive systems, signifying the diverse manifestations of Gandhi's message amongst various worker communities.

Section E

Question 40.

"The French Revolution created a sense of collective identity amongst the French people. " Explain the statement with suitable arguments.

[5 Marks]
Answer: The French Revolution fundamentally transformed the notion of national identity among the French populace. It emphasized the sovereignty of the people as the rightful architects of the nation, breaking away from the monarchy's feudal structures. Elemental to this transformation was the role of print culture, which disseminated Enlightenment ideas that encouraged critical thought and collective action. By popularizing revolutionary ideals such as liberty, equality, and fraternity, print culture united people under a common cause. The revolution also inspired symbols like the Tricolor flag and the Marseillaise, fostering a shared cultural identity. Furthermore, the revolutionary leaders engaged in efforts such as the establishment of the Napoleonic Code, which aimed to standardize rights across the nation, thus reinforcing the collective identity. Additionally, the influence of the French Revolution extended beyond its borders, inspiring movements for national liberation worldwide. This idea of collective identity continued to resonate throughout Europe and into colonies, demonstrating the profound and enduring impact of the revolutionary fervor on collective national identity.
Question 41.

" The Greek war of independence mobilised nationalist feelings among the educated elite across Europe." Explain the statement with suitable arguments.

[5 Marks]
Answer: The Greek War of Independence, which began in 1821, served as a catalyst for nationalist sentiments among the educated elite across Europe. Greece, long under Ottoman rule, was revered as the cradle of Western civilization. This reverence ignited passion among European intellectuals, artists, and poets, exemplified by figures such as Lord Byron, who not only supported the Greek cause financially but also participated in the war. The struggle for Greece’s independence illustrated broader themes of national identity and self-determination that resonated with various disenfranchised groups. As a result, many intellectuals viewed the Greek fight as emblematic of the larger revolutionary movements across Europe, especially following the July Revolution. Additionally, the Greek struggle engaged sympathy from other nationalities and highlighted the conflicts arising from imperial domination. This mobilization led to increased awareness and support for national causes in other regions, setting a precedent for subsequent nationalist movements. Thus, the Greek War of Independence became a symbol of hope and inspiration for nationalists, influencing political ideologies across the continent during a time of profound change.
Question 42. Describe the role of manufacturing industries in the economic development of a country.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Manufacturing industries play a pivotal role in the economic development of a country by contributing significantly to employment, economic diversification, and the modernization of agriculture. They provide jobs in secondary and tertiary sectors, reducing dependence on agriculture, which forms the backbone of many economies. By transforming raw materials into finished goods, manufacturing drives exports and increases foreign exchange. Moreover, agro-industries enhance agricultural productivity, creating a symbiotic relationship where industries depend on agriculture for raw materials while providing essential inputs to farmers. This interdependence fosters improved efficiency in production processes, leading to overall economic growth. The establishment of manufacturing industries in less developed areas also promotes regional development and reduces economic disparities. Therefore, a vibrant manufacturing sector is crucial for achieving sustainable economic development and prosperity.
Question 43. Describe any five steps taken to save fresh water from industrial pollution.
[5 Marks]
Answer: To combat industrial pollution and preserve fresh water, several steps can be taken. First, industries should minimize water usage by reusing and recycling water in multiple processing stages. This not only conserves water but also reduces wastewater generation. Second, rainwater harvesting can be implemented, allowing industries to collect and utilize rainwater for their operational needs, thus lessening their dependency on freshwater sources. Third, treating wastewater before its discharge into natural water bodies is essential. This can be done through three phases: primary treatment using mechanical methods to remove solids, secondary biological treatment to degrade organic pollutants, and tertiary treatments for advanced purification. Fourth, implementing stringent regulations to enforce effluent treatment can ensure compliance among industries. Lastly, promoting green technologies and sustainable practices within industries can significantly reduce their environmental footprint and ensure minimal water pollution. These combined efforts are vital in safeguarding fresh water resources amidst rising industrial activities.
Question 44. Analyse the importance of democracy in accommodation of social diversity.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Democracy plays a crucial role in accommodating social diversity by providing a framework where various groups can coexist peacefully. In a diverse society such as India, differences in culture, religion, and language are prevalent. Democracy recognizes these differences and allows for their political expression, thereby giving minority communities a voice in governance. This inclusion helps mitigate conflicts arising from social divisions, promoting harmony. Moreover, democratic mechanisms, such as reservations and affirmative action, are essential in ensuring equitable representation and power-sharing. By managing differences through dialogue and negotiation, democracy fosters a sense of belonging among diverse groups, enhancing social cohesion. Ultimately, democracy serves as a vital tool for addressing inequalities, ensuring that all citizens feel valued and included, which is essential for national integration and stability.
Question 45. Analyse the importance of democracy in reducing poverty and inequality.
[5 Marks]
Answer: Democracy plays a vital role in reducing poverty and inequality, primarily by empowering citizens and promoting accountability in governance. In a democratic system, the government is more responsive to the needs of its citizens, allowing for policies that aim at equitable wealth distribution. Democratic regimes, such as those in Denmark and Hungary, tend to implement social welfare programs that target the disadvantaged. Although democracy itself does not guarantee the eradication of poverty, it fosters an environment where individuals have a voice in decision-making processes. This participatory approach ensures that development initiatives are inclusive, addressing the needs of both the economically disadvantaged and marginalized groups. Moreover, democracy facilitates the transparency of governance, reducing corruption that often exacerbates inequality. Thus, while economic growth is important, it is equally essential that such growth translates into improved living standards for all citizens. In conclusion, democracy, through its emphasis on participation and accountability, plays a crucial role in mitigating poverty and inequality, driving the nation towards sustainable development.
Question 46.

" There is a need for protection and support of the workers in the unorganised sector." Examine the statement with examples.

[2 Marks]
Answer: The unorganised sector is significant in India, comprising a vast majority of workers who lack job security and social protection. These workers, such as landless agricultural laborers, small farmers, and artisans, often engage in low-paid and irregular work without adequate legal rights or benefits. For instance, the plight of a landless laborer who must work under harsh conditions without a minimum wage illustrates the urgent need for protection. Additionally, these workers often face social discrimination, further exacerbating their vulnerabilities. The organized sector offers better protection and benefits, but with limited growth, many are pushed into the unorganised sector, risking exploitation. Therefore, it is crucial to implement laws to safeguard these workers, provide access to social security, and improve their working conditions for both economic stability and social equity.
Question 47.

"Activities in the private sector are guided by the motive to earn profits." Examine the statement with examples.

[5 Marks]
Answer: The statement that activities in the private sector are guided by the motive to earn profits holds true in many respects. Private sector companies, such as Tata Iron and Steel Company Limited (TISCO) and Reliance Industries Limited (RIL), operate on the principle of maximizing profits for their shareholders. This profit motive drives them to innovate, enhance efficiency, and cut costs to boost their profit margins. For instance, TISCO produces steel, a commodity essential for construction, and aims to be a market leader by optimizing production processes and reducing costs to maximize profits. Conversely, activities that do not have direct profitability, such as maintaining public health services or cleaning drains, are often relegated to the public sector, as private companies typically do not find financial incentive in such ventures. Therefore, while the private sector primarily focuses on profit generation, it must be understood that not all societal needs can be met profitably. Governments often have to intervene in areas that require social welfare, which do not align with profit-making motives, thus maintaining a balance in service provision.

Paper Details

CBSE Board Exam 2024

Class

CLASS 10

Subject

SOCIAL SCIENCE

Year

2024

Set

Set 4

Other Years — SOCIAL SCIENCE

2022 Set-1

2022 Set-2

2022 Set-3

2022 Set-4

2023 Set-1

2023 Set-2

2023 Set-3

2023 Set-4

2023 Set-5

2024 Set-1

2024 Set-2

2024 Set-3

2024 Set-4

2024 Set-5

2025 Set-1

2025 Set-2

2025 Set-3

2025 Set-4

2025 Set-5

2025 Set-6