SOLUTIONS

2026 BOARD EXAM

CBSE Class 10 Social Science Board Paper 2026 — Set 2 Solutions

2026

Social Science

Class 10

CBSE EXAMINATION PAPER-2026

SOCIAL SCIENCE

(Solved)

Time allowed : 3 hours

Maximum Marks : 89

General Instructions :

Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :

  1. This question paper contains 45 questions. All questions are compulsory.
  2. This question paper is divided into 5 sections.
  3. Section A – questions number 1 to 4 are case based questions
  4. Section B – questions number 5 to 25 are multiple choice questions
  5. Section C – questions number 26 to 31 are very short answer
  6. Section D – questions number 32 to 37 are short answer
  7. Section E – questions number 38 to 45 are long answer
  8. There is no overall choice given in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions.
  9. Use of calculator is NOT allowed.

Section A

Question 1.

Read the given source carefully and answer the questions that follow :

Print and Censorship

After the revolt of 1857, the attitude of the colonial government towards freedom of the press changed. Enraged Englishmen demanded a clamp down on the ‘native’ press. As vernacular newspapers became assertively nationalist, the colonial government began debating measures of stricter control. In 1878, the Vernacular Press Act was passed, modelled on the Irish Press Laws. It provided the government with extensive rights to censor reports and editorials in the vernacular press. From now on the government kept regular track of the vernacular newspapers published in different provinces. When a report was judged as seditious, the newspaper was warned, and if the warning was ignored, the press was liable to be seized and the printing machinery confiscated.

(1) Which Act was the inspiration of the ‘Vernacular Press Act’ ?

[1 Mark]
Answer: The Vernacular Press Act of 1878 was modelled on the Irish Press Laws, as stated in the passage. This means the Irish Press Laws were the inspiration behind it, giving the colonial government strong powers to control the vernacular press.
Key Points: Vernacular Press Act was modelled on Irish Press Laws - Irish Press Laws inspired Vernacular Press Act - Act gave government right to censor vernacular press

(2) Which two powers were given by the Vernacular Press Act to the colonial government ?

[2 Marks]
Answer: The Vernacular Press Act gave the colonial government two main powers according to the passage. First, it allowed the government to censor reports and editorials in the vernacular press that they considered seditious. Second, if a newspaper disobeyed warnings after publishing such reports, the government could seize the press and confiscate the printing machinery. These powers helped the government control nationalist views in vernacular newspapers after 1857.
Key Points: Power to censor vernacular press reports-editorials - Power to warn newspapers for seditious content - Power to seize press and confiscate printing machinery if warnings ignored

(3) Why was the colonial government not in favour of freedom of the press ?

[1 Mark]
Answer: The colonial government was not in favour of freedom of the press because after the revolt of 1857, vernacular newspapers became strongly nationalist and criticized British rule. To control this, the government passed the Vernacular Press Act in 1878 that allowed censorship and strict control of such newspapers as explained in the case passage.
Key Points: After 1857 revolt - Vernacular newspapers were nationalist - Government passed Vernacular Press Act 1878 - Government censored press - Press controlled to suppress criticism
Question 2.

Read the given source carefully and answer the questions that follow :

Cropping Pattern

Rabi crops are sown in winter from October to December and harvested in summer from April to June. Kharif crops are grown with the onset of monsoon in different parts of the country and these are harvested in September-October. In between the rabi and the kharif seasons, there is a short season during the summer months known as the zaid season.

(1) Rice cultivation is an example of which type of agricultural season ?

[1 Mark]
Answer: Rice cultivation is an example of the kharif season. According to the case passage, kharif crops are grown with the onset of monsoon and harvested in September-October. Rice is a major kharif crop in India, grown mainly during the monsoon season.
Key Points: Rice is a kharif crop - Kharif crops grown during monsoon - Harvested in September-October

(2) Mention any two zaid crops.

[2 Marks]
Answer: Answer: The zaid season is a short cropping season between rabi and kharif which falls in summer months. According to the case passage, some important zaid crops are watermelon and muskmelon. Other zaid crops include cucumber and various vegetables. These crops are grown in the zaid season due to favorable summer weather and availability of irrigation.
Key Points: Zaid season is a short summer cropping season - Watermelon and muskmelon are important zaid crops - Zaid crops grow between rabi and kharif seasons

(3) Name any one crop which is harvested between April to June in India.

[1 Mark]
Answer: Answer: Wheat is one of the rabi crops harvested between April to June in India. As mentioned in the case passage, rabi crops are sown in winter from October to December and harvested in summer from April to June. Wheat is commonly grown in northern states like Punjab and Haryana during this season.
This shows the importance of rabi cropping pattern in Indian agriculture.
Key Points: Rabi crops harvested April to June - Wheat is an example - Rabi crops sown October to December
Question 3.

Read the given source carefully and answer the questions that follow :

How many political parties?

In some countries, only one party is allowed to control and run the government. These are called one-party systems. In some countries, power usually changes between two main parties. Several other parties may exist, contest elections and win a few seats in the national legislatures. Such a party system is called two-party system. If several parties compete for power, and more than two parties have a reasonable chance of coming to power either on their own strength or in alliance with others, we call it a multiparty system.

(1) Explain the main feature of ‘multi-party system’.

[1 Mark]
Answer: Multi-party system means that several political parties compete for power and more than two parties have a fair chance of forming the government either alone or by forming alliances. In this system, different parties often come together to form a coalition government, as happens in India, as explained in the case passage.
Key Points: Several parties compete for power - More than two parties have a chance to form government - Coalition government formed by alliance of parties

(2) Why is a ‘one-party system’ not compatible with democracy?

[1 Mark]
Answer: In a one-party system, only one party controls the government and other parties cannot compete freely in elections. This is not democratic because democracy requires at least two parties to compete and give people a choice. The case passage explains that democracy needs fair competition among parties for power, which one-party systems do not allow.
Key Points: Only one party controls government - No free competition in elections - Democracy needs multiple parties to give people a choice

(3) Explain the main characteristics of a coalition government.

[2 Marks]
Answer: Coalition government is formed when two or more political parties come together to form the government, usually because no single party has majority support in the legislature. This happens often in a multiparty system like India where several parties join hands to contest elections and run the government. Such an alliance or front helps parties share power and make decisions together as per the Constitution and laws. It ensures stability and cooperation among parties in the executive branch.
Key Points: Formed by alliance of two or more parties - No single party has majority support - Parties share power and decision making in the government
Question 4.

On the outline map of India , locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols :

Diagram 1 – CBSE Class 10 Social Science 2026 Set 2 Solutions

(1) A major dam built on the Mahanadi river

[1 Mark]
Answer: A major dam built on the Mahanadi river is the Hirakud Dam. It is located in Odisha and is one of the longest earthen dams in the world. According to the case passage, the Hirakud Dam is an important structure on the Mahanadi river and should be marked on the map with a suitable symbol.
Key Points: Hirakud Dam - Located on Mahanadi river - Situated in Odisha

(2) A major sea port located in Tamil Nadu

[1 Mark]
Answer: Answer: A major sea port located in Tamil Nadu is Tuticorin. It is situated on the south-eastern coast and has a natural harbour with a rich hinterland. Tuticorin handles a large variety of cargo and has flourishing trade with neighbouring countries like Sri Lanka and Maldives, as mentioned in the case passage.
Key Points: Tuticorin is a major sea port in Tamil Nadu - It has a natural harbour and rich hinterland - Handles cargo trade with Sri Lanka and Maldives

(3) A Software Technology Park located in Uttar Pradesh

[1 Mark]
Answer: A Software Technology Park in Uttar Pradesh is located in Noida. On the outline map of India, mark Noida in Uttar Pradesh and label it as a Software Technology Park using a suitable symbol, as mentioned in the case passage. This helps in identifying important IT hubs in India easily.
Key Points: Software Technology Park - Noida location - mark on Uttar Pradesh on map

(4) Eastern-most terminal station of East-West Corridor of India.

[1 Mark]
Answer: The eastern-most terminal station of the East-West Corridor in India is Silchar in Assam. According to the case passage, using an atlas to locate important places on the outline map of India helps in identifying such key points of connectivity important for national highways and development.
Key Points: Eastern-most terminal - Silchar in Assam - Locate using atlas on India map

Section B

Question 5.

Which country was the most affected by the potato famine during 1845–1849 ?

[1 Mark]
  • (A) Sweden
  • (B) Ireland
  • (C) United States of America
  • (D) France
Explanation: The Great Irish Potato Famine occurred in Ireland between 1845 and 1849, during which around 1,000,000 people died of starvation. The famine was caused by the destruction of the potato crop, which was the staple food for Ireland’s poorest peasants. This devastating famine affected Ireland the most among the options given.
Question 6.

Arrange the following historical events in chronological order and choose the correct option :

I. Publication of Bengal Gazette

II. Publication of Diamond Sutra

III. Publication of Bible by Johan Gutenberg

IV. Return of Marco Polo to Italy from China

[1 Mark]
  • (A) I, II, III, IV
  • (B) IV, III, II, I
  • (C) II, IV, III, I
  • (D) II, IV, I, III
Explanation:

The Diamond Sutra was published first in AD 868, making it the earliest event. Marco Polo returned to Italy in 1295, which comes after the Diamond Sutra. Johan Gutenberg published the Bible around 1455, which is after Marco Polo's return. Finally, the Bengal Gazette was published much later, in the 18th century. Hence, the correct chronological order is: II (Diamond Sutra), IV (Marco Polo's return), III (Gutenberg Bible), I (Bengal Gazette).

Question 7.

Two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are given below. Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option :

Assertion (A) : Giuseppe Mazzini was a revolutionary from Italy.

Reason (R) : He founded underground organisations.

[1 Mark]
  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
  • (D) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false
Explanation:

The assertion is true because Giuseppe Mazzini was indeed a revolutionary from Italy who wanted to unify Italy into a single republic. The reason is also true because he founded underground organisations such as Young Italy and Young Europe to mobilise support for the cause of Italian unification and revolution. Hence, the reason correctly explains the assertion.

Question 8. Between which two leaders was the Poona Pact signed in 1932 ?
[1 Mark]
  • (A) Bhimrao Ambedkar and Mahatma Gandhi
  • (B) Bhimrao Ambedkar and Jawaharlal Nehru
  • (C) Mahatma Gandhi and M.A. Jinnah
  • (D) Mahatma Gandhi and Lord Irwin
Explanation: The Poona Pact of September 1932 was signed between Bhimrao Ambedkar and Mahatma Gandhi. This pact was the result of Gandhi's fast unto death against the British government's decision to grant separate electorates to the Depressed Classes (Dalits) which Ambedkar had initially demanded. Gandhi believed separate electorates would hinder the integration of Dalits into society. Consequently, Ambedkar accepted Gandhi's position leading to the Poona Pact.
Question 9.

Whom does this picture represent? Choose the correct option.

[1 Mark] Diagram 2 – CBSE Class 10 Social Science 2026 Set 2 Solutions
  • (A) Columbia
  • (B) Britannia
  • (C) Germania
  • (D) Marianne
Explanation:

The context explains that the figure sitting triumphantly over the globe is Britannia, who is the symbol of the British nation. The image celebrates the British Empire, showing Britannia as the central figure representing Britain. The other options represent different national symbols: Marianne for France, Germania for Germany, and Columbia for the United States.

Question 10.

Which of the following deadly disease spread in America through Portugal and Spain in mid-sixteenth century?

[1 Mark]
  • (A) Cholera
  • (B) Malaria
  • (C) Yellow fever
  • (D) Smallpox
Explanation:

Smallpox was the disease that spread in America through Portugal and Spain in the mid-sixteenth century. The original inhabitants of America had no immunity against smallpox, which made it a deadly killer. It spread rapidly, even ahead of European settlers, killing and decimating whole communities and paving the way for conquest. The context specifically highlights smallpox as the most powerful weapon of the Spanish conquerors because of the lack of immunity among Native Americans.

Question 11.

In which Indian state is ‘Bamboo drip irrigation’ system used ?

[1 Mark]
  • (A) Kerala
  • (B) Meghalaya
  • (C) Himachal Pradesh
  • (D) Rajasthan
Explanation:

The Bamboo drip irrigation system is a traditional method used in Meghalaya. It involves tapping stream and spring water using bamboo pipes to transport water over long distances, where it is reduced to drops that irrigate the plants at the root. This method is prevalent in Meghalaya as per the given context.

Question 12. Choose the correct option to fill in the blank. The largest wind farm cluster in India is located between __________.
[1 Mark]
  • (A) Nagercoil to Madurai
  • (B) Hazira to Jhabua
  • (C) Jaipur to Jodhpur
  • (D) Bokaro to Raniganj
Explanation: According to the provided context, the largest wind farm cluster in India is located in Tamil Nadu, specifically from Nagercoil to Madurai. This region is well known for effective use of wind energy, making 'Nagercoil to Madurai' the correct choice among the options given.
Question 13.

Identify the plantation crop from the following :

[1 Mark]
  • (A) Rubber
  • (B) Wheat
  • (C) Rice
  • (D) Bajra
Explanation:

Rubber is a plantation crop grown in tropical regions where moist and humid climate conditions prevail. The context states that in India, important plantation crops include tea, coffee, rubber, sugarcane, and banana. Rubber requires a rainfall of more than 200 cm and temperatures above 25°C, and it is mainly grown in Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, and other tropical areas. Wheat, rice, and bajra are not plantation crops; they are food crops generally grown in fields and not in large plantations.

Question 14.

Read the following statements about the functions of political parties and choose the correct option :

I. Political parties build public opinion.

II. Political parties play the role of the opposition.

III. Political parties present their programmes to the public.

IV. Political parties make foreign policy.

[1 Mark]
  • (A) Only I, III and IV are correct.
  • (B) Only I, II and IV are correct.
  • (C) Only I, II and III are correct.
  • (D) Only II, III and IV are correct.
Explanation:

Statements I, II and III are correct because political parties build public opinion by shaping and highlighting issues (I), play the role of the opposition by supporting or restraining the government and making policies (II), and present their programmes to the public through election campaigns and public communication (III). Statement IV is incorrect because making foreign policy is the function of the government, not political parties directly.

Question 15.

Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option :

Column I (List) ---------------- Column II (Subject)

a. Union List --------------- i. Police

b. State List --------------- ii. Computer software

c. Concurrent List ----------- iii. Adoption

d. Residuary subjects --------- iv. Defence

[1 Mark]
  • (A) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii
  • (B) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
  • (C) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
  • (D) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
Explanation: According to the given context, Union List contains subjects of national importance like defence, so Union List matches with defence (a-iv). State List contains subjects of local importance such as police, so State List matches with police (b-i). Concurrent List includes subjects of common interest like adoption, so Concurrent List matches with adoption (c-iii). Residuary subjects are those not listed in any of the three lists, which includes new subjects like computer software, so Residuary subjects match with computer software (d-ii). Therefore, the correct matching is a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii.
Question 16.

In Sri Lanka, which one of the following changes to the 1956 law gave rise to the possibility of civil war ?

[1 Mark]
  • (A) Declaring Sinhala as the official language.
  • (B) Ensuring power sharing among all sections.
  • (C) Implementing a policy of preference for Sinhalese in government jobs.
  • (D) Declaring Tamil as the official language.
Explanation:

The 1956 Act in Sri Lanka recognised Sinhala as the only official language, disregarding Tamil. This led to discrimination against the Tamil-speaking community in government jobs and education, creating ethnic tensions. The imposition of Sinhala as the sole official language marginalized Tamils and fueled demands for Tamil recognition and autonomy, ultimately escalating the conflict and leading to the possibility of civil war.

Question 17.

Which one of the following countries is an example of a ‘coming together federation’ ?

[1 Mark]
  • (A) Australia
  • (B) Spain
  • (C) Belgium
  • (D) India
Explanation:

Australia is an example of a 'coming together federation' where constituent states retain their identity and have equal power relative to the federal government. Other examples given in the context for this type of federation are the USA and Switzerland. In contrast, countries like India, Spain, and Belgium exemplify 'holding together federations' where the central government is stronger.

Question 18.

Study the following table and arrange the States from lower to higher on the basis of ‘Life Expectancy at Birth’ and choose the correct option :

[1 Mark] Diagram 3 – CBSE Class 10 Social Science 2026 Set 2 Solutions
  • (A) Haryana, Kerala, Bihar, Odisha
  • (B) Odisha, Bihar, Haryana, Kerala
  • (C) Odisha, Bihar, Kerala, Haryana
  • (D) Kerala, Haryana, Bihar, Odisha
Explanation:

Based on the comparative socio-economic data provided, Kerala has the highest life expectancy due to better health indicators such as the lowest Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) and higher literacy rates. Haryana is better than Bihar and Odisha but behind Kerala. Bihar and Odisha have lower life expectancy due to higher infant mortality and lower per capita income compared to Haryana and Kerala. Typically, Bihar has lower life expectancy than Haryana but Odisha is slightly better than Bihar, so the order from lowest to highest life expectancy is Odisha, Bihar, Haryana, Kerala.

Question 19.

Two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are given below. Read both the statements and choose the correct option :

Assertion (A) : Agricultural production related activities are included in the tertiary sector.

Reason (R) : Tertiary sector is called as service sector.

[1 Mark]
  • (A) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  • (C) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  • (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true
Explanation:

The Assertion (A) is false because agricultural production related activities are part of the primary sector, not the tertiary sector. The primary sector includes activities like agriculture, fishing, forestry, and mining. The Reason (R) is true because the tertiary sector is indeed called the service sector, which includes activities providing support and services to primary and secondary sectors such as transport, banking, insurance, and education. Therefore, only Reason (R) is true.

Question 20.

Why do some countries impose tariffs on imported goods in the context of globalization? Choose the correct reason from the following options :

[1 Mark]
  • (A) To support free trade
  • (B) To attract investment
  • (C) To lower import costs
  • (D) To protect local industries
Explanation:

Countries impose tariffs on imported goods to protect their local industries from foreign competition. As explained in the context, after Independence, India set trade barriers to shield its developing industries from imports, allowing them time to grow without facing competition from established foreign companies. Tariffs increase the cost of imported goods, making local products more competitive in the domestic market.

Question 21. Why is Rupee accepted as a medium of exchange in India ?
[1 Mark]
  • (A) Because it is issued by the Reserve Bank of India on behalf of the State Government.
  • (B) Because it is issued by the Reserve Bank of India on behalf of the Central Government.
  • (C) Because it is issued by the Reserve Bank of India on behalf of the World Bank.
  • (D) Because it is issued by the State Bank of India on behalf of the Central Government.
Explanation: The rupee is accepted as a medium of exchange in India because it is authorised and issued by the Reserve Bank of India on behalf of the Central Government. According to Indian law, only the Reserve Bank of India has the authority to issue currency notes, and the rupee is legal tender that cannot be refused for transactions anywhere in India. This government backing and legal authorisation ensure the acceptance of the rupee in everyday transactions.
Question 22.

Which of the following is an example of public sector ?

[1 Mark]
  • (A) Tata Iron and Steel Company
  • (B) Indian Railways
  • (C) Reliance Industries Limited
  • (D) Birla Cement
Explanation:

Indian Railways is owned and operated by the government, making it an example of the public sector. On the other hand, Tata Iron and Steel Company, Reliance Industries Limited, and Birla Cement are privately owned companies and belong to the private sector. The public sector consists of industries that are owned and managed by the government to provide services for the public.

Question 23.

Smt. Deepti is a resident of X country. Her country is a developed country. Which of the following would be a characteristic of her country ?

[1 Mark]
  • (A) High Infant Mortality Rate
  • (B) Low Literacy Rate
  • (C) Low Net Attendance Ratio
  • (D) High Per Capita Income
Explanation:

A developed country is characterized by a high standard of living, which includes a high per capita income. The other options such as High Infant Mortality Rate, Low Literacy Rate, and Low Net Attendance Ratio are typically characteristics of developing or underdeveloped countries. The context comparing Kerala (a developed state) with Bihar (a less developed state) shows that Kerala has low infant mortality rate (7), high literacy rate (94%), and high net attendance ratio (83), all indicating development. Therefore, High Per Capita Income is a key characteristic of a developed country.

Question 24.

Which one of the following is the purpose of collateral in a loan ?

[1 Mark]
  • (A) To avoid repayment on the loan
  • (B) To secure the loan for the lender
  • (C) To increase the interest for the lender
  • (D) To reduce paperwork for the lender
Explanation:

Collateral acts as a guarantee to the lender until the loan is repaid. It is an asset that the borrower owns and pledges, such as land, buildings, or deposits with banks. If the borrower fails to repay the loan, the lender has the right to sell the collateral to recover the loan amount. Therefore, the primary purpose of collateral is to secure the loan for the lender.

Question 25.

Which of the following countries was granted autonomy by the Habsburg rulers in 1867 ?

[1 Mark]
  • (A) Italy
  • (B) Hungary
  • (C) England
  • (D) Russia
Explanation:

According to the context, the Habsburg rulers granted more autonomy to the Hungarians in 1867. This was part of the Austro-Hungarian Compromise of 1867, which created the Dual Monarchy of Austria-Hungary, giving Hungary self-governance while still being under the Habsburg monarchy. The other options, Italy, Russia, and England, were not granted autonomy by the Habsburgs in 1867.

Section C

Question 26.
  1. Two places ‘A’ and ‘B’ have been marked on the given political outline map of India . Identify them with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them :

A. The place where the session of the Indian National Congress was held in September 1920.

B. The place where Mahatma Gandhi led the Peasant Movement against Indigo Cultivation.

[2 Marks] Diagram 4 – CBSE Class 10 Social Science 2026 Set 2 Solutions
Answer: (a) Place A is Nagpur, where the Indian National Congress session was held in September 1920. This session is important because it adopted the Non-Cooperation Movement led by Mahatma Gandhi.
(b) Place B is Champaran in Bihar, where Mahatma Gandhi led the Peasant Movement against the forced indigo cultivation by British landlords. This was Gandhi’s first major Satyagraha in India and helped improve the peasants’ conditions.
Key Points: Nagpur - Indian National Congress session 1920 - Champaran Peasant Movement led by Gandhi - Indigo cultivation protest - First Satyagraha in India
Question 27.

Describe the role of communities in the conservation of forests in India.

[2 Marks]
Answer: Local communities in India play a crucial role in forest conservation by protecting forests that are part of their traditional habitats. Many communities guard forests through patrols, taking turns to watch over them, which helps prevent illegal logging and destruction. Sacred groves like sarnas, devarakudu, kan, and rai have been preserved for centuries by village traditions. Communities benefit by sustainably using non-timber forest products and sharing timber from successful protection efforts. Their involvement ensures the preservation of biodiversity and supports their own long-term livelihood.
Key Points: Traditional communities protect forests - Villages guard forests with patrols - Sacred groves preserved by local customs - Sustainable use of non-timber products - Sharing benefits from forest produce - Ensures biodiversity conservation and livelihoods
Question 28.

Describe any two steps taken by the Government of India to protect forests and wildlife.

[2 Marks]
Answer: Two steps taken by the Government of India to protect forests and wildlife are:
1. The Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act was implemented in 1972 to provide legal protection to endangered species and to ban hunting of wild animals.
2. The government has established national parks and wildlife sanctuaries to conserve natural habitats and protect flora and fauna from destruction.
These steps help in conserving biodiversity and preventing extinction of species.
Key Points: Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972 - Ban on hunting - Establishment of national parks and wildlife sanctuaries
Question 29.

Suggest any two reforms to strengthen ‘party system’ in India.

Answer: Two reforms to strengthen the party system in India are:
(a) Introduce internal democracy in political parties by conducting regular organisational elections and allowing members to participate in decision-making processes.
(b) Ensure transparency and accountability by making political parties file their income tax returns and follow strict codes of conduct to prevent corruption and misuse of funds.
Key Points: Internal democracy in parties - Transparency and accountability - Regular organisational elections
Question 30.

“Complaints are the testimony to the success of Democracy.” Explain the statement with examples.

[2 Marks]
Answer: Complaints show that people in a democracy are aware and actively participate. In a democracy, people have the right to express dissatisfaction and expect better governance. Complaints prove that citizens are not just subjects but active citizens who want their voices heard. For example, people complain about corruption or poor services, which means they expect transparency and accountability. This ongoing criticism helps improve the system and makes democracy successful as people keep demanding better rights and governance.
Thus, complaints are a sign that democracy is working and people trust their power.
Key Points: Complaints indicate public awareness - Complaints reflect citizens' active role - Complaints help improve democracy
Question 31.

Explain ‘Disguised Unemployment’ with example.

[2 Marks]
Answer: Disguised Unemployment occurs when more people are employed than actually needed but their contribution to total output is negligible or zero. For example, in a family working on a farm, if only 5 workers are needed but 8 are working, the 3 extra persons are disguised unemployed. They appear to be working but their work does not increase production. This shows underemployment where people work less than their potential. Hence, though employed, their unemployment is disguised.
Key Points: More workers than needed - Contribution of extra workers is negligible - People appear employed but productivity is low

Section D

Question 32.

Analyse the role of language in the development of nationalism in Poland during the nineteenth century.

[3 Marks]
Answer: Language played a crucial role in the development of nationalism in Poland during the nineteenth century. Although Poland was partitioned by Russia, Prussia, and Austria and ceased to exist as an independent state, national feelings were preserved through culture, especially language. The Russian rulers tried to suppress Polish by forcing Russian language in schools and public life. However, the Polish clergy and intellectuals used the Polish language as a tool of resistance and to keep national identity alive. After the failed 1831 uprising, language became a symbol of patriotism and unity among Poles. Romanticism further strengthened nationalist sentiments by promoting Polish history, folklore, poetry, and songs in the native language, helping to build a shared national consciousness and a collective sense of belonging. Thus, language was both a cultural weapon and a key means to inspire and connect people in their struggle for independence.
Key Points: Polish language suppressed by Russian rulers - Polish language used as resistance tool - Romanticism promoted nationalism through language and culture
Question 33.

Analyse the main provisions of the Treaty of Vienna of 1815.

[3 Marks]
Answer: Main Provisions of the Treaty of Vienna of 1815:
The Treaty of Vienna was signed after the defeat of Napoleon to restore stability in Europe. The main provisions were:
1. Restoration of Monarchies: The Bourbon dynasty was restored to power in France and other monarchies overthrown by Napoleon were reinstated.
2. Territorial Changes: France lost the territories annexed by Napoleon. Russia received part of Poland, and Prussia was given a portion of Saxony.
3. German Confederation: The German Confederation of 39 states, set up by Napoleon, was maintained but under loose control.
4. Balance of Power: The treaty aimed at creating a new conservative order to prevent future wars by establishing a balance of power among European nations.
5. Strengthening of Autocratic Monarchies: The treaty supported autocratic regimes with strong armies, bureaucracies, and abolished feudalism to ensure stability.
Overall, the treaty sought to undo the changes caused by the Napoleonic wars and restore old regimes to create lasting peace in Europe.
Key Points: Restoration of monarchies - Territorial adjustments - Formation of German Confederation - Balance of power established - Strengthening of autocratic regimes
Question 34.

Explain any three main factors responsible for land degradation.

[3 Marks]
Answer: Factors responsible for land degradation:
(a) Deforestation: Cutting down of trees for agriculture, mining, or construction reduces vegetation cover, which leads to soil erosion and loss of soil fertility.
(b) Overgrazing: When too many animals graze the land excessively, the vegetation is destroyed and soil becomes exposed to erosion, leading to degradation.
(c) Over-irrigation: Excessive use of water in agriculture leads to waterlogging and salinization of soil, thereby reducing its productivity and causing degradation.
Key Points: Deforestation - Overgrazing - Over-irrigation
Question 35.

“The creation of linguistic states was the first and a major test for democratic politics in India.” Explain the statement.

[3 Marks]
Answer: The creation of linguistic states was a significant test for Indian democracy because it challenged the unity and integrity of a newly independent nation.
When India became independent in 1947, its states were not organized on linguistic lines but more on historical or administrative bases.
The demand for states based on languages emerged from different regions as people wanted to preserve their language, culture, and identity.
This posed a challenge for democracy as the government had to balance unity with diversity.
Eventually, after much debate, the States Reorganisation Act of 1956 was passed, creating states on linguistic lines.
This decision helped in promoting democracy by giving people a sense of belonging and better administration.
It proved that India's democratic system could accommodate diversity and address people's aspirations peacefully.
Thus, the creation of linguistic states strengthened India's unity and showed democracy's resilience in handling complex issues.
Key Points: Challenge to unity and integrity - Demand to preserve language and culture - States Reorganisation Act 1956 - Promotion of democracy and better administration - Strengthening India's unity
Question 36.

Suggest any three measures for labour safety in the unorganised sector.

[3 Marks]
Answer: Measures for Labour Safety in the Unorganised Sector:
(a) Providing proper safety equipment and training: Workers should be given helmets, gloves, masks and other safety gear along with proper training to use them effectively to prevent workplace injuries.
(b) Implementing strict safety regulations: Government and employers should enforce strict safety standards and regular inspections to ensure that workplaces follow safety norms and prevent hazardous working conditions.
(c) Creating awareness and health facilities: Labourers should be made aware of occupational hazards and health risks. Basic healthcare and emergency medical facilities should be available near the work sites to treat any injuries quickly.
Key Points: Provision of safety equipment and training - Implementation of strict safety regulations - Awareness and availability of health facilities
Question 37.

Define the term ‘Body Mass Index’. Explain the method of its calculation.

[3 Marks]
Answer: Body Mass Index (BMI) is a measure used to assess a person's body weight relative to their height. It helps to classify whether a person is underweight, normal weight, overweight, or obese.

Method of Calculation:
To calculate BMI, the formula is BMI = weight (in kilograms) / height (in meters) squared.
Steps to calculate BMI:
1. Measure the person's weight in kilograms.
2. Measure the person's height in meters.
3. Square the height value (height * height).
4. Divide the weight by the squared height value.
The resulting number is the BMI value. For example, if a person weighs 70 kg and is 1.75 m tall, the BMI will be 70 / (1.75 * 1.75) = 22.86.
Based on the BMI value, the health status is interpreted.
Key Points: Definition of BMI - Formula for BMI calculation - Stepwise method to calculate BMI

Section E

Question 38.

“Women played an important role during the Civil Disobedience Movement.” Support the statement with appropriate arguments.

[5 Marks]
Answer: Role of Women in the Civil Disobedience Movement:
Women played a crucial role in the Civil Disobedience Movement by actively participating in protests and demonstrations against British rule. Initially, even Mahatma Gandhi was hesitant about women's participation, but leaders like Sarojini Naidu convinced him to allow women to join, marking a major shift.

1. Large-Scale Participation: Women from different backgrounds took part in the salt satyagraha and other forms of civil disobedience. They broke salt laws and marched fearlessly, putting their lives at risk.

2. Showing Solidarity and Strength: Their presence helped unite various communities by showing solidarity with the movement. Women took part in public rallies, which drew attention to the injustice of British policies and raised awareness nationally and internationally.

3. Inspiring Social Change: Women’s involvement challenged traditional gender roles and inspired social change. This encouraged more women to demand rights and participate in public life.

4. Voice Against Injustice: The Civil Disobedience Movement gave women a platform to raise their voices against violations and discriminatory laws affecting them.

In conclusion, women were not only participants but also leaders and motivators in the movement, making their role indispensable in the fight for India’s independence.
Key Points: Large-scale participation by women - Women breaking salt laws and joining protests - Inspiring social change by challenging gender roles - Showing solidarity in public rallies - Raising voice against injustice and discriminatory laws
Question 39.

“The revival of Indian folklore strengthened nationalism in India.” Support the statement with appropriate arguments.

[5 Marks]
Answer: The revival of Indian folklore played a significant role in strengthening nationalism in India.
The movement to revive Indian folklore began in the late nineteenth century as nationalists aimed to rediscover and preserve India's rich cultural heritage. Artists and scholars collected folk tales, songs, legends, and ballads from villages to protect these traditions from dying out due to foreign rule.
Folk traditions highlighted the diverse yet unified cultural identity of India, reminding people of their shared past and values. This helped create a sense of pride and belonging among Indians.
Prominent figures like Rabindranath Tagore in Bengal led efforts to collect and popularize nursery rhymes, myths, and folk ballads. Similarly, in Madras, Natesa Sastri published extensive folklore collections. These efforts brought folk culture into the national spotlight.
Folk stories and songs often contained themes of bravery, sacrifice, and resistance which inspired people to unite against colonial oppression. They symbolized India's rich history and created emotional connections between people and their land.
Moreover, folklore revival challenged British colonial narratives that depicted Indians as backward. By rediscovering a glorious past through folk culture, Indians developed a stronger national consciousness and self-respect.
In conclusion, the revival of folklore helped awaken national pride, unite diverse communities, and build a cultural foundation crucial for India’s freedom movement and the growth of nationalism.
Key Points: Revival preserved rich cultural heritage - Folk traditions created shared identity and national pride - Folk tales inspired unity and resistance against colonial rule - Prominent leaders like Rabindranath Tagore promoted folklore - Challenged colonial stereotypes and boosted self-respect
Question 40.

Explain the reasons why most of the Jute industries in India are located in West Bengal.

[5 Marks]
Answer: Reasons for Jute Industries being located in West Bengal:
1. Proximity to jute producing areas: Most of the jute producing regions lie close to West Bengal, especially the floodplains along the Ganges and its tributaries which provide fertile alluvial soil ideal for jute cultivation.
2. Transportation facilities: The Hugli river basin offers inexpensive water transport for raw jute. This is supported by a good network of railways, roadways and waterways facilitating easy movement of raw materials to the mills.
3. Abundant water supply: Jute processing requires large quantities of water, and the rivers and water bodies in West Bengal provide abundant water necessary for retting and processing of jute.
4. Cheap Labour: West Bengal and adjoining states like Bihar, Odisha and Uttar Pradesh provide cheap and skilled labour required for jute mills.
5. Urban Support Services: Kolkata, being a major urban centre nearby, provides banking, insurance, and port facilities which are essential for export and business operations of jute industries.
6. Historical Factors: The first jute mill was established in 1855 near Kolkata, establishing a base and infrastructure which encouraged growth of the industry in that region.
These factors combined have made West Bengal the hub for majority of India’s jute industries.
Key Points: Proximity to jute producing areas - Availability of water transport and good connectivity - Abundant water supply for processing - Availability of cheap labour - Support from urban facilities like Kolkata
Question 41.

Explain the measures to reduce industrial pollution.

[5 Marks]
Answer: Measures to Reduce Industrial Pollution:
Industrial pollution can be reduced by adopting several important measures.
(a) Separation of Residential and Industrial Areas: Densely populated residential areas should be located far away from industrial zones to minimize exposure to harmful pollutants.
(b) Awareness of Hazardous Substances: People living near industries should be informed about the storage of toxic or hazardous substances and the possible effects if an accident occurs.
(c) Fire Warning and Fighting Systems: Industries should improve their fire detection and firefighting mechanisms to handle emergencies efficiently.
(d) Water Pollution Control: Industrial waste water pollutes freshwater significantly. To reduce this, industries should reuse and recycle water in multiple stages and harvest rainwater to meet water needs.
(e) Air Pollution Control: Air pollution can be decreased by fitting smoke stacks with electrostatic precipitators, fabric filters, scrubbers, and inertial separators to remove particulate matter.
Using cleaner fuels such as oil or gas instead of coal and installing silencers on machinery and generators also reduce pollution.
(f) Waste Management: Proper treatment and disposal of industrial effluents and wastes prevent land and water degradation.
Overall, strict regulation and adoption of cleaner technologies help reduce industrial pollution and protect the environment.
Key Points: Separation of industrial and residential areas - Awareness of hazardous substances among residents - Improving fire warning and firefighting systems - Reusing and recycling industrial water - Using devices like electrostatic precipitators to reduce air pollution - Proper treatment and disposal of industrial wastes
Question 42.

Compare the Belgian model and the Sri Lankan model of power sharing.

[5 Marks]
Answer: Comparison of Belgian and Sri Lankan models of power sharing:
Belgium and Sri Lanka are both democracies that faced demands for power sharing, but they handled these challenges differently.

Belgian model: Belgium adopted a federal system of government where power is shared between the central government and different linguistic communities, mainly Dutch-speaking and French-speaking groups. The Belgian Constitution ensures equal representation of these communities in the central government, for example, by prescribing that the number of Dutch and French-speaking ministers must be equal. Certain important laws require majority support from both linguistic groups, so no single community can make decisions on its own. This model respects the diversity of language and culture by accommodating regional autonomy within a democratic federal framework, fostering unity through mutual respect and cooperation.

Sri Lankan model: Sri Lanka, on the other hand, remained largely a unitary state where the national government holds most of the power. Despite demands from the Tamil minority for greater autonomy and a federal system, the majority community did not agree to share power effectively. This refusal to share power and accommodate minority concerns led to conflict and unrest. The Sri Lankan example shows that when a majority community dominates and denies others a fair share in power, democracy suffers and social harmony is threatened.

In summary, Belgium illustrates how respecting different communities and sharing power can keep a nation united, while Sri Lanka shows the problems that arise when power is concentrated and minorities are excluded.
Key Points: Belgium is a federal democracy - equal power sharing between linguistic groups - Sri Lanka is a unitary state with centralized power - Belgium respects minority rights and ensures mutual consent - Sri Lanka majority dominates and refuses power sharing - Belgian model promotes unity and peace - Sri Lankan model caused conflict
Question 43.

Why is power sharing necessary in a democracy? Explain.

[5 Marks]
Answer: Power sharing is necessary in a democracy because it is the very spirit of democratic rule. In a democracy, power should not be concentrated in the hands of one person or a single group because it affects everyone and people have the right to be consulted about how they are governed.

When power is shared, citizens feel they have a stake in the government and its policies. This makes the government more legitimate and trustworthy. Power sharing also allows different political parties and pressure groups to compete and influence those in power, which prevents the misuse of power and promotes accountability.

Moreover, power sharing ensures that decisions take into account the interests of diverse groups in society and reduce conflicts. It supports the idea of freedom to choose among many contenders for power, ensuring that power does not remain in one hand for long.

Therefore, power sharing distributes political power among as many citizens as possible and promotes equality, fairness and peace in a democracy. It takes many forms, such as sharing power between different levels of government, political parties, and social groups, which makes democracy stronger and more inclusive.
Key Points: Power sharing is the essence of democracy - Prevents concentration of power - Gives citizens a stake in governance - Promotes competition and accountability - Addresses diverse interests - Maintains peace and fairness
Question 44.

Differentiate between the formal and informal sources of credit.

[5 Marks]
Answer: Difference between Formal and Informal Sources of Credit:

1. Definition:
Formal sources of credit are financial institutions that are regulated by the government, such as banks, cooperative societies, and other recognized credit agencies. Informal sources of credit are non-institutional lenders like moneylenders, relatives, friends, and traders.

2. Interest Rates:
Formal sources generally charge low and fixed interest rates. Informal sources usually charge high and variable interest rates which may be exploitative.

3. Documentation and Procedures:
Formal credit involves proper documentation and formal procedures, which might be time-consuming. Informal credit usually involves little or no documentation and simple procedures.

4. Loan Amount and Tenure:
Formal institutions provide larger loan amounts with longer repayment periods. Informal sources mostly provide small loans with short repayment durations.

5. Accessibility:
Formal loans are more accessible to the richer sections of society and people with stable income. Poor people often depend on informal sources due to lack of collateral or credit history.

6. Legal Protection:
Formal credit is protected legally and disputes can be settled through courts. Informal credit is mostly based on trust and personal relations, with no legal protection.

Conclusion:
It is important to increase the availability and accessibility of formal credit to reduce dependence on expensive and sometimes exploitative informal credit sources, especially for the poor.
Key Points: Formal sources regulated by government - Informal sources are private individuals or groups - Formal have low and fixed interest rates - Informal have high and variable interest rates - Formal require documentation - Informal have simple procedures - Formal provide larger loans with longer tenure - Informal provide small loans with short tenure - Formal accessible to richer people - Informal used by poor - Formal loans have legal protection - Informal loans lack legal protection
Question 45.

Explain the functioning of ‘Self-Help Groups’.

[5 Marks]
Answer: Functioning of Self-Help Groups (SHGs):
Self-Help Groups are small voluntary associations of 15-20 members, usually women, from the same locality who come together to save regularly and support each other financially and socially.

1. Regular Savings: Members meet regularly to save a small amount of money, creating a common fund for the group.
2. Internal Lending: Members can borrow small loans from this pooled savings at a low-interest rate compared to moneylenders. These loans help to meet day-to-day needs or expand small businesses.
3. Bank Linkage: After a period of disciplined savings and repayment, the SHG becomes eligible to receive loans from banks. The loan is sanctioned in the name of the group instead of individual members, and the group as a whole is responsible for repayment.
4. Social Support: Besides economic activities, SHGs provide a platform for women to discuss and address social issues like health, nutrition, education, and domestic violence.
5. Collective Responsibility: In case a member fails to repay a loan, the group members collectively ensure recovery, which builds trust among banks and promotes credit discipline.

Thus, SHGs empower rural poor women by promoting savings, providing easy credit, and fostering social awareness and unity.
Key Points: Small group of 15-20 women - Regular savings and internal lending - Bank loans given to group - Collective responsibility for loan repayment - Platform for social issues discussion

Paper Details

CBSE Board Exam 2026

Class

Class 10

Subject

Social Science

Year

2026

Set

Set 2

Other Years — Social Science

2022 Set-1

2022 Set-2

2022 Set-3

2022 Set-4

2023 Set-1

2023 Set-2

2023 Set-3

2023 Set-4

2023 Set-5

2024 Set-1

2024 Set-2

2024 Set-3

2024 Set-4

2024 Set-5

2025 Set-1

2025 Set-2

2025 Set-3

2025 Set-4

2025 Set-5

2025 Set-6

2026 Set-1

2026 Set-2

2026 Set-5