SOLUTIONS
2024 BOARD EXAM
CBSE CLASS 12-HUMANITIES POLITICAL SCIENCE Board Paper 2024 — Set 5
2024
POLITICAL SCIENCE
CLASS 12-HUMANITIES
CBSE EXAMINATION PAPER-2024
POLITICAL SCIENCE
(Solved)
General Instructions :
Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :
- This question paper contains 37 questions. All questions are compulsory.
- This question paper is divided into 6 sections.
- Section A – questions number 1 to 2 are case based questions
- Section B – questions number 3 to 7 are very short answer
- Section C – questions number 8 to 16 are multiple choice questions
- Section D – questions number 17 to 22 are short answer
- Section E – questions number 23 to 29 are long answer type i
- Section F – questions number 30 to 37 are long answer type ii
- There is no overall choice given in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions.
- Use of calculator is NOT allowed.
Section A
Question 1.
Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:
The interim government took a firm stance against the possible division of India into small principalities of different sizes. The Muslim League opposed the Indian National Congress and took the view that the States should be free to adopt any course they liked. Sardar Patel played a historic role in negotiating with the rulers of princely states firmly but diplomatically and bringing most of them into the Indian Union.
(1) Which principle was followed for the division of British India at the time of partition in 1947? (A) Principle of administrative control (B) Principle of ethnic composition (C) Principle of religious majorities (D) Principle of equality
Answer: The principle of religious majorities was followed for the division of British India at the time of partition in 1947. The partition was primarily based on the two-nation theory, which argued that Muslims and Hindus were distinct nations, leading to the creation of Pakistan as a separate nation for Muslims. This principle was pivotal in the delineation of borders and influenced the migration of populations based on religious identity.
Key Points: principle of religious majorities; partition based on two-nation theory; Muslims and Hindus as distinct nations; creation of Pakistan for Muslims; migration based on religious identity.
(2) How many princely states were there in British India at the time of independence? (A) 556 (B) 566 (C) 655 (D) 565
Answer: At the time of independence, there were 565 princely states in British India. The British decision to end their rule meant that these states would become legally independent and could choose to join India or Pakistan or remain independent. This situation posed a real threat to the unity of India, but Sardar Patel played a crucial role in integrating these states into the Indian Union.
Key Points: 565 princely states-legal independence-option to join India or Pakistan-Sardar Patel's role in integration
(3) Who was the first Deputy Prime Minister of free India? (A) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (B) Sardar Patel (C) V.K. Menon (D) Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan
Answer: The first Deputy Prime Minister of free India was Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel. He played a crucial role in the integration of princely states into the Indian Union following independence. As the Home Minister, he handled the negotiations with great skill and firmness, ensuring that most states joined India during that pivotal time.
Key Points: Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel - first Deputy Prime Minister; played a key role in integrating princely states; Home Minister during the crucial post-independence period.
(4) Which of the following statements about the princely states is NOT correct? (A) The Indian government was ready to give autonomy to some regions. (B) The ruler of Junagadh had decided to be part of independent India. (C) Princely states covered one third of the land area of British Indian empire. (D) Some of the princely states clearly wanted to become part of the Indian Union.
Answer: The statement that is NOT correct is (B) The ruler of Junagadh had decided to be part of independent India. While the princely states were given the option to join either India or Pakistan after independence, it was reported that the ruler of Junagadh initially wished to accede to Pakistan. This conflicts with the context provided, which suggests that decisions of princely rulers were not necessarily reflective of the will of the people in those states.
Key Points: Princely states wanted to join Indian Union-Ruler of Junagadh's initial intent to join Pakistan-Indian government offered autonomy
Question 2.
The given cartoon is related to Israel’s attack on Lebanon in June 2006. Study the cartoon carefully and answer the questions given below.
(1) Identify and name the organisation whose four logos are shown in the cartoon.
[1 Marks]
Answer: The organisation whose four logos are depicted in the cartoon is the United Nations (UN). The logos represent various agencies of the UN that were involved in addressing international conflicts and humanitarian crises. The portrayal in the cartoon critiques the ineffectiveness of the UN during the Israel-Lebanon conflict in 2006, highlighting public sentiment regarding its inability to act decisively in the face of violence and civilian casualties.
Key Points: UN logos; ineffectiveness during Lebanon crisis; involvement in international conflicts; public sentiment about UN
(2) Identify and name the person shown in the cartoon.
[1 Marks]
Answer: The person shown in the cartoon is likely to be a representation of a prominent world leader or a member of the United Nations, who symbolizes the ineffective response of international organizations during the Lebanon crisis in 2006. Given the context of the cartoon related to the UN's role, it could depict Kofi Annan, the then Secretary-General of the UN, as he was in a position to address the conflict during this time.
Key Points: Identification of the leader/figure depicted-Context of the UN's ineffectiveness during the Lebanon crisis-The time period of the 2006 Lebanon war
(3) Why did Israel attack Lebanon?
[2 Marks]
Answer: Israel attacked Lebanon in June 2006 primarily to confront the militant group Hezbollah. The Israeli government justified its military action by stating that it was necessary to eliminate the threat posed by Hezbollah, which had been launching attacks on Israel. This conflict escalated dramatically, leading to substantial civilian casualties and widespread destruction in Lebanese cities. Despite calls for international intervention, the United Nations only passed a resolution addressing the crisis two months later, showcasing the difficulties in resolving such conflicts in a timely manner. Israel's military operations aimed to weaken Hezbollah’s military capabilities and restore security to northern Israel.
Key Points: Israel's military action against Hezbollah-Justification of national security-Impact on civilians and infrastructure-Delay in UN response
(4) Write full form of UNICEF.
Answer: The full form of UNICEF is the United Nations International Children's Emergency Fund. It was created to provide support and assistance to children in need and to advocate for their rights globally.
Key Points: United Nations-International-Children's Emergency Fund
(5) How many states signed the United Nations Charter ?
Answer: The United Nations Charter was signed on June 26, 1945, by 50 nations. Poland, which signed later on October 15, brought the total to 51 original founding members of the UN. The signing of the Charter marked a critical step in establishing an international body aimed at preventing conflicts and promoting cooperation among nations.
Key Points: UN Charter signed on June 26, 1945-50 nations signed initially-Poland made it 51 founding members
(6) Which organisation became the successor of League of Nations ?
Answer: The organisation that became the successor of the League of Nations is the United Nations (UN). Established in 1945, the UN was created to promote international cooperation and prevent conflicts after the failures of the League of Nations, particularly in preventing World War II. The UN aims to maintain peace and security among nations, and it was formed following the signing of the United Nations Charter by 51 founding member states.
Key Points: Successor to League of Nations-Established in 1945-Promotes international cooperation-Formed after World War II-51 founding member states signed the UN Charter
(7) Which U.N. agency is concerned with the safety and peaceful use of nuclear technology ?
Answer: The United Nations Agency that is concerned with the safety and peaceful use of nuclear technology is the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA). The IAEA aims to promote the safe and peaceful use of nuclear energy while preventing the misuse of nuclear technologies for destructive purposes. This is crucial in maintaining international peace and security, especially in the context of conflicts such as the Israel-Lebanon crisis.
Key Points: International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)-promotes peaceful use of nuclear energy-ensures safety and prevents misuse-in context of international peace
Section B
Question 3.
Explain any two outcomes of the ‘Earth Summit’ held in June 1992 at Rio-de-Janeiro.
[1 Marks]
Answer: The Earth Summit in 1992 led to significant outcomes. Firstly, it resulted in the adoption of Agenda 21, a comprehensive plan for sustainable development to tackle environmental issues in relation to economic growth. Secondly, the summit established critical conventions addressing climate change, biodiversity, and forestry, which fostered international cooperation aimed at environmental preservation. These outcomes marked a pivotal point in global environmental governance, emphasizing the importance of balancing development with ecological sustainability.
Question 4.
Analyse any two reasons why issues of environment and natural resources have become a part of World Politics.
[1 Marks]
Answer: Two significant reasons why environmental and natural resource issues have become central to world politics are the global nature of environmental degradation and the increasing scarcity of resources. First, environmental issues, like climate change and pollution, transcend national borders, necessitating international collaboration for effective solutions. Second, the scarcity of vital resources such as freshwater often leads to conflicts, highlighting the political stakes involved in resource distribution and management, thus making these issues integral to global politics.
Question 5.
Explain any two complaints related to the U.N. Security Council reflected in the resolution passed by the U.N. General Assembly in 1992.
[1 Marks]
Answer: In 1992, the U.N. General Assembly expressed significant complaints regarding the U.N. Security Council. Firstly, it stated that the Council no longer reflects contemporary political realities, as its composition has remained static despite the expansion of the U.N. General Assembly. Secondly, there is a concern that the decisions of the Security Council predominantly mirror Western values and interests, leading to a lack of equitable representation for other global powers and regions.
Question 6.
Explain any two reasons to consider the year 1967 as a landmark year in India’s political and electoral history.
[1 Marks]
Answer: The year 1967 marked a significant shift in India's political landscape, primarily due to the Fourth General Elections. Firstly, it was the first election post-Nehru's era, reflecting a change in leadership and voter sentiment. Secondly, the results revealed a decline in the Congress party's dominance, leading to a rise in 'non-Congressism' and allowing regional parties to gain traction. This election laid the groundwork for a more competitive political environment in subsequent years.
Question 7.
Mention any two provisions of the Punjab Accord signed by Rajiv Gandhi and Harchand Singh Longowal in 1985.
[1 Marks]
Answer: The Punjab Accord of 1985 included two significant provisions: Firstly, it aimed to restore peace and normalcy in Punjab after years of turmoil, promoting a sense of unity among the state's diverse communities. Secondly, it recognized the importance of the Punjabi language and culture, affirming the state's identity and ensuring greater autonomy for Punjab in various administrative matters. These provisions were crucial for stabilizing the region.
Section C
Question 8.
[1 Marks]
Arrange the following events in chronological order and choose the correct option as answer:
(i) Indo-Russian Strategic Agreement
(ii) The Soviet invasion of Afghanistan
(iii) Disintegration of the Soviet Union
(iv) Socialist Revolution in Russia
Explanation: The correct chronological order of the events is (iv) Socialist Revolution in Russia, (ii) The Soviet invasion of Afghanistan, (iii) Disintegration of the Soviet Union, (i) Indo-Russian Strategic Agreement. The Socialist Revolution in Russia occurred in 1917, followed by the Soviet invasion of Afghanistan in 1979, the eventual disintegration of the Soviet Union in 1991, and the Indo-Russian Strategic Agreement was signed in 2000. Hence, the option (iv), (ii), (iii), (i) is correct.
Question 9.
Which one of the following was formed for the planned development of India, just after independence?
[1 Marks]
Explanation: The correct answer is 'Planning Commission'. It was established in March 1950, shortly after India gained independence, to facilitate planned economic development and decision-making in the country.
Question 10.
Which one of the following Princely States of India initially opposed joining the Indian Union?
[1 Marks]
Explanation: The correct answer is Hyderabad. It was the largest of the Princely States and its ruler, the Nizam, sought independent status, opposing the idea of joining the Indian Union. This is indicative of the challenges faced in integrating certain Princely States into the newly formed Indian nation.
Question 11.
[1 Marks]
Assertion (A) : People started protesting against the increase in prices of essential commodities, food scarcity and growing unemployment before the fourth General elections in India.
Reason (R) : Failure of monsoons, widespread drought, decline in agricultural production and serious food shortage caused the problem.
Explanation: Both the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are correct and the Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A). The context clearly states that the economic crisis was triggered by factors such as the failure of the monsoons, decline in agricultural production, and serious food shortages, leading to protests over rising prices and unemployment.
Question 12.
[1 Marks]
Which one of the following developing countries was the first to successfully control the rate of growth of population ?
Explanation: The correct answer is Sri Lanka. According to the provided context, Sri Lanka was one of the first developing countries to successfully control its population growth rate, highlighting its achievements in economic growth and human development despite the conflicts.
Question 13.
[1 Marks]
Planning Commission of India was replaced with NITI Aayog because
Explanation: The correct option is 'it was becoming irrelevant to face the new challenges of development.' The Planning Commission had become less effective in addressing the modern, diverse needs of India’s economy, which required a more flexible and decentralized approach. NITI Aayog was established to foster cooperative federalism and provide a platform to address the evolving challenges of development more effectively.
Question 14.
[1 Marks]
After the death of Lal Bahadur Shastri, there was an intense competition for the post of Prime Minister between Indira Gandhi and which one of the following ?
Explanation: The correct answer is Morarji Desai. The context states that there was intense competition between Morarji Desai and Indira Gandhi after the death of Lal Bahadur Shastri, highlighting that Morarji Desai was a significant rival to her during this period.
Question 15.
[1 Marks]
Which event marked the end of Communism in the Soviet Union ?
Explanation: The disintegration of the Soviet Union marked the end of Communism as it led to the collapse of the socialist regime, reflected by the independence movements across Eastern Europe and the eventual dissolution of the Soviet state itself. This event concluded the ideological battle between capitalism and socialism, as highlighted in the provided context.
Question 16.
[1 Marks]
Name the state from which Chhattisgarh was carved out.
Explanation: Chhattisgarh was carved out of Madhya Pradesh in the year 2000, as part of a reorganization of states to improve administrative efficiency and meet demands for separate states.
Section D
Question 17.
Explain any two outcomes of the ‘Earth Summit’ held in June 1992 at Rio-de-Janeiro.
[2 Marks]
Answer: The Earth Summit in June 1992 led to significant global environmental outcomes. Firstly, it produced the Rio Declaration, which established 27 principles for sustainable development, emphasizing the need for a balanced approach between economic growth and environmental protection. Secondly, the summit resulted in the formation of Agenda 21, a comprehensive plan of action to promote sustainable development worldwide. It addressed various issues, including poverty, environmental degradation, and the conservation of biodiversity, highlighting the need for cooperation between developed and developing nations.
Question 18.
Analyse any two reasons as to why issues of environment and natural resources have become a part of World Politics.
[2 Marks]
Answer: Two significant reasons for the incorporation of environmental and natural resource issues into world politics are their global impact and the interconnectedness of nations. Firstly, environmental degradation, such as climate change and biodiversity loss, transcends national borders, affecting global populations and economies. No single government can tackle these challenges alone, thus necessitating international cooperation. Secondly, the distribution and management of natural resources, including water scarcity, can create conflicts among states, leading to tensions that require diplomatic resolutions. As resources become scarcer, nations are compelled to engage politically to address these pressing global concerns and share responsibility in seeking viable solutions.
Question 19.
Explain any two complaints related to the U.N. Security Council reflected in the resolution passed by the U.N. General Assembly in 1992.
[2 Marks]
Answer: The resolution passed by the U.N. General Assembly in 1992 expressed significant concerns regarding the U.N. Security Council. Firstly, it highlighted that the Security Council does not represent contemporary political realities, meaning its composition has not kept pace with the changes in global power dynamics and population. Secondly, the resolution pointed out that the decisions often reflect Western values and interests, emphasizing that the interests of a few dominant nations overshadow the voices of newer or emerging nations. This imbalance has led to a lack of equitable representation in the Council, calling for reforms to enhance its legitimacy and effectiveness.
Question 20.
Explain any two reasons to consider the year 1967 as a landmark year in India’s political and electoral history.
[2 Marks]
Answer: The year 1967 is a landmark in India’s political landscape primarily due to the fourth general elections that marked a significant shift in power dynamics. Firstly, the Congress party, which had been the dominant force since independence, faced unprecedented challenges as it contested the elections without the leadership of Jawaharlal Nehru, revealing cracks in its previously unassailable position. Secondly, the election results indicated a growing wave of political dissent, leading to a rise in non-Congress parties. This emergence signaled an essential transition towards a more competitive multi-party system, laying the groundwork for future electoral dynamics and the political landscape in India.
Question 21.
Mention any two provisions of the Punjab Accord signed by Rajiv Gandhi and Harchand Singh Longowal in 1985.
[2 Marks]
Answer: The Punjab Accord, signed in 1985 between Rajiv Gandhi and Harchand Singh Longowal, aimed to restore peace and normalcy in Punjab after a period of strife. Two significant provisions of this accord were: first, the commitment to implement the recommendations of the Sardar S. B. Singh Commission regarding the sharing of the river waters among Punjab and its neighboring states to address local grievances. Second, the accord provided for the withdrawal of cases against activists involved in the agitation, fostering a sense of reconciliation and political stability in the region. The agreement aimed to address the issues raised by the Akali Dal and restore the political rights of the Sikh community.
Question 22.
Explain any two advantages of Coalition governments.
[2 Marks]
Answer: Coalition governments offer significant advantages that enhance governance in a multi-party system. Firstly, they promote inclusivity and representation, allowing diverse groups and interests to have a voice in the decision-making process. This balancing act often leads to policies that are more reflective of the population's needs. Secondly, coalition governments foster a culture of compromise and tolerance. By accommodating different viewpoints and factions, they can mitigate extreme political positions, reducing polarization and conflict within the legislature. This collaborative approach encourages stability and continuity in governance, as it often leads to more widely accepted solutions to contentious issues.
Section E
Question 23.
Explain any four consequences of Globalisation.
[4 Marks]
Answer: Globalisation has several significant consequences that affect various aspects of society. Firstly, it leads to cultural homogenization, where local cultures may be overshadowed by dominant global cultures, particularly through media and consumerism, threatening cultural diversity. Secondly, politically, globalisation can diminish state sovereignty as national governments may be influenced or constrained by global economic agreements and multinational corporations. Thirdly, economically, it often leads to increased economic interdependence, resulting in both opportunities for growth and vulnerabilities to global market fluctuations. Finally, it can exacerbate inequality, benefiting wealthier nations and individuals while leaving poorer communities at a disadvantage, creating a divide between the 'global rich' and 'global poor'. These consequences illustrate that globalisation is a complex and multifaceted phenomenon with both positive and negative impacts.
Question 24.
[4 Marks]
'After the disintegration of the Soviet Union, India has maintained good relations with all the new independent countries, but the most cordial relations are still there between Russia and India.' Justify the statement with two examples.
Answer: After the disintegration of the Soviet Union, India has continued to foster strong ties with various post-communist nations; however, its relationship with Russia remains the most robust. First, a significant example is India's military cooperation with Russia, where India has relied on Russian technology for defense and weapons systems since the Cold War. This partnership has evolved to include joint production of military hardware, showcasing deep trust. Second, during international disputes, Russia has consistently supported India’s stance, particularly in the context of Kashmir, reaffirming their political solidarity. Such cooperation highlights the depth and resilience of Indo-Russian relations, rooted in a shared history and mutual strategic interests.
Question 25.
[4 Marks]
During Cold War period the US economy was more developed than the rest of the world. Still the Soviet system had some special features which distinguish it from the US. Evaluate any two such features.
Answer: During the Cold War, the Soviet economic system was characterized by unique features that distinguished it from the US model. Firstly, the central planning approach employed by the Soviet Union meant that the government controlled all production and distribution decisions. This contrast with the free-market capitalist system of the US led to inefficiencies and a lack of innovation, as enterprises were not driven by competition. Secondly, the Soviet focus on heavy industry, particularly in areas like military and energy production, prioritized the development of a robust industrial sector over consumer goods. As a consequence, while the Soviet economy excelled in sectors like arms and energy, it often hindered the availability and quality of everyday goods for the citizens, leading to dissatisfaction and ultimately economic stagnation. These features underscore the divergent economic philosophies that shaped both superpowers during this significant period.
Question 26.
Explain any two main challenges faced by Pakistan in establishing a successful democracy.
[4 Marks]
Answer: Pakistan has faced several significant challenges in establishing a successful democracy, but two key issues stand out. Firstly, the pervasive dominance of the military in the political landscape has severely undermined democratic institutions. The military often justifies its intervention by claiming that political parties are unable to maintain stability and ensure national security, particularly in light of ongoing conflicts with India. This perception has led to frequent military coups, effectively crippling elected governments and diminishing public trust in democratic processes. Secondly, the lack of genuine international support for democracy has added to the struggles of Pakistani democratic movements. Historically, Western powers, particularly the United States, have at times favored military rule over democratic governance due to concerns over terrorism and regional stability. This external backing has enabled military rulers to sustain their power and has weakened democratic institutions, leaving citizens with limited options for political participation and representation. Together, these challenges illustrate the complex interplay of domestic and international factors that hinder Pakistan's democratic journey.
Question 27.
[4 Marks]
“SAARC has taken a major regional initiative in South Asian States to evolve co-operation through multilateral means.” Justify the statement with two examples.
Answer: The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC), established in 1985, is a notable initiative aimed at fostering regional cooperation among South Asian countries. One significant example is the South Asian Free Trade Area (SAFTA) agreement, which was signed in 2004 to promote intra-regional trade and economic integration among member states. By lowering tariffs and encouraging trade, SAFTA aims to create a free trade zone in South Asia, enhancing economic cooperation. Another example is the SAARC Development Fund, which was initiated to finance projects that benefit regional development in various sectors like education, health, and infrastructure. This fund serves as a platform for pooled resources to tackle regional issues collectively, promoting sustainable development through collaboration. Despite political challenges, these initiatives reflect SAARC's commitment to regional cooperation, demonstrating the potential for mutual benefits and progress when South Asian countries work together.
Question 28.
Describe any four circumstances that led to protests against the Congress Government during 1974-1975.
[4 Marks]
Answer: Several key circumstances contributed to the protests against the Congress Government from 1974 to 1975. Firstly, the prevailing economic crisis greatly affected the masses, leading to a surge in prices of essential commodities such as food grains and cooking oil, resulting in widespread discontent. Secondly, student unrest, particularly in Gujarat and Bihar, highlighted the youth's dissatisfaction with the government’s policies. Thirdly, increased activities of Marxist groups intensified opposition to Congress, critiquing its socialist intentions. Finally, the coalition of non-Congress parties, including JP's principled stand during the peoples' march, unified various opposition factions, allowing them to effectively mobilize large-scale protests against Indira Gandhi's administration. These factors created an atmosphere ripe for dissent and highlighted the Congress government's vulnerabilities during this tumultuous period.
Question 29.
Describe the events that took place in Sikkim from the time of India’s independence to its merger with India.
[4 Marks]
Answer: At the time of India's independence in 1947, Sikkim was a protectorate, meaning it was under Indian defense and foreign relations but had its internal governance handled by Chogyal, its monarch. Political changes began with the rise of the Sikkim National Congress, which campaigned for Sikkim's integration into India. After the Congress won elections, they pushed for full integration, leading to a legislative assembly resolution in April 1975. A referendum was subsequently held, showing popular support for merging with India. The Indian Parliament accepted Sikkim's request, making it the 22nd state of India. Despite Chogyal's opposition and claims of foul play against India, the merger enjoyed substantial support from the people, and opposition did not escalate into significant conflict within Sikkim. Thus, the integration marked a significant step in Sikkim's political landscape, ensuring its status as part of the Indian union amidst regional developments.
Section F
Question 30.
Explain any three reasons for spending more on traditional security than on non-traditional security by India.
[6 Marks]
Answer: India's preference for traditional security spending can be attributed to several key reasons. Firstly, the nation has faced significant military threats from neighboring countries, primarily Pakistan and China, necessitating a strong military presence and advanced weaponry to deter aggression and ensure territorial integrity. Secondly, traditional security measures directly align with national sovereignty and pride; military capabilities are often viewed as a reflection of a nation’s strength. Lastly, the historical context of conflicts and regional tensions has ingrained a perception of military force as the primary means of achieving security, overshadowing non-traditional threats that, while critical, may not seem immediately pressing in comparison. While non-traditional security issues such as terrorism, environmental challenges, and human security are increasingly relevant, immediate military threats remain the focus of India's strategic allocations.
Question 31.
Explain any three new sources of threat to security with examples.
[6 Marks]
Answer: In modern times, threats to security have evolved, transcending traditional military concerns. Three notable new sources of threat include cyber terrorism, climate change, and the rise of transnational crime. Firstly, cyber terrorism involves the use of the internet to conduct malicious activities that can disrupt critical infrastructures, as seen in hacking incidents targeting governmental and financial institutions. Secondly, climate change poses significant threats, leading to resource scarcity and potential conflicts over water and arable land. Lastly, transnational crime, such as drug trafficking and human smuggling, undermines state sovereignty and exacerbates social instability. These threats emphasize the need for comprehensive security strategies that account for diverse and interconnected dangers.
Question 32.
While the Chinese economy has improved dramatically, why has everyone in China not received the benefits of the reforms? State any three reasons.
[6 Marks]
Answer: Despite the significant growth in the Chinese economy, the benefits of economic reforms have not been equitably distributed among the population. One major reason is the rise in unemployment, with nearly 100 million individuals actively seeking jobs, creating a situation where job security is precarious. Secondly, there is a stark gender disparity in employment opportunities and working conditions, particularly for women, whose labor conditions resemble those seen in Europe during the 18th and 19th centuries. Lastly, there is a notable increase in economic inequality, particularly between urban and rural residents, as well as among different provinces, leading to a situation where the wealth generated is concentrated in certain areas while leaving others behind. Together, these factors illustrate why not every citizen in China has benefited from the country’s economic advancements.
Question 33.
Describe the process of evolution of the European Union from an Economic Union to an increasingly Political one.
[6 Marks]
Answer: The evolution of the European Union (EU) from a primarily economic union to a politically integrated entity is marked by significant milestones. Initially, the European Economic Community (EEC) was established in 1957 to foster economic cooperation among six founding countries. The establishment of the European Parliament in 1979 added a political dimension, allowing for democratic representation. The fall of the Soviet bloc accelerated this transition, leading to the Maastricht Treaty in 1992 which formally created the EU and introduced the framework for a common currency, the euro. Over time, the EU adopted its own symbols, such as a flag and anthem, enhancing its identity. Additionally, it developed common policies, including foreign and security policies, reflecting the desire for political cohesion. Despite challenges and varying public support for deeper integration, the EU has continued to expand, incorporating new member states and facilitating cooperation across many sectors. These developments highlight the EU's transformation into an entity that balances economic interests with political unity and collective governance.
Question 34.
Explain any three major developments that took place in Indian politics during the last decade of the 20th century.
[6 Marks]
Answer: The last decade of the 20th century witnessed several significant developments in Indian politics that altered the political landscape. Firstly, the defeat of the Indian National Congress in the 1989 elections marked a pivotal shift, reducing their Lok Sabha seats from 415 to 197, signaling the end of their dominance and the rise of more competitive politics. Secondly, the emergence of communal politics gained traction, leading to intense debates on secularism and democratic values, evidenced by events like the Babri Masjid demolition in 1992. Lastly, coalition politics emerged as a new trend as various regional and national parties began forming alliances, which led to the establishment of minority governments, showcasing the fragmentation of the traditional two-party system. These developments set the stage for a new era in Indian politics, characterized by regionalism and identity politics.
Question 35.
In the midst of severe competition and many conflicts after 1989, a consensus appeared to have emerged among most parties. Explain any three points of consensus.
[6 Marks]
Answer: The emergence of a consensus among political parties post-1989 can be observed in several significant areas. Firstly, there was a general agreement on new economic policies. While some groups opposed these reforms, the majority perceived them as essential for economic prosperity and elevating India's global status. Secondly, political and social claims, particularly those pertaining to marginalized communities, were increasingly acknowledged, reflecting a more inclusive democracy. Thirdly, the necessity of constitutional amendments was recognized to align political frameworks with the evolving aspirations of society. This showed a commitment to adapt the political system to current needs, ensuring continuity and stability in governance despite a highly competitive political landscape. These consensus points highlight the collaborative efforts of various parties to establish a more unified and progressive polity.
Question 36.
The foreign policy of independent India has pursued the dream of a peaceful world. Support the statement with any three suitable arguments.
[6 Marks]
Answer: India's foreign policy post-independence has indeed pursued the dream of a peaceful world through several key initiatives. First, India adopted a policy of non-alignment during the Cold War, which allowed it to maintain neutrality and advocate for peaceful resolutions in international conflicts without aligning itself to either of the two superpower blocs. Second, India actively contributed to UN peacekeeping operations, demonstrating its commitment to global peace and stability by sending troops to conflict zones to maintain order. Lastly, India aimed for a New International Economic Order (NIEO) that advocated equitable rights for all nations, facilitating a balanced approach to economic development and disarmament, thereby further promoting peace. These core tenets reflect India's dedication to fostering a secure and harmonious world.
Question 37.
India was a staunch supporter of the decolonization process and firmly opposed racism. Support the statement with any three suitable arguments.
[6 Marks]
Answer: India's commitment to decolonization and opposition to racism can be illustrated through three significant arguments. Firstly, India's engagement with various liberation movements across Asia and Africa, as seen in the Bandung Conference of 1955, highlighted its leadership role in promoting independence from colonial rule. Secondly, India vocally opposed apartheid in South Africa, advocating for equal rights and opposing racial discrimination on international platforms. Lastly, India's foreign policy of non-alignment was a strategic move to support developing nations in their struggles against imperialism, showcasing its belief in a world free from colonial legacies. Through these efforts, India emerged as a moral leader championing decolonization and anti-racism globally.
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