political-science/
previous-year-question-paper-2023-set-1

SOLUTIONS

2023 BOARD EXAM

CBSE CLASS 12-HUMANITIES POLITICAL SCIENCE Board Paper 2023 — Set 1

2023

POLITICAL SCIENCE

CLASS 12-HUMANITIES

CBSE EXAMINATION SOLVED PAPER-2023 POLITICAL SCIENCE

CBSE EXAMINATION PAPER-2023

POLITICAL SCIENCE

(Solved)

Time allowed : 3 hours

Maximum Marks : 96

General Instructions :

Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :

  1. This question paper contains 37 questions. All questions are compulsory.
  2. This question paper is divided into 6 sections.
  3. Section A – questions number 1 to 2 are case based questions
  4. Section B – questions number 3 to 11 are multiple choice questions
  5. Section C – questions number 12 to 18 are very short answer
  6. Section D – questions number 19 to 24 are short answer
  7. Section E – questions number 25 to 29 are long answer type i
  8. Section F – questions number 30 to 37 are long answer type ii
  9. There is no overall choice given in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions.
  10. Use of calculator is NOT allowed.

Section A

Question 1.

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:

"The war with China alerted the Indian leadership to the volatile situation in the North-East region. Apart from being isolated and extremely under-developed, this region also presented India with the challenge of national integration and political unity."

(1)

Which one of the following States was affected the most due to the Sino-Indian conflict?

(a) Assam

(b) Nagaland

(c) Arunachal Pradesh

(d) Sikkim

[1 Marks]
Answer: The state that was affected the most due to the Sino-Indian conflict is Arunachal Pradesh. This region, which was controversially integrated into India, faced significant geopolitical challenges during the conflict, particularly due to its proximity to the disputed border with China. The conflict heightened tensions in the region, emphasizing the need for national integration and development underlined in the passage. Therefore, in the context of the Sino-Indian war and its repercussions, Arunachal Pradesh stands out as having been particularly impacted.
Key Points: Sino-Indian conflict regional impact Arunachal Pradesh geopolitical tensions

(2)

Which one of the following States was created in the North-East just after the end of the Indo-China War?

(a) Nagaland

(b) Assam

(c) Sikkim

(d) Arunachal Pradesh

[1 Marks]
Answer: The correct answer is (a) Nagaland. Nagaland was granted statehood in 1963, shortly after the Indo-China War, as the Indian leadership recognized the need for addressing the volatile situation in the North-East region. This reorganization aimed at promoting national integration and political unity in an area that had been isolated and underdeveloped. The creation of Nagaland was a significant step in the political reorganization of the North-East and marked the beginning of efforts to better address the regional aspirations of its people.
Key Points: Nagaland created in 1963; Indo-China War prompted political reorganization; significance for national integration and regional aspirations.

(3)

Which political party got split just after the Indo-China War due to internal differences?

(a) Swatantra Party

(b) Congress Party

(c) Communist Party of India

(d) Jana Sangh

[1 Marks]
Answer: The political party that got split just after the Indo-China War due to internal differences was the Communist Party of India (CPI). The split occurred in 1964, primarily due to differing views within the party regarding their stance towards China. One faction remained aligned with the pro-USSR approach and stayed within the CPI, while the other faction, which was pro-China, eventually became known as the Communist Party of India (Marxist), or CPI(M). This division highlighted the impact of the Indo-China War on India's political landscape, as it exacerbated rifts within the party and led to the formation of a new political entity altogether.
Key Points: Split occurred in 1964 - Communist Party of India (CPI) - factions based on pro-China and pro-USSR stances - pro-China faction formed CPI(M) - internal differences prompted by the Indo-China War

(4)

Which one of the following States is not a North-Eastern State?

(a) Arunachal Pradesh

(b) Uttarakhand

(c) Meghalaya

(d) Tripura

[1 Marks]
Answer: The state that is not a North-Eastern State is Uttarakhand. The North-Eastern region of India comprises eight states, which include Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Nagaland, Manipur, Tripura, Mizoram, and Meghalaya. Uttarakhand, although a part of India, is located in the northern part of the country and is not considered part of the North-Eastern States.
Key Points: Uttarakhand is not a North-Eastern State - North-Eastern states include Arunachal Pradesh, Tripura, Meghalaya, etc. - Eight states in total in the North-East
Question 2. Study the cartoon given below and answer the questions that follow:

(1)

Which one of the following statements about the Sri Lankan crisis is true?

(a) India did not interfere in the crisis and kept away from the problem.

(b) India asked the United Nations to resolve the problem.

(c) India signed an Accord with Sri Lanka and got involved in the solution to the problem.

(d) India snapped its diplomatic relations with Sri Lanka during the crisis.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The correct statement about the Sri Lankan crisis is (c) India signed an Accord with Sri Lanka and got involved in the solution to the problem. This is evidenced by India's direct military intervention in 1987 to stabilize relations between the Sri Lankan government and the Tamil population. Although the Indian Peace Keeping Force faced challenges and eventually withdrew, their initial involvement was significant in the context of the ethnic conflict during that period.
Key Points: India signed an Accord with Sri Lanka in 1987-Indian military intervention aimed to stabilize relations-Resistance from the Sri Lankan people regarding Indian troops-India's ongoing negotiations with Sri Lanka on the Tamil question

(2)

What message does the cartoon convey?

(a) Sri Lankan government managed to balance the two rival groups.

(b) Both the groups were against the government.

(c) The government treated both the communities equally.

(d) It was very difficult to maintain balance between the two rival groups.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The cartoon conveys the message that maintaining a balance between the two rival groups in Sri Lanka is a complex and challenging task for the government. It highlights the intense competition and conflicting interests of the Sinhala hardliners and the Tamil militants. The cartoon suggests that despite the government's efforts to negotiate peace, achieving harmony between these factions remains difficult, indicating the broader struggles of ethnic conflict in Sri Lanka. Thus, option (d) 'It was very difficult to maintain balance between the two rival groups' best captures this message.
Key Points: Dilemma of Sri Lankan leadership-Conflict between Sinhala and Tamil groups-Challenges in negotiating peace-Difficulty in maintaining balance

(3)

The conflict in Sri Lanka from 1983 onwards was based on which of the following?

(a) Discrimination by the government between political parties

(b) Discrimination by the government between two communities

(c) Discrimination by the government between two regions

(d) Discrimination by the government between two religions

[1 Marks]
Answer: The conflict in Sri Lanka from 1983 onwards was primarily based on discrimination by the government between two communities, namely the Sinhalese and the Tamils. This discrimination manifested in various forms, including political underrepresentation and unfair treatment in government policies, leading to tensions and a demand for secession by the Tamil community, who felt marginalized. The Tamil community's grievances included political disenfranchisement and violence against them, which further escalated the ethnic conflict. Thus, option (b) is the correct answer.
Key Points: discrimination between two communities - Sinhalese and Tamils - political disenfranchisement - demand for secession - ethnic conflict

(4)

The tiger sitting on the right-hand side represents which organisation?

(a) Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam

(b) Liberal Tigers of Tamil Estate

(c) Liberation Tigers of Tamil East

(d) Liberal Tigers of Tamil Eelam

[1 Marks]
Answer: The tiger sitting on the right-hand side of the cartoon represents the Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam (LTTE). This militant organization was formed in response to the marginalization of the Tamil people in Sri Lanka, advocating for an independent Tamil Eelam. The LTTE became prominent in the 1980s, conducting an armed struggle against the Sri Lankan government for the rights and recognition of Tamils. The depiction of the tiger symbolizes the strength and determination of the LTTE in the context of the ongoing conflict in Sri Lanka, as highlighted by the challenges the Sri Lankan leadership faces in balancing the interests of Sinhala hardliners with those of Tamil militants.
Key Points: The tiger symbolizes the LTTE; The LTTE fought for Tamil rights; The organization played a significant role in the Sri Lankan civil conflict; The cartoon illustrates the broader political dilemma in Sri Lanka.

(5)

In 1989, India sent troops to Sri Lanka, named as :

(a) Indian Peace Groups

(b) Indian Peace Keeping Force

(c) Indian Peace Workers

(d) Indian Troops for Tamils

[1 Marks]
Answer: In 1989, India sent troops to Sri Lanka under the name 'Indian Peace Keeping Force' (IPKF). This operation was part of an effort to stabilize relations between the Sri Lankan government and the Tamil population. Despite the intentions behind this move, the presence of the IPKF was met with resistance from the Sri Lankan population, who viewed it as interference in their internal affairs. Ultimately, the IPKF was withdrawn in 1990 without achieving its objectives.
Key Points: Name of the force was Indian Peace Keeping Force (IPKF) - Sent to stabilize relations between Sri Lankan government and Tamils - Encountered resistance from Sri Lankans - Withdrawal in 1990 without achieving objectives

(6)

In Sri Lanka, there was a conflict between __________.

(a) two communities

(b) two regions

(c) two religions

(d) two ideologies

[1 Marks]
Answer: In Sri Lanka, the conflict primarily existed between two communities, namely the Sinhala majority and the Tamil minority. This ethnic conflict stemmed from historical grievances, language policies, and demands for autonomy by the Tamils. The cartoon illustrates the challenge faced by Sri Lankan leadership in balancing the interests of these two communities while seeking a peaceful resolution.
Key Points: Sinhala majority vs Tamil minority - Historical grievances - Language policies - Autonomy demands - Leadership challenges

(7)

Name the group of Tamils who fought against the army of Sri Lanka.

(a) Indian Tamils

(b) LTTE

(c) Tamils for Democracy

(d) Tamil United Front

[1 Marks]
Answer: The group of Tamils who fought against the army of Sri Lanka is the Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam (LTTE). This organization was formed to demand a separate country, known as 'Tamil Elam', for Tamils in Sri Lanka, particularly in the northeastern region, which they controlled at one point in time. Their struggle was marked by armed conflict with the Sri Lankan military and significant attempts to push for Tamil rights and recognition in the face of Sinhala majority dominance.
Key Points: LTTE - Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam; fought against Sri Lankan army; demand for 'Tamil Elam'; control over northeastern Sri Lanka

(8)

In spite of conflict, Sri Lanka has registered __________.

(a) rise in its economy and development

(b) fall in its economy

(c) rise in the population

(d) fall in its trade

[1 Marks]
Answer: In spite of the ongoing conflict, Sri Lanka has registered a rise in its economy and development. The country has achieved considerable economic growth and has recorded high levels of human development. It was also one of the first developing nations to successfully control population growth and liberalize its economy, which has allowed for higher per capita GDP compared to its regional counterparts. This growth trajectory indicates resilience in the face of adversity.
Key Points: economic growth-human development-population control

Section B

Question 3. Mikhail Gorbachev was __________.
[1 Marks]
  • (A) the founder of the Communist Party of Russia
  • (B) General Secretary of the Communist Party of USSR
  • (C) a leader against reforms in the USSR
  • (D) a leader of Western European countries
Explanation: The correct option is 'General Secretary of the Communist Party of USSR' because Mikhail Gorbachev held this position starting in 1985 and was the last leader of the Soviet Union. He initiated significant reforms in the political and economic systems, known as perestroika and glasnost.
Question 4. Arab Spring was a __________.
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Social movement
  • (B) Cultural movement
  • (C) Political movement
  • (D) Environmental movement
Explanation: The Arab Spring was a political movement characterized by mass protests and uprisings in various Arab countries, calling for democratic reforms and an end to authoritarian regimes. This aligns with the context mentioning social movements as a platform for new political actions, demonstrating the Arab Spring's role in promoting political change.
Question 5. Which one of the following organisations works to prevent international conflicts?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) United Nations Human Rights Commission
  • (B) United Nations Security Council
  • (C) ASEAN
  • (D) Amnesty International
Explanation: The correct option is 'United Nations Security Council' because it is primarily responsible for maintaining international peace and security, preventing conflicts through diplomatic efforts, and can take action against threats to peace. While ASEAN also promotes peace within its region, the UN Security Council has a broader mandate and authority in addressing international conflicts.
Question 6. Which one of the following is not a threat to global security?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Global warming
  • (B) International terrorism
  • (C) Epidemics
  • (D) Rising prices
Explanation: Rising prices are primarily an economic issue and do not directly threaten global security like global warming, international terrorism, and epidemics do, as these directly impact human safety, health, and the environment.
Question 7. Which one of the following is the main cause of Globalization?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) The formation of United Nations
  • (B) The development of new technology
  • (C) The establishment of the World Bank
  • (D) The rise of economy in India and China
Explanation: The development of new technology is the main cause of globalization as it has revolutionized communication and facilitated interactions across the globe, as highlighted in the context provided. Innovations such as the telegraph, telephone, and microchip have drastically changed how countries connect with one another.
Question 8. From the following options, choose the set of States that belong to North-East India only.
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Manipur, Tripura, Nagaland
  • (B) Assam, Manipur, Chhattisgarh
  • (C) Jharkhand, Nagaland, Uttarakhand
  • (D) Manipur, Maharashtra, Mizoram
Explanation: The correct option is 'Manipur, Tripura, Nagaland.' These states are part of the North-East region of India, as mentioned in the context. The context clearly lists Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Nagaland, Manipur, Tripura, Mizoram, and Meghalaya as the states that constitute the North-East India, while the other options include states like Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Uttarakhand, and Maharashtra, which do not belong to this region.
Question 9. Choose the correct option to complete the sentence: Five Year Plans were adopted by the Government of India as a policy of __________.
[1 Marks]
  • (A) mixed economy
  • (B) planned development
  • (C) socialism
  • (D) industrialisation
Explanation: The correct option is 'planned development'. The context states that India initiated development planning as an instrument for rapid economic progress after independence. The Planning Commission was established to coordinate and supervise the management of resources for planned development, reflecting the focus on structured economic strategies.
Question 10. Who gave a call for a nationwide Railway Strike in 1974?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) George Fernandes
  • (B) Jayaprakash Narayan
  • (C) Ram Manohar Lohia
  • (D) Morarji Desai
Explanation: The correct answer is George Fernandes, as he led the National Coordination Committee for Railwaymen’s Struggle which called for the nationwide strike due to demands related to bonus and service conditions.
Question 11. Who among the following was the first Prime Minister to start economic reforms in India?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Indira Gandhi
  • (B) Manmohan Singh
  • (C) Rajiv Gandhi
  • (D) Inder Kumar Gujral
Explanation: The correct answer is Rajiv Gandhi. He is credited with initiating changes that led to economic reforms in India, which became prominently visible in 1991. His efforts in promoting a more open economy and pressing for advancements in technology laid the groundwork for the structural adjustment programme.

Section C

Question 12.

Who was Mikhail Gorbachev in the context of the USSR?

[1 Marks]
Answer: Mikhail Gorbachev, born in 1931, was the last leader of the Soviet Union from 1985 to 1991. He introduced significant reforms like perestroika (restructuring) and glasnost (openness) aimed at modernizing the Soviet economy and political structure. Gorbachev also worked to normalize relations with the West, withdrew troops from Afghanistan, and played a crucial role in the dissolution of the Soviet Union amidst internal crises and democratization efforts.
Question 13.

What was the Arab Spring?

[1 Marks]
Answer: The Arab Spring was a series of anti-government protests and uprisings that began in late 2010 in various Arab countries, including Tunisia, Egypt, and Libya. These movements aimed to challenge authoritarian regimes and demanded political freedom, social justice, and economic reforms. Triggered by economic issues, rising unemployment, and oppression, the Arab Spring led to significant political changes but also resulted in violence and instability in some regions. Citizens sought to express their aspirations for democracy and better governance.
Question 14.

Which organisation works to prevent international conflicts?

[1 Marks]
Answer: The United Nations (UN) is a key organization that works to prevent international conflicts. It facilitates discussions among countries to address contentious issues peacefully, promoting cooperation and stability. Through various peacekeeping missions and diplomatic negotiations, the UN aims to resolve conflicts without resorting to war. The organization also engages in initiatives to support human rights and economic development, further contributing to global peace and security.
Question 15.

Which of the following is not a threat to global security: global warming, international terrorism, epidemics, or rising prices?

[1 Marks]
Answer: Rising prices are not considered a direct threat to global security compared to global warming, international terrorism, and epidemics. While rising prices can create economic challenges and contribute to instability, they do not pose an immediate existential threat to nations or groups. Conversely, global warming can lead to significant environmental changes, international terrorism threatens lives and stability, and epidemics can result in widespread health crises, all of which can fundamentally threaten human existence and dignity.
Question 16.

Who gave the call for a nationwide railway strike in 1974?

[1 Marks]
Answer: The call for a nationwide railway strike in 1974 was given by the National Coordination Committee for Railwaymen’s Struggle, which was led by George Fernandes. This strike aimed to address the demands of railway employees concerning bonuses and their service conditions, amidst opposition from the government. The strike had a significant impact, paralyzing rail operations and highlighting labor rights issues.
Question 17.
  • Which Indian Prime Minister first started economic reforms in the country?

[1 Marks]
Answer: The Indian Prime Minister who first initiated economic reforms in the country was Rajiv Gandhi. Although these reforms began to take shape in the mid-1980s, they became prominent in 1991, during India's economic crisis. Rajiv Gandhi's approach aimed to deregulate sectors, enhance trade, and attract foreign investment, fundamentally altering India's economic landscape, which had been characterized by sluggish growth since independence.
Question 18.

In which year was the first coalition government formed in India?

[1 Marks]
Answer: The first coalition government in India was formed in 1977. This government was created when various non-Congress parties came together after the 1977 general elections, following a period of Congress dominance. The coalition was established in response to the political dynamics of the time, marking a significant shift in Indian politics towards multi-party coalitions.

Section D

Question 19.

Highlight any two important features of the 'ASEAN way'.

[2 Marks]
Answer: The 'ASEAN Way' emphasizes non-confrontation and cooperation among member states. This approach promotes an informal and respectful dialogue, allowing nations to to address conflicts through negotiation rather than confrontation. Another significant feature is the strong commitment to national sovereignty. ASEAN operates with a principle of non-interference in the internal affairs of member countries, which fosters an environment where national interests are prioritized and respected. This unique blend of cooperation and respect for sovereignty underpins the stability and growth of the region.
Question 20.

Show with the help of any two examples, the strength of the United Nations.

[2 Marks]
Answer: The United Nations showcases its strength through various initiatives that foster international cooperation. One major example is its role in peacekeeping missions, such as those in the Democratic Republic of the Congo, where UN forces work to stabilize conflict-affected areas and protect civilians. Another example is the UN's involvement in climate action, particularly through the Paris Agreement, where it facilitates dialogue among countries to address climate change collectively. These efforts demonstrate the UN’s capacity to unite nations for global stability and cooperation.
Question 21.

Explain the term 'Security'.

[2 Marks]
Answer: Security refers to the condition that ensures freedom from threats or harm to individuals and nations. In a broader context, it encompasses various dimensions, including traditional security that focuses on the state and its institutions, and non-traditional security which considers individual welfare and rights. It raises critical questions about who is being secured and from what kinds of threats. The discussion surrounding security often highlights its complexity, urging democratic participation in understanding and addressing these concerns.
Question 22.

Name any four regional parties which have ever formed their government in any State.

[2 Marks]
Answer: Four regional parties that have formed their government in different states are the Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK) in Tamil Nadu, the Shiv Sena (SS) in Maharashtra, the Janata Dal (United) [JD(U)] in Bihar, and the Biju Janata Dal (BJD) in Odisha. The DMK came to power after a significant anti-Hindi agitation, reflecting regional pride. Similarly, the Shiv Sena has been influential in Maharashtra politics, advocating for Marathi identity. The JD(U) has played a pivotal role in Bihar, and the BJD has dominated Odisha's political landscape by focusing on regional issues.
Question 23.

Highlight any two recommendations of the Mandal Commission.

[2 Marks]
Answer: The Mandal Commission, officially the Second Backward Classes Commission, made several important recommendations. Firstly, it recommended the reservation of 27% of seats in educational institutions and government jobs for the Other Backward Classes (OBCs). This aimed to address the social and educational disparities faced by these groups. Secondly, the commission advocated for land reforms to improve the socio-economic conditions of the OBCs. These recommendations were significant in shaping policies towards backward communities in India.
Question 24.

In which year was the first coalition government formed in India and why ?

[2 Marks]
Answer: The first coalition government in India was formed in 1989, marking the beginning of a new phase of coalition politics in the country. This development occurred because no single party managed to secure a majority in the Lok Sabha elections, prompting various non-Congress parties to come together and form a government. The rise of coalition governments reflected shifting political dynamics, highlighting the fragmented nature of party politics in India, making cooperation among parties essential to govern effectively.

Section E

Question 25.

Write the full form of 'UNICEF and state any two functions of it.

[4 Marks]
Answer: UNICEF stands for the United Nations Children’s Fund. Established in 1946, its primary goal is to promote and protect the rights and well-being of children around the world. One key function of UNICEF is to provide emergency relief in cases of natural disasters and conflicts, ensuring that vulnerable children receive essential services like food, water, and healthcare. Another important function is to promote health and education initiatives globally, focusing on improving access to quality healthcare and education for children, particularly in disadvantaged communities. These efforts aim to create a better future for children and ensure their rights are upheld.
Question 26. Analyze any two effects of globalization on your daily life.
[4 Marks]
Answer: Globalization has profoundly influenced my daily life in multiple ways. Firstly, it has diversified my food choices. With global trade networks, I can enjoy cuisines from around the world, such as sushi from Japan, pasta from Italy, and tacos from Mexico. This culinary variety enriches my eating habits and exposes me to different cultures. Secondly, globalization has impacted my fashion choices, allowing me to access international brands and styles. I can easily buy clothes from global retailers through online shopping, which allows me to express my individuality while participating in a global fashion trend. However, this also raises concerns about cultural homogenization, where local traditions may be overshadowed by dominant global cultures. Overall, globalization shapes both my consumption patterns and cultural identity.
Question 27. Suggest any two measures to conserve the natural resources.
[4 Marks]
Answer: To conserve natural resources, one effective measure is to promote afforestation while protecting existing forests. Planting new trees helps increase green cover, which stabilizes the climate, balances water supplies, and enhances biodiversity. Another significant measure is the adoption of renewable energy sources, such as solar, wind, and biodiesel. By using cleaner energy options, we can reduce dependence on fossil fuels, decrease pollution, and mitigate the effects of climate change. These actions are crucial for sustainable development and maintaining ecological balance.
Question 28. Explain any four features of India-Israel relations.
[4 Marks]
Answer: India-Israel relations are characterized by various significant features that enhance their bilateral ties. Firstly, strong defense cooperation is a cornerstone, with Israel supplying advanced military technology and weapons systems to India, which has bolstered India's defense capabilities. Secondly, both nations share common interests in counter-terrorism, collaborating on intelligence sharing and joint military exercises. Thirdly, their relationship includes extensive trade relations, notably in sectors like agriculture, water management, and technology, which benefit both economies. Lastly, cultural exchanges and people-to-people contact have flourished, fostering mutual understanding and strengthening diplomatic ties. Overall, India-Israel relations are comprehensive, covering various domains and contributing to regional stability.
Question 29. Highlight any four steps taken by Indira Gandhi to remove poverty.
[4 Marks]
Answer: Indira Gandhi, during her tenure as Prime Minister, implemented several significant measures to combat poverty in India. First, she launched the 'Garibi Hatao' campaign, which aimed to mobilize support among the economically disadvantaged, including landless laborers, Dalits, and the unemployed youth. Second, she focused on the growth of the public sector to provide more job opportunities and services. Third, she imposed ceilings on rural land holdings and urban properties to curtail wealth concentration and promote equitable distribution of land. Lastly, she actively worked on the implementation of land reform laws and introduced further legislation, ensuring that these laws were effectively executed to benefit the marginalized segments of society. These initiatives underscored her commitment to social justice and poverty alleviation.

Section F

Question 30. Analyze any three reasons responsible for the disintegration of the Soviet Union.
[6 Marks]
Answer: The disintegration of the Soviet Union can be attributed to several critical factors. Firstly, the rise of nationalism played a crucial role, particularly in the Baltic republics and Ukraine, where people sought independence and sovereignty from Russian dominance. Secondly, the excessive centralization of power led to discontent among various ethnic groups who felt marginalized and oppressed within the Soviet framework. Lastly, the economic inefficiencies and reforms initiated by Mikhail Gorbachev, such as glasnost and perestroika, aimed to revitalize the economy but ultimately exposed the flaws within the system and weakened the grip of the Communist Party. These elements combined to erode the unity of the Soviet Union, leading to its eventual collapse.
Question 31. Analyze any two reasons for the beginning of Arab Spring and any two outcomes of this movement.
[6 Marks]
Answer: The Arab Spring, which began in 2010, was largely fueled by widespread dissatisfaction with oppressive regimes and economic hardship. Firstly, the lack of democratic governance and the suppression of political dissent prompted citizens to demand greater freedoms. For instance, long-standing authoritarian leaders faced protests as people sought to influence political processes. Secondly, high unemployment rates and rising costs of living, exacerbated by global economic conditions, led to public unrest. The outcomes of the Arab Spring were significant. Many authoritarian governments were toppled, leading to greater political freedom in regions like Tunisia, which transitioned towards democracy. However, the movement also resulted in instability in several countries, such as Syria and Libya, where civil wars erupted, highlighting the complexity of achieving lasting democratic change. Ultimately, the Arab Spring illustrated the critical role of socioeconomic factors and popular participation in shaping political landscapes.
Question 32. Highlight any three challenges faced by India after independence.
[6 Marks]
Answer: After gaining independence in 1947, India confronted several significant challenges as it sought to establish itself as a cohesive nation. Firstly, the challenge of national integration was paramount; with immense diversity in languages, cultures, and religions, fostering a unified national identity proved difficult. The second challenge revolved around economic stability, especially in the aftermath of the war with China and amidst food shortages caused by failed monsoons. This situation exacerbated poverty and threatened food security. Lastly, India faced the challenge of territorial integrity, notably during the conflict with Pakistan in 1965. These challenges required astute political leadership and social cooperation to navigate effectively, shaping the trajectory of modern India.
Question 33. Highlight the role of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel to bring the Princely States into the Indian Union. Support your answer with the help of any three examples.
[6 Marks]
Answer: Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, as the Deputy Prime Minister and first Home Minister of independent India, played a pivotal role in the integration of the Princely States into the Indian Union. His approach was characterized by both firmness and diplomacy, crucial for navigating the complexities of this political task. For instance, during negotiations, Patel issued letters to princely rulers urging them to consider the overwhelming public support for joining India. In Hyderabad, Patel undertook a strategic approach leading to the successful police action known as 'Operation Polo', integrating the state without extensive bloodshed. Additionally, in the case of Junagadh, Patel's determination led to the invocation of democratic principles, resulting in a referendum that favored India. These examples illustrate Patel’s adeptness at combining negotiation with assertive action, ultimately ensuring a unified nation.
Question 34. Evaluate the strength of European Union as the most effective regional organisation on the basis of any three facts.
[6 Marks]
Answer: The European Union (EU) stands out as a robust regional organization due to its significant economic, political, and security capabilities. First, the EU has considerable economic power, serving as a major bloc within international organizations like the World Trade Organization (WTO). This enhances its influence in global trade negotiations and economic policies. Second, politically, the EU plays a crucial role in advocating common foreign and security policies, fostering unity among its member states. For example, France's permanent seat in the UN Security Council amplifies this influence, validating the EU's commitment to global stability. Lastly, the EU's expansion efforts include integrating former Soviet bloc states, reflecting its ability to forge alliances and promote cooperation, thereby increasing its geopolitical strength. In summary, through economic prowess, political influence, and successful expansion strategies, the EU asserts itself as an effective regional organization.
Question 35.

"Despite various problems, the people in all the South Asian countries share the aspiration and support for democracy." Justify the statement with any three suitable examples.

[6 Marks]
Answer: The aspiration for democracy in South Asia is evident despite the challenges faced by its nations. Firstly, in India, democracy has thrived since independence, showcasing citizens' deep-rooted desire for a participative political system through regular elections and a vibrant civil society. Secondly, Sri Lanka, despite ethnic tensions, demonstrates public support for democratic governance, emphasizing the population's commitment to democratic values, evidenced by their participation in elections. Lastly, Nepal's transition from monarchy to federal democratic republic highlights the people's yearning for political representation, with mass movements advocating for democracy. These examples illustrate that, across South Asia, people are united in their support for democratic principles, underscoring a collective aspiration for empowered governance.
Question 36. Analyze any three reasons for the dominance of the Congress Party in Indian politics during the initial twenty years after independence.
[6 Marks]
Answer: The dominance of the Congress Party in Indian politics during the first two decades post-independence can be attributed to several significant factors. Firstly, the Congress was the leading force during the national movement for independence, which granted it substantial legitimacy and support among the populace. Its all-inclusive nature appealed to varied social groups, ensuring widespread representation and loyalty. Secondly, the party's ability to adapt to changing political landscapes under the leadership of Indira Gandhi helped it address internal divides and external challenges, maintaining its electoral success. Lastly, Congress's implementation of progressive policies aimed at ensuring social justice and economic development resonated with the masses, reinforcing its status as a dominant political force. Together, these factors established a robust foundation for the Congress party's long-standing influence in Indian politics.
Question 37. Analyze any three reasons for the declaration of Emergency in 1975.
[6 Marks]
Answer: The declaration of Emergency in India on June 25, 1975, can be attributed to several interrelated factors. First, there was a perceived threat of internal disturbances, primarily due to rising political unrest and opposition movements against the government of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi. This unrest culminated in widespread protests, which created a sense of chaos and disorder that the government believed endangered national stability. Second, the relationship between the government and judiciary was increasingly strained, particularly following a Supreme Court ruling that upheld the right to free and fair elections. This ruling threatened Indira Gandhi's political power and prompted her to take drastic measures. Lastly, significant economic challenges, including high inflation and unemployment, exacerbated public discontent, prompting the government to declare a state of emergency to retain control. These reasons contributed to the imposition of extraordinary powers which allowed the government to suppress dissent and postpone elections, fundamentally altering the democratic landscape of India.

Paper Details

CBSE Board Exam 2023

Class

CLASS 12-HUMANITIES

Subject

POLITICAL SCIENCE

Year

2023

Set

Set 1

Other Years — POLITICAL SCIENCE

2022 Set-1

2022 Set-2

2022 Set-3

2022 Set-4

2022 Set-5

2023 Set-1

2023 Set-2

2023 Set-3

2023 Set-4

2023 Set-5

2024 Set-1

2024 Set-2

2024 Set-3

2024 Set-4

2024 Set-5

2025 Set-1

2025 Set-2

2025 Set-2