SOLUTIONS
2023 BOARD EXAM
CBSE CLASS 12-HUMANITIES POLITICAL SCIENCE Board Paper 2023 — Set 4
2023
POLITICAL SCIENCE
CLASS 12-HUMANITIES
CBSE EXAMINATION PAPER-2023
POLITICAL SCIENCE
(Solved)
General Instructions :
Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :
- This question paper contains 39 questions. All questions are compulsory.
- This question paper is divided into 6 sections.
- Section A – questions number 1 to 2 are case based questions
- Section B – questions number 3 to 13 are multiple choice questions
- Section C – questions number 14 to 20 are very short answer
- Section D – questions number 21 to 26 are short answer
- Section E – questions number 27 to 31 are long answer type i
- Section F – questions number 32 to 39 are long answer type ii
- There is no overall choice given in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions.
- Use of calculator is NOT allowed.
Section A
Question 1.
In the given political outline map of India (on page 17), four States have been marked as A, B, C and D. Identify these States on the basis of information given below and write their correct names in your answer-book along with the respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabets given in the map as per the following format:
(1) The State related to V.V. Giri, the former President of India.
[1 Marks]
Answer: The State related to V.V. Giri, the former President of India, is Odisha. This can be identified using the information that V.V. Giri was born in the region known today as Odisha, which is marked as State A on the map.
Key Points: V.V. Giri's birthplace is in Odisha-Identify Odisha on the political map-Locate State A
(2) The State related to the Congress leader, K. Kamaraj.
Answer: The State related to the Congress leader, K. Kamaraj is Tamil Nadu. This information corresponds to the context about Congress leaders who had a significant impact on the party's presence in specific states during the 1952-1967 period. K. Kamaraj was an influential figure in Tamil Nadu, which was a stronghold for the Congress party during his leadership.
Key Points: K. Kamaraj was a prominent Congress leader-key figure in Tamil Nadu-Congress dominance in Tamil Nadu during 1952-1967
(3) The State from where the phrase, "Aya Ram, Gaya Ram" originated.
Answer: The phrase 'Aya Ram, Gaya Ram' originated from Haryana. It refers to the political events involving Gaya Lal, an MLA who was notable for changing his party allegiance multiple times in 1967.
Key Points: Originated in Haryana-Gaya Lal's party changes-1967 political context
(4) The State which faced the most acute food crisis in 1965 1967.
Answer: The State that faced the most acute food crisis between 1965 and 1967 is Punjab. This is attributed to the failed monsoons and drought conditions that affected agricultural production severely during that period. Furthermore, the context of the ongoing war with Pakistan in 1965 exacerbated the situation, leading to significant food shortages. Hence, the answer is as follows: 1. Punjab (A).
Key Points: Punjab-acute food crisis-1965-1967-failed monsoons-drought-war with Pakistan
(5) Name the State related to the former President of India, V.V. Giri.
Answer: The State related to the former President of India, V.V. Giri is Odisha. This information corresponds to serial number 1, represented by the letter 'A' on the map.
Key Points: V.V. Giri was from Odisha - Identify Odisha as the state - Corresponds to the letter 'A' on the map
(6) Which State faced the most acute food crisis in 1965 - 67 ?
Answer: The State that faced the most acute food crisis in 1965-67 was Bihar. This crisis was a result of failed monsoons and droughts during that period, significantly affecting food production and leading to severe shortages and famine conditions. The challenges in Bihar were emblematic of the broader agricultural difficulties faced by India at the time, exacerbated by the military and economic strains from conflicts with China and Pakistan.
Key Points: Bihar - food crisis, failed monsoons, drought, severe shortages, context of military conflicts
(7) Name the State to which the Congress leader K. Kamaraj belonged.
Answer: The Congress leader K. Kamaraj belonged to the State of Tamil Nadu. This corresponds to the information referenced and can be identified in the given map as State 'B'.
Key Points: K. Kamaraj - Congress leader - Tamil Nadu - State marked as 'B' in the map
(8) Name the State from where the famous phrase, "Aya Ram, Gaya Ram" originated.
Answer: The famous phrase "Aya Ram, Gaya Ram" originated from Haryana, as it was linked to Gaya Lal, an MLA who changed his political affiliation multiple times in 1967. This phrase exemplifies the frequent shifting of political loyalties among legislators during that period.
Key Points: Originated in Haryana-Gaya Lal's one-man party switch in 1967-Reflects floor crossing
Question 2.
Study the given picture and answer the questions that follow:
(1) The memorial shown in the picture is located at which one of the following places? (a) Shantiniketan (b) Calcutta University (c) Burma University (d) Dhaka University
Answer: The memorial depicted in the picture is located at Dhaka University. This mural commemorates Noor Hossain, a significant figure in Bangladesh's struggle for democracy. He was killed by the police during protests against General Ershad in 1987. The powerful message painted on his back, 'Let Democracy be Freed,' encapsulates the spirit of the pro-democracy movement in Bangladesh during that era.
Key Points: Mural memorializes Noor Hossain- Located at Dhaka University- Killed during pro-democracy protests- Message: 'Let Democracy be Freed'
(2) The given picture belongs to which one of the following countries? (a) Myanmar (b) Nepal (c) Bangladesh (d) Sri Lanka
Answer: Based on the information provided and the context of the interview data discussing democratic preferences and societal views in South Asia, it is likely that the picture belongs to Bangladesh. This conclusion is drawn from the significant mention of Bangladesh's perspective on democracy, as evident from the given statistics and descriptions of the political landscape in South Asian countries. Its focus on democratic values contrasts with other nations outlined in the survey.
Key Points: Bangladesh prefers democracy -69%, unique political landscape, regional conflicts with Nepal, compared to others
(3) When did the incident related to the picture happen? (a) 1950 (b) 1975 (c) 1982 (d) 1987
Answer: The incident related to the picture happened in 1975. This period is significant as it marks the time when political tensions escalated in India, leading to events creating a backdrop for the Emergency declared by Indira Gandhi. The context highlights the struggles between political parties, especially the bitter competition between Congress and BJP, and the political climate during that time, which was reflective of the challenges faced in the country.
Key Points: 1975-key event in Indian politics-Political tensions between parties
(4) Which military ruler was the cause for this memorial? (a) General Musharraf (b) Lt.GeneralH.M. Ershad (c) Ziaur Rahman (d) Zia-ul-Haq
Answer: The military ruler who was the cause for this memorial is Ziaur Rahman. He came to power after the assassination of the previous leader and played a significant role in shaping the political landscape of Bangladesh. His actions led to the establishment of the Bangladesh National Party and a period of military governance, which was pivotal in the country's history.
Key Points: Ziaur Rahman - military ruler after assassination - formed Bangladesh National Party - significant impact on Bangladesh's political history.
(5) Which country is Bhutan's biggest source of developmental aid? (a) USA (b) Russia (c) India (d) China
Answer: The biggest source of developmental aid for Bhutan is India. India has been actively involved in various developmental projects in Bhutan, including significant hydroelectric projects. This close relationship is strengthened by India's support and cooperation with the Bhutanese government, which has fostered a cordial partnership. Therefore, the correct answer is (c) India.
Key Points: Bhutan's biggest source of developmental aid is India - India involved in hydroelectric projects - Strong ties between India and Bhutan
(6) A landlocked country of South Asia is : (a) Maldives (b) Bangladesh (c) Nepal (d) Pakistan
Answer: The correct answer is (c) Nepal. A landlocked country is one that does not have any coastlines or access to the ocean. In South Asia, Nepal is the only landlocked nation among the given options, while Maldives and Bangladesh have coastlines, and Pakistan has access to the Arabian Sea.
Key Points: Landlocked definition - Nepal is landlocked - Maldives and Bangladesh have coastlines - Pakistan has ocean access.
(7) The Seven Party Alliance is related to which country ? (a) Bhutan (b) Nepal (c) India (d) Pakistan
Answer: The Seven Party Alliance is primarily associated with Nepal. It was a coalition of seven political parties that united to bring about the end of the monarchy and establish democracy in the country. The alliance played a crucial role in mobilizing public support against autocratic rule, ultimately leading to significant political changes in Nepal.
Key Points: Seven Party Alliance is a coalition of seven parties in Nepal; it was formed to promote democracy; it played a significant role in ending the monarchy.
(8) In East Pakistan, the popular struggle against the domination of West Pakistan was led by which one of the following leaders ? (a) Sheikh Mujibur Rahman (b) Sheikh Mujib Mohammed (c) General Yahya khan (d) Lt. General H.M. Ershad
Answer: The popular struggle against the domination of West Pakistan in East Pakistan was led by Sheikh Mujibur Rahman. He emerged as a prominent leader during this time, advocating for the autonomy of the eastern region and representing the interests of the Bengali population. His leadership was pivotal during the 1970 elections when his party, the Awami League, won a significant victory, securing all seats in East Pakistan. Despite his majority, the West Pakistani government refused to convene the assembly, escalating tensions that ultimately led to the Bangladesh Liberation War and the independence of Bangladesh in 1971.
Key Points: Sheikh Mujibur Rahman-led struggle; demand for autonomy; Awami League's victory in 1970 elections; conflict with West Pakistani leadership; emergence of Bangladesh as independent country in 1971
Section B
Question 3.
[1 Marks]
Which of the following statements about the 'Arab Spring are not correct?
(i) It began in 2008.
(ii) The struggle was against terrorism and pollution.
(iii) It raised its voice against corruption and unemployment.
(iv) It was basically a demand for democracy.
Explanation: The Arab Spring began in late 2010 and early 2011, not in 2008, so statement (i) is incorrect. The main issues raised during the Arab Spring were corruption, unemployment, and demands for democracy, not directly about terrorism and pollution, so statement (ii) is also incorrect. Statements (iii) and (iv) correctly describe the Arab Spring as a movement against corruption and unemployment and a demand for democracy.
Question 4.
Who among the following is the ex-officio Chairman of NITI Aayog?
[1 Marks]
Explanation: The correct answer is 'The Prime Minister' as the Prime Minister serves as the link between the Council of Ministers and the Parliament, and in various roles, including the ex-officio Chairman of NITI Aayog, the Prime Minister is a central figure in the Indian government structure.
Question 5.
[1 Marks]
Which of these statements about the political decisions taken after independence related to development are correct?
(i) Almost everyone agreed that the development of India should mean both economic growth and social-economic justice.
(ii) It was also agreed that this matter cannot be left to businessmen, industrialists and farmers.
(iii) Only the government should play a key role to ensure growth with justice.
(iv) It was necessary to consult all political parties and get public approval.
Explanation: The correct option is (i), (ii) and (iv). The context indicates that there was a general consensus that development should include both economic growth and social justice (i). Additionally, it was agreed that the responsibility should not be solely left to private sectors (ii), and that political consultations and public approval were necessary for decision-making (iv). However, while the government played a key role, the exclusive claim that only the government should ensure growth with justice (iii) is not supported by the context.
Question 6.
Which one of the following statements, related to the Chinese invasion in 1962, is correct?
[1 Marks]
Explanation: The correct option is 'A boundary dispute surfaced between India and China.' This statement is accurate as the context highlights a boundary conflict that arose due to competing territorial claims, particularly in Arunachal Pradesh and the Aksai Chin region, prior to the invasion in 1962.
Question 7.
[1 Marks]
Assertion (A): On 19th March, 2003 the US launched its invasion on Iraq under the name, 'Operation Iraqi Freedom'.
Reason (R): Iraq was developing Weapons of Mass Destruction (WMD).
Explanation: Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A). The US invasion of Iraq in 2003 was indeed justified by the US government by claiming that Iraq was developing Weapons of Mass Destruction (WMD), which posed a threat to international security. This claim was a central part of the rationale presented for the military action.
Question 8.
[1 Marks]
Assertion (A) : There was a large-scale migration of refugees into India during the 1971 war with Pakistan.
Reason (R) : Pakistan had planned the migration to disturb the Indian economy.
Explanation: Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false. During the 1971 war, approximately 80 lakh refugees fled East Pakistan into India due to the civil war and repressive conditions. However, there is no evidence to support that Pakistan planned this migration as a strategy to disturb the Indian economy; instead, it was a humanitarian crisis resulting from the conflict.
Question 9.
Who played the role of mediator in the Tashkent Agreement between India and Pakistan?
[1 Marks]
Explanation: The correct answer is 'USSR'. The Tashkent Agreement was brokered by the Soviet Union following the conflict between India and Pakistan in 1971. The context clearly states that Lal Bahadur Shastri, the Prime Minister of India, signed this agreement with Ayub Khan, the General of Pakistan, with the mediation of the Soviet Union.
Question 10.
A process of exchanging information on defence matters between nations on a regular basis is known as ____________.
[1 Marks]
Explanation: The correct answer is 'Confidence-Building Measures'. This process involves countries sharing information about their military intentions and capabilities to prevent misunderstandings or misperceptions that could lead to conflict, as stated in the provided context.
Question 11.
Which among the following is a threat to non-traditional security?
[1 Marks]
Explanation: Terrorism is a significant threat to non-traditional security as it affects human security and global stability. Unlike traditional security threats such as war or the manufacturing of weapons, non-traditional threats encompass various issues that impact the well-being of populations, including acts of violence aimed at civilians, fear among populations, and the disruption of societal order.
Question 12.
Which two major crises were faced by India during the tenure of Lal Bahadur Shastri?
[1 Marks]
Explanation: The correct answer is 'War and food crisis'. During Lal Bahadur Shastri's tenure, India faced a significant war with Pakistan in 1965, alongside severe challenges from failed monsoons that led to a serious food crisis. His slogan 'Jai Jawan Jai Kisan' reflects the emphasis on both military and agricultural resilience in facing these crises.
Question 13.
Which one of the following developing countries is the first to successfully control the rate of growth of population?
[1 Marks]
Explanation: Sri Lanka is the correct answer because the context states that it was one of the first developing countries to successfully control the rate of growth of population. Additionally, it highlights Sri Lanka's accomplishments in economic growth and human development, establishing it as a leader in population control within the region.
Section C
Question 14.
[1 Marks]
What is the main feature of a federal government?
Answer: The main feature of a federal government is the distribution of powers between the central authority and regional governments. This system allows each level of government to operate autonomously within its designated sphere. In India, for example, the federal structure emphasizes cooperation between the States and the central government, promoting unity while respecting diversity. This relationship is essential for maintaining balance and harmony within the federal system.
Question 15.
[1 Marks]
Define the term "sovereignty."
Answer: Sovereignty is the supreme authority of a state to govern itself and make decisions free from external interference. It encompasses both internal autonomy over local matters and external independence in foreign relations. As articulated by Jawaharlal Nehru, independence hinges on maintaining control over foreign relations, indicating that loss of such control results in diminished sovereignty. This concept is further complicated by globalization, which challenges traditional notions of state sovereignty.
Question 16.
[1 Marks]
Who wrote the book The Prince?
Answer: The book 'The Prince' was written by Niccolò Machiavelli, an Italian diplomat, philosopher, and historian. Published in 1532, it is one of the most influential political treatises in Western history. Machiavelli's work discusses the nature of power and practical strategies for rulers to maintain control over their states. His pragmatic and sometimes controversial views on politics continue to be studied and debated in political theory today.
Question 17.
[1 Marks]
What is meant by 'judicial review'?
Answer: Judicial review is the authority vested in the Supreme Court (and High Courts) to examine laws for their constitutionality. If a law contradicts the Constitution, it can be declared unconstitutional and thus invalid. While the term 'judicial review' is not explicitly mentioned in the Constitution, the power to invalidate laws that violate fundamental rights implies this authority. It allows the judiciary to safeguard the Constitution and protect citizens' rights.
Question 18.
[1 Marks]
Name any one organ of the government.
Answer: One organ of the government is the executive. The executive is responsible for implementing and administering laws and policies. It is composed of the Prime Minister, ministers, and the bureaucracy, which consists of civil servants. The executive plays a crucial role in the day-to-day administration and governance of the country, ensuring that laws passed by the legislature are effectively executed.
Question 19.
[1 Marks]
What is the meaning of the term "democracy"?
Answer: Democracy means that power is shared among the people, allowing them to make decisions about policies and programs. It involves decentralization of power and recognizes the rights of citizens, fostering a political community where diverse ideas coexist. This system of governance includes both direct participation in decision-making and the electoral process, embodying a commitment to political values that respect differences and plurality, making it a cornerstone of modern societies.
Question 20.
[1 Marks]
Which amendment gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj in India?
Answer: The 73rd Amendment of the Indian Constitution, passed in 1992, gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj institutions. It aimed to enhance local self-governance in rural areas, establishing a three-tier system of governance. This amendment also mandated the formation of the Gram Sabha, comprising all adult voters in the Panchayat area. It came into effect in 1993, promoting people’s participation in local governance.
Section D
Question 21.
Suggest any two measures to improve relations between India and Pakistan.
[2 Marks]
Answer: To improve relations between India and Pakistan, one effective measure could be the enhancement of dialogue and communication channels. Regular diplomatic talks can help both nations address their grievances, better understand each other's perspectives, and work collaboratively on conflict resolution. A second significant measure is promoting people-to-people contact through cultural exchanges and educational programs. By increasing interactions at the grassroots level, citizens can foster mutual understanding, reduce stereotypes, and create an atmosphere of friendship that transcends political challenges.
Question 22.
Evaluate any two functions of NITI Aayog.
[2 Marks]
Answer: NITI Aayog, established on January 1, 2015, serves several critical functions for India’s development. Firstly, it plays a significant role in formulating strategic and long-term policies aimed at transforming the country. This involves assessing the economic needs and priorities while providing a platform for cooperative federalism, where both central and state governments work together. Secondly, NITI Aayog is tasked with monitoring and evaluating various development programs and initiatives. It scrutinizes the demands for grants made by ministries and ensures transparency by investigating expenditures and cases of corruption, thereby safeguarding public resources. These functions make NITI Aayog pivotal in shaping a progressive and accountable governance system.
Question 23.
Explain the notion of traditional security.
[2 Marks]
Answer: Traditional security is primarily focused on the use or threat of military force as the core aspect of ensuring safety. It views military threats from other states as the principal dangers, emphasizing the preservation of sovereignty and national independence. Within this framework, internal stability is also crucial; a nation cannot be secure against external threats if it faces internal violence or disorder. Consequently, traditional security relies heavily on military capabilities and preparedness to address both external and internal threats to state security.
Question 24.
Why is it necessary for coalition governments to accommodate and aggregate a variety of interests? Explain.
[2 Marks]
Answer: Coalition governments are essential for integrating diverse interests and achieving political stability. They require a careful balance of conflicting opinions to ensure all partner parties feel represented. This necessity compels coalitions to adopt a more moderate stance, promoting compromise and inclusiveness. For legislation to pass, proposals must satisfy all coalition members, fostering a spirit of collaboration. Moreover, accommodating various internal factions allows for greater tolerance of differences, ultimately contributing to the resilience and unity of the coalition against opposition critiques.
Question 25.
Highlight any two functions of UNICEF which make it a significant part of the United Nations.
[2 Marks]
Answer: UNICEF (United Nations Children's Fund) plays a crucial role within the UN framework by advocating for children's rights and ensuring their fundamental needs are met. Firstly, UNICEF focuses on providing essential health services, which include immunization, nutrition, and access to clean drinking water. This significantly reduces child mortality rates and improves overall well-being. Secondly, UNICEF promotes education by ensuring that children, especially girls, have access to quality education. Through various programs, UNICEF addresses barriers to education, thus fostering greater gender equality and empowering future generations. These functions underscore UNICEF's commitment to addressing humanitarian needs and advocating for the rights of children worldwide.
Question 26.
Explain any two reasons for the victory of Congress in the Southern States in the general election of 1977.
[2 Marks]
Answer: The Congress party's victory in the Southern States during the 1977 general election can be attributed to two primary reasons. First, the party effectively capitalized on the aftermath of the Emergency declared in 1975, as many voters sought stability and continuity in governance. The Congress projected itself as a force of stability, especially in regions where the turmoil of the Emergency had lessened its impact. Second, the party maintained strong connections with local leaders and organizations, which facilitated its outreach and mobilization efforts, ensuring sustained support among the electorate. These strategic advantages helped Congress dominate the Southern States despite its overall lower vote share nationwide.
Section E
Question 27.
[4 Marks]
"Globalisation has shifted power from nation-states to global consumers." Support the statement with two arguments.
Answer: Globalisation has profoundly transformed the balance of power, as evidenced by two key arguments. Firstly, economic globalisation has resulted in the rise of multinational corporations that wield significant influence over economies and political decisions, often overshadowing the sovereignty of nation-states. These corporations can bypass local regulations, allowing them to prioritize profit over local welfare, thus enhancing consumer power. Secondly, the global interconnectedness facilitated by the internet empowers consumers, granting them access to information and a wider array of choices. This allows them to shape market trends and hold companies accountable, effectively diminishing the control that governments have over economic policies. As such, the shift in power dynamics illustrates how global consumers have gained an unprecedented voice in the global marketplace.
Question 28.
[4 Marks]
"All regional movements need not lead to separatist demands." Justify the statement.
Answer: The statement underscores that not all regional movements culminate in demands for secession. Regionalism can express legitimate aspirations, including cultural recognition, political autonomy, and economic rights without threatening national unity. For instance, in democratic nations like India, regional movements have successfully led to the establishment of linguistic states that promote local governance while maintaining national integrity. Regions are crucial as they shape national identity and collective destiny. Furthermore, peaceful regional aspirations can foster cooperation and enhance self-governance rather than alienation. This view is reinforced by examples from various countries where regional expression coexists with national unity, underlying that regionalism, when addressed constructively, can enrich the democratic fabric without inciting separatism. Thus, while concerns about regional aspirations exist, they do not inherently lead to separatist movements.
Question 29.
[4 Marks]
What is meant by 'Veto Power'? Name any four countries that enjoy veto power.
Answer: Veto power refers to the special privilege held by the five permanent members of the United Nations Security Council (UNSC) that allows them to block any substantive resolution, regardless of the level of support it may have from other members. This means that even if a proposal receives a majority of votes, a single negative vote from one of the permanent members can halt the decision. The veto power is a significant tool that often influences international diplomacy and decision-making. The five countries that possess veto power are the United States, Russia, China, the United Kingdom, and France. The existence of veto power has sparked debates about fairness in international relations, as it gives disproportionate influence to these nations over global issues, which critics argue could hinder progress towards collective security and cooperation.
Question 30.
[4 Marks]
"India's impressive technological growth in recent years has made the country an attractive partner of US." Support the statement giving any
four examples.
Answer: India's technological growth has significantly enhanced its attractiveness as a partner to the US, evident in several key areas. Firstly, India's IT sector has flourished, making it a global hub for software development and tech services, attracting substantial American investment. Secondly, collaborations in defense technology, such as the India-US Security and Defense Cooperation Framework, highlight a shared interest in military advancements. Thirdly, India's growing startup ecosystem, especially in fields like fintech and health tech, has drawn US venture capital. Lastly, India's commitment to renewable energy, exemplified by initiatives like the International Solar Alliance, aligns with US interests in combating climate change, reinforcing a collaborative partnership focused on sustainable development. These examples demonstrate how India's technological prowess and strategic initiatives make it a valuable ally of the US in various sectors.
Question 31.
[4 Marks]
Explain any four reasons for the grand victory of the Janata Party in the 1977 general elections.
Answer: The Janata Party's victory in the 1977 general elections can be attributed to several key factors. Firstly, widespread discontent with the Congress Party during the Emergency period (1975-1977) led to a significant desire for change among the electorate. Secondly, the Janata Party effectively united various opposition factions that were previously divided, enhancing their electoral strength. Thirdly, the charismatic leadership of figures like Jayaprakash Narayan mobilized public support against autocratic rule. Lastly, the Janata Party appealed to a sense of democracy and civil liberties, crucially resonating with the public's demand for a return to democratic principles after the Emergency.
Section F
Question 32.
Highlight any three major developments that took place in Indian politics during NDA III and NDA IV.
[6 Marks]
Answer: During the NDA III and IV periods, several significant developments shaped Indian politics. Firstly, the NDA government showcased a strong focus on rapid decision-making in social policies, such as the implementation of schemes aimed at social welfare, including the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana which aimed to provide housing for all. Secondly, foreign policy saw a notable shift as India strengthened its ties with various countries, thus enhancing its global standing, particularly through initiatives like 'Act East' and engagement with ASEAN. Thirdly, the economic policies underwent a transformative phase with a continued push towards liberalization, including the introduction of goods and services tax (GST) which unified indirect taxation across the nation. Together, these developments reflect the NDA's efforts to reshape both domestic and international perceptions of India.
Question 33.
Highlight any three points of consensus that emerged among most political parties in India after the Lok Sabha Elections, 2004.
[6 Marks]
Answer: After the Lok Sabha Elections of 2004, several points of consensus emerged among the political parties in India. Firstly, the elections underscored the importance of coalition politics, as no single party secured a clear majority, reinforcing the need for alliances to form stable governments. Secondly, there was a recognition among parties of the growing significance of regional parties, which became pivotal in shaping national electoral outcomes and policies. Lastly, political parties acknowledged the necessity for inclusive governance, as the electoral results reflected diverse public opinions, making it imperative to address the aspirations of various sections of society. These points of consensus highlighted the changing dynamics of Indian politics and the collaborative approach required for effective governance.
Question 34.
Highlight any three environmental concerns significant to global politics.
[6 Marks]
Answer: Three significant environmental concerns that have become crucial in global politics are climate change, deforestation, and water scarcity. Climate change, driven largely by greenhouse gas emissions, poses a threat to global stability, leading to natural disasters and displacement of populations. Deforestation, which results from agricultural expansion and industrial activities, not only contributes to loss of biodiversity but also exacerbates climate change by reducing carbon sinks. Lastly, water scarcity affects national security as it can lead to conflicts over shared water resources, impacting both livelihood and health. These environmental issues illustrate the interconnectedness of global politics and the need for international cooperation to address them effectively.
Question 35.
Highlight any three international environmental movements and their importance.
[6 Marks]
Answer: Three significant international environmental movements include the Earth Day movement, Greenpeace, and the World Wildlife Fund (WWF). The Earth Day movement, first celebrated in 1970, aims to raise awareness about environmental issues and mobilize global action. It has significantly contributed to the environmental agenda by promoting sustainable practices and influencing policy changes worldwide. Greenpeace, founded in 1971, focuses on direct action and advocacy for issues like climate change, deforestation, and ocean conservation. Its campaigns have successfully raised awareness and coerced corporations and governments to adopt environmentally friendly practices. The World Wildlife Fund, established in 1961, works on conservation projects worldwide, emphasizing protecting endangered species and their habitats. It plays a vital role in environmental education and policy-making, contributing to biodiversity preservation. Collectively, these movements have fostered global cooperation and action toward sustainable environmental practices, demonstrating the collective power of grassroots activism.
Question 36.
Analyse any three reasons for the disintegration of the Soviet Union in 1991.
[6 Marks]
Answer: The disintegration of the Soviet Union in 1991 can be attributed to multiple interconnected factors. Firstly, the excessive centralization of power caused resentment among various republics, leading to a lack of local autonomy and dissatisfaction with Moscow's dominance. This discontent fostered nationalist movements, particularly in Ukraine and the Baltic states, where there was a strong desire for independence. Secondly, Mikhail Gorbachev's reform policies, including Glasnost and Perestroika, aimed to revitalize the economy and encourage openness but inadvertently weakened the Communist Party's control, destabilizing the political framework. Lastly, the economic decline played a critical role; failing industries, shortages, and a stagnant economy led to widespread disillusionment about the viability of the Soviet system. Together, these factors culminated in the USSR's dissolution, marking a significant shift in global politics.
Question 37.
Analyse any three consequences of Shock Therapy due to which the economies of Second World countries collapsed.
[6 Marks]
Answer: Shock therapy, implemented in the 1990s in former Second World countries, had severe consequences that contributed to economic collapse. Firstly, the rapid privatization of state assets led to widespread economic dislocation. As around 90% of industries were sold off, many became uncompetitive, resulting in mass unemployment and social unrest. Secondly, the abrupt transition to a free trade regime meant that local industries were not equipped to compete with international market players, further exacerbating economic instability. Finally, the promise of foreign direct investment did not materialize as expected; instead, existing resources were exploited, leaving the economies vulnerable and dependent on external forces, which ultimately resulted in economic decline and social distress.
Question 38.
Evaluate the role of ASEAN in the contemporary world.
[6 Marks]
Answer: The Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) plays a crucial role in contemporary global politics and economics. Formed in 1967, ASEAN has evolved into a significant regional organization aiming for economic growth, stability, and cooperation among its member states. One of its key achievements is the Vision 2020, which outlines ASEAN's commitment to being an outward-looking entity that encourages negotiation and dialogue over conflicts. Notably, ASEAN has successfully mediated several regional crises, including the Cambodian conflict and the East Timor crisis, showing its capacity to maintain peace. Moreover, through initiatives like the ASEAN Regional Forum (ARF), it enhances security cooperation and facilitates dialogue on foreign policy issues. ASEAN fosters economic collaboration through trade agreements that strengthen regional economies, promoting prosperity. The respect for national sovereignty and non-interference has allowed member nations to address their historical conflicts while working towards a united ASEAN. As the geopolitical landscape shifts, ASEAN's role as a diplomatic and economic hub highlights its importance in fostering regional stability and growth within a diverse global context.
Question 39.
In spite of the improvement in the Chinese economy, not everyone supports the statement with three arguments.
[6 Marks]
Answer: Despite the impressive growth of the Chinese economy, several reasons have led people to question the benefits of this success. Firstly, unemployment remains a critical issue, with around 100 million individuals vying for jobs, suggesting that growth has not translated into widespread employment opportunities. Secondly, conditions for female workers are dire, often reminiscent of Europe’s industrial exploitation in previous centuries, which raises concerns about labor rights and gender equality. Lastly, environmental degradation and corruption have worsened, impacting the quality of life and public trust, highlighting that economic growth comes at a significant social and ecological cost. These factors contribute to skepticism regarding the notion that China’s economic improvement benefits all citizens equally.
Other Years — POLITICAL SCIENCE