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SOLUTIONS

2023 BOARD EXAM

CBSE CLASS 12-HUMANITIES POLITICAL SCIENCE Board Paper 2023 — Set 3

2023

POLITICAL SCIENCE

CLASS 12-HUMANITIES

CBSE EXAMINATION SOLVED PAPER-2023 POLITICAL SCIENCE

CBSE EXAMINATION PAPER-2023

POLITICAL SCIENCE

(Solved)

Time allowed : 3 hours

Maximum Marks : 94

General Instructions :

Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :

  1. This question paper contains 34 questions. All questions are compulsory.
  2. This question paper is divided into 6 sections.
  3. Section A – questions number 1 to 1 are case based questions
  4. Section B – questions number 2 to 6 are very short answer
  5. Section C – questions number 7 to 15 are multiple choice questions
  6. Section D – questions number 16 to 21 are short answer
  7. Section E – questions number 22 to 26 are long answer type i
  8. Section F – questions number 27 to 34 are long answer type ii
  9. There is no overall choice given in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions.
  10. Use of calculator is NOT allowed.

Section A

Question 1.

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:

The first Prime Minister of India played a crucial role in setting the national agenda. He was foreign minister also and exercised profound influence in the formulation and implementation of India's foreign policy. The three major objectives of his foreign policy were to preserve the hard-earned sovereignty, protect territorial integrity and promote rapid economic development. He wished to achieve these objectives through the strategy of non-alignment. There were parties and groups in the country that believed that India should be more friendly with the bloc led by the US because that bloc claimed to be pro-democracy.

(1)

Who was the main architect of India's foreign policy?

(a) B.R. Ambedkar

(b) Mahatma Gandhi

(c) Jawaharlal Nehru

(d) Sardar Patel

[1 Marks]
Answer: The main architect of India's foreign policy was Jawaharlal Nehru. As the first Prime Minister and his own foreign minister, he played a pivotal role in shaping the national agenda and implementing India's foreign policy from 1946 to 1964. Nehru's foreign policy aimed to preserve India's sovereignty, protect its territorial integrity, and promote economic development through the strategy of non-alignment. Despite some voices advocating a pro-US alignment, Nehru firmly believed in the principles of Asian solidarity and international cooperation.
Key Points: Jawaharlal Nehru - first Prime Minister, foreign minister, key role in foreign policy, objectives: sovereignty, territorial integrity, economic development, strategy of non-alignment.

(2)

Which one of the following is an objective of India's foreign policy?

(a) To pursue its national interest

(b) To preserve democracy

(c) To strengthen its Armed forces

(d) To become a superpower

[1 Marks]
Answer: The primary objectives of India's foreign policy, particularly during the tenure of the first Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru, included preserving the hard-earned sovereignty of India, protecting its territorial integrity, and promoting rapid economic development. This emphasis on sovereignty and territorial integrity aligns with the option (a) To pursue its national interest, as these objectives directly contribute to India's national interest. Therefore, the correct answer is (a).
Key Points: preserve sovereignty-protect territorial integrity-promote economic development

(3)

Non-alignment means__________.

(a) to remain neutral

(b) non-interference

(c) to remain isolated

(d) not joining any power bloc

[1 Marks]
Answer: Non-alignment means not joining any power bloc. This strategy, advocated by India's first Prime Minister, was aimed at maintaining India's sovereignty and independence in foreign relations, allowing India to engage with global issues without aligning with either of the major power blocs during the Cold War.
Key Points: definition of non-alignment- objectives of India's foreign policy- importance of independence in foreign relations

(4)

Who believed that India should be more friendly with the bloc led by the US?

(a) Bharatiya Jana Sangh

(c) B.R. Ambedkar

(b) Swatantra Party

(d) All of the above

[1 Marks]
Answer: The groups and individuals that believed India should be more friendly with the bloc led by the US included leaders like Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, as well as political parties such as the Bharatiya Jana Sangh and later the Swatantra Party. They were motivated by the perception that the US bloc was pro-democracy and sought to oppose communism.
Key Points: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar's belief - Bharatiya Jana Sangh's stance - Swatantra Party's position

Section B

Question 2. In what way are the coalition governments more democratic? Assess.
[1 Marks]
Answer: Coalition governments enhance democracy by promoting inclusivity and broad representation of diverse interests. With multiple parties involved, they reflect varied social and ideological perspectives, fostering dialogue and compromise. This collaborative approach encourages decision-making that accounts for a wider array of public concerns, as parties must consult and negotiate with one another. Additionally, the rise of coalition politics has reduced the concentration of power in the hands of a single party, empowering smaller parties and minority groups.
Question 3. State any two main functions of the NITI Aayog.
[1 Marks]
Answer: The NITI Aayog, established on January 1, 2015, serves crucial roles in India's governance. Firstly, it functions as a policy think tank, formulating and recommending strategic policies for economic development and poverty eradication. Secondly, it plays a vital role in fostering cooperative federalism by enhancing the participation of states in decision-making processes and enabling them to implement effective policies tailored to local needs. These roles promote sustainable development in India.
Question 4. Why is the period around Emergency of 1975 known as the period of constitutional crisis? Highlight any one reason.
[1 Marks]
Answer: The period around the Emergency of 1975 is termed a constitutional crisis due to the significant conflict between Parliament and the judiciary regarding their powers. This tension culminated in the imposition of Emergency, which was justified by the government citing internal disturbances as a threat to national stability. This deviation from normal constitutional governance indicated a severe breakdown in democratic principles, showing how power can be abused during times of crisis.
Question 5. Name any four Republics of erstwhile USSR.
[1 Marks]
Answer: Four republics of the erstwhile USSR are Russia, Ukraine, Belarus, and Georgia. These republics were part of the Soviet Union before its dissolution in 1991. The disbandment of the USSR allowed these republics to assert their independence and follow their own political and economic paths post-Soviet era.
Question 6. Highlight any two principles of Integral Humanism advocated by Deen Dayal Upadhyaya.
[1 Marks]
Answer: Deen Dayal Upadhyaya's Integral Humanism emphasizes the interconnectedness of individual and society. First, it advocates for the intrinsic value of each individual, ensuring equal opportunities for all to achieve their potential, regardless of caste or gender. Second, it promotes the idea of harmony between personal freedom and social responsibility, where individual rights align with the collective welfare of society. These principles challenge inequalities and aim for a holistic development approach.

Section C

Question 7. Which one of the following statements is not an objective of BRICS?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) To distribute equal economic benefits among its member-states
  • (B) Non-interference in the internal policies of member-states
  • (C) To promote peace and security
  • (D) To establish a more equitable and fair world
Explanation: The correct answer is 'To distribute equal economic benefits among its member-states.' This statement is not an objective of BRICS because the organization focuses on fostering cooperation and development among its members rather than guaranteeing equal distribution of economic benefits. The other options—non-interference in internal policies, promoting peace and security, and establishing a more equitable and fair world—align with the objectives of BRICS, which emphasize mutual respect, international peace, and collaboration.
Question 8. Which Prime Minister initiated new economic reforms in India?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Manmohan Singh
  • (B) V.P. Singh
  • (C) H.D. Deve Gowda
  • (D) Rajeev Gandhi
Explanation: The correct answer is Manmohan Singh. Although Rajiv Gandhi initiated economic changes, it was under Manmohan Singh, who was the Finance Minister in 1991 and later became Prime Minister, that the new economic reforms were formally implemented and became widely recognized. These reforms included liberalization of the economy and structural adjustments that had significant long-term effects.
Question 9.

Assertion (A) : India pleaded with the superpowers for comprehensive nuclear disarmament, yet India opposed the indefinite extension of the NPT and also refused to sign the CTBT.

Reason (R) : These treaties were selectively applicable to the non-nuclear powers and legitimised the monopoly of the five nuclear weapon powers.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Explanation: Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A) because India opposed the NPT and CTBT for being discriminatory towards non-nuclear powers, which aligns with its stance on seeking equitable global disarmament.
Question 10.

Identify the country which shares its borders with most of the South Asian countries.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Nepal
  • (B) India
  • (C) Bangladesh
  • (D) Afghanistan
Explanation: The correct answer is India, as the context indicates that India is centrally located in South Asia and borders all the other countries in the region, making it the only country that shares borders with most of them.
Question 11.

Which among the following political parties was not a part of the Jayaprakash Narayan (JP) led peoples' march to Parliament in 1975?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Socialist Party
  • (B) Communist Party of India (M)
  • (C) Bharatiya Lok Dal
  • (D) Bharatiya Jana Sangh
Explanation: The Bharatiya Jana Sangh was indeed a part of the JP led march, as indicated by the context stating it was supported by non-Congress opposition parties, including the Bharatiya Jana Sangh, Bharatiya Lok Dal, and Socialist Party. However, the Communist Party of India (M) is not mentioned as part of this coalition, making it the correct answer.
Question 12.

In July 1985, "Punjab Accord" was signed between_________ to bring normalcy in punjab.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Rajiv Gandhi and Harchand Singh Longowal
  • (B) Rajiv Gandhi and Tara Singh Longowal
  • (C) Rajiv Gandhi and Sant Singh Longowal
  • (D) Rajiv Gandhi and Surjit Singh Longowal
Explanation: The correct answer is 'Rajiv Gandhi and Harchand Singh Longowal' because Sant Harchand Singh Longowal was the president of the Akali Dal at the time and played a crucial role in negotiating the accord with then Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi to address the demands of the Akalis and restore peace in Punjab.
Question 13.

Choose the incorrect statements about India's relationship with China.

(i) Indian and Chinese leaders visited each other's countries and were greeted by large and friendly crowds.

(ii) A boundary dispute had surfaced between India and China in 1949.

(iii) China claimed two areas within the Indian territory.

(iv) After a very long correspondence and discussion among top leaders, these differences were resolved.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) (i) and (iii) only
  • (B) (iii) and (iv) only
  • (C) (ii) and (iv) only
  • (D) (i) and (ii) only
Explanation: (ii) is incorrect because a boundary dispute surfaced later, primarily after China's annexation of Tibet in 1950. (iv) is also incorrect, as the differences regarding the boundary have not been resolved despite ongoing talks.
Question 14.

Which of the following are the common features for both, the Planning Commission and NITI Aayog ?

(i) Both are non-constitutional bodies.

(ii) Both have significant roles of states.

(iii) Both have the Prime Minister as chairperson.

(iv) Both have the power to allocate funds.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) (ii) and (iv) only
  • (B) (i) and (iii) only
  • (C) (i) and (iv) only
  • (D) (ii) and (iii) only
Explanation: The correct options are (ii) and (iii) only. Both the Planning Commission and NITI Aayog are non-constitutional bodies and the Prime Minister serves as their chairperson. While both bodies incorporate significant roles of states, the Planning Commission primarily had the power to allocate funds, but NITI Aayog, having an advisory role, does not wield this power in the same manner, focusing instead on coordinating efforts and formulating policies. Thus, not all proposed commonalities are accurate.
Question 15. Which State was not a part of the initial Indian Union?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Mysore
  • (B) Hyderabad
  • (C) Baroda
  • (D) Gwalior
Explanation: The correct answer is Baroda. The context mentions only Hyderabad, Junagadh, Kashmir, and Manipur as Princely States that acceded to the Indian Union. Baroda was not listed among those that faced the accession process at that time, indicating it did not initially become part of the Indian Union.

Section D

Question 16. In what way are the coalition governments more democratic? Assess.
[2 Marks]
Answer: Coalition governments enhance democracy by enabling diverse representation and promoting power-sharing among multiple political parties. Unlike single-party rule, coalitions necessitate dialogue and negotiations, which lead to consensus-based decision making. This arrangement reduces ideological rigidity, focusing instead on pragmatic governance and collaboration. Furthermore, the necessity for coalitions promotes the involvement of smaller parties and regional interests, thus reflecting a broader spectrum of public opinion. Such inclusivity may result in policies that better address varied societal needs, ultimately fostering a more participative and representative democratic framework.
Question 17. What are two main functions of the NITI Aayog?
[2 Marks]
Answer: NITI Aayog, established on 1 January 2015, serves as a critical institution for India's development strategies. One of its primary functions is to formulate and implement policies aimed at sustainable economic growth and poverty alleviation. This involves careful planning and attention to the needs of various sectors. Secondly, NITI Aayog plays a vital role in coordinating between different governmental ministries to ensure effective implementation of these policies. This coordination helps streamline efforts across sectors, ensuring comprehensive development for the nation.
Question 18. Why is the period around Emergency of 1975 known as the period of constitutional crisis? Highlight any one reason.
[2 Marks]
Answer: The period around the Emergency of 1975 is often referred to as a period of constitutional crisis due to the serious conflict between the Parliament's jurisdiction and the judiciary's authority. The imposition of the Emergency was not in response to external threats but rather due to perceived internal disturbances, marking a significant political crisis. This situation raised questions about the government’s use of extraordinary powers, which were intended to be regulated by the rule of law but were ultimately abused, leading to widespread violations of civil liberties.
Question 19. Name any four Republics of erstwhile USSR.
[2 Marks]
Answer: Four prominent republics of the erstwhile USSR include Russia, Ukraine, Belarus, and Georgia. Following the disintegration of the Soviet Union in 1991, these republics asserted their sovereignty and moved towards establishing independent states. Russia, as the largest republic, played a leading role in the dissolution process, while Ukraine and Belarus were also significant in the declaration that led to the formation of the Commonwealth of Independent States (CIS). Additionally, Georgia, with its growing nationalism, sought independence, marking a pivotal moment in the post-Soviet landscape.
Question 20. Highlight any two principles of Integral Humanism advocated by Deen Dayal Upadhyaya.
[2 Marks]
Answer: Integral Humanism, as advocated by Deen Dayal Upadhyaya, emphasizes the need for a holistic approach to human society that integrates individual and collective aspects. One key principle is 'Antyodaya' or upliftment of the last person in society, which ensures that economic development benefits every individual, especially the marginalized. Another important principle is the unity of the self and society, promoting the idea that individual freedom must align with social responsibilities. This harmonious coexistence fosters a just and equitable society.
Question 21.

Why was the period of India's first nuclear test a difficult period in its domestic politics? Explain.

[2 Marks]
Answer: The period surrounding India's first nuclear test in May 1974 was fraught with challenges in domestic politics. After the Arab-Israel War of 1973, India faced significant economic difficulties due to the global Oil Shock, which resulted in rising oil prices and economic turmoil. During this time, the Indian government was under pressure to respond to national security concerns, particularly given its regional conflicts with nuclear-armed neighbors like Pakistan and China. The nuclear test was framed as a peaceful explosion, to assert India's commitment to peaceful nuclear use, while simultaneously addressing the demands for reinforcing military capabilities. This dichotomy in policy led to political tensions domestically, as differing opinions emerged regarding the implications of nuclear development versus non-proliferation commitments.

Section E

Question 22. Differentiate between the traditional and non-traditional notions of security.
[4 Marks]
Answer: Traditional notions of security primarily focus on military threats and the use of military force as the key means to achieve security. This perspective is state-centric, emphasizing the protection of national borders and internal order from external aggression and internal unrest. However, non-traditional notions of security broaden this view to encompass a wide array of threats affecting human existence, such as economic instability, environmental dangers, and social issues. These perspectives advocate for 'human security', prioritizing individual and community welfare over state security. Consequently, non-traditional security emphasizes cooperative, global approaches that address issues like poverty, health, and human rights, highlighting that true security cannot be achieved without ensuring the well-being of all individuals. This represents a significant shift from the traditional focus on military might to a more holistic understanding of what security truly entails.
Question 23. Highlight any two reasons for the separatist movement in Mizoram.
[4 Marks]
Answer: The separatist movement in Mizoram emerged due to several deep-rooted issues, but two primary reasons were the perceived historical context and the government's failure during the 1959 famine. Many Mizos believed they had never been part of British India and hence were not duly represented in the Indian Union. This belief fueled their desire for autonomy. Moreover, the Assam government's inadequate response to the severe famine in 1959 ignited widespread anger among the Mizos, culminating in the formation of the Mizo National Front (MNF) in 1966. The MNF sought independence, believing that their grievances and aspirations were being ignored in the larger Indian political framework, leading to increased support for separation from India.
Question 24. Analyze the mutual relations between the smaller countries of South Asia and India.
[4 Marks]
Answer: The mutual relations between the smaller countries of South Asia and India are complex and multifaceted. While conflicts have historically characterized these relationships, the importance of cooperation is increasingly recognized. The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) symbolizes the commitment of these nations to work together, despite ingrained suspicions and fears. Smaller South Asian countries often distrust India, perceiving it as a potential regional hegemon, fostering instability within their own borders. Conversely, India views these smaller nations through a lens of concern, fearing external influences that exploit their political weaknesses. Despite these challenges, shared cultural ties and trade potential highlight the benefits of collaboration. Countries such as Bangladesh, Nepal, and Sri Lanka have shown willingness to engage with India to enhance economic growth and regional stability. The evolution towards cooperative relations depends largely on mutual respect and understanding among the states, as well as the role of their respective governments and the aspirations of their populations. Building confidence through dialogue and addressing issues like trade barriers, transit rights, and security concerns can pave the way for a more integrated and prosperous South Asian region. Ultimately, the future of South Asia hinges on whether these nations can prioritize cooperative development over divisive conflicts.
Question 25. Describe any four changes in Indian politics after the 2014 elections.
[4 Marks]
Answer: After the 2014 elections, Indian politics witnessed several significant changes. First, the emergence of the BJP as a dominant force, winning 303 seats in the Lok Sabha, marked a shift towards a stronger right-wing politics. This was coupled with a focus on decisive governance, evidenced by the NDA government's swift decisions in social sectors and foreign policy. Second, the concept of coalition politics, although overshadowed by the BJP's majority, remained relevant, reflecting a more competitive political landscape. Third, there was a noticeable increase in nationalistic rhetoric, influencing public discourse and party agendas. Finally, a growing emphasis on economic reforms and digital governance characterized the Modi administration's approach, aiming at transforming India’s economic framework. These changes have reshaped the political environment, leading to new dynamics and expectations among voters.
Question 26. Highlight any four effects of globalization on the culture of India.
[4 Marks]
Answer: Globalization has significantly impacted Indian culture in various ways. Firstly, it has led to cultural homogenization, where Western values and lifestyles are increasingly adopted over traditional Indian practices, creating concerns over the erosion of indigenous culture. Secondly, globalization facilitates the exchange of ideas, resulting in a blend of cultural elements, such as fusion cuisines and music genres, enriching the overall cultural landscape. Thirdly, the access to global media has influenced fashion and entertainment, with Bollywood incorporating Western styles and themes. Lastly, globalization has spurred social movements in India that resist these changes, aiming to preserve traditional values and practices, showcasing the dynamic interplay between global influences and local identity.

Section F

Question 27. Describe any three factors that make most of the former Soviet Republics prone to conflicts and threats.
[6 Marks]
Answer: Several factors contribute to the conflicts and threats faced by former Soviet Republics. Firstly, the legacy of ethnic diversity and historical grievances has resulted in tensions among different national groups. Many of these republics contain significant ethnic minorities, which can lead to separatist movements as seen in places like Chechnya. Secondly, the geopolitical dynamics in the region are intense, with external powers often intervening or influencing local conflicts, further complicating relations between neighboring countries. For example, outside states may support separatist factions to undermine their rivals. Lastly, the economic instability and lack of effective governance in many post-Soviet states have exacerbated internal strife; corruption and weak political institutions contribute to social dissatisfaction and conflict, as people feel marginalized and oppressed. This combination of ethnic rivalries, external interference, and internal governance issues makes these regions particularly vulnerable to conflicts.
Question 28. Explain any three reasons that forced Mikhail Gorbachev to initiate reforms in the Soviet Union.
[6 Marks]
Answer: Mikhail Gorbachev initiated reforms in the Soviet Union primarily due to economic stagnation, the need for political liberalization, and international pressures. Firstly, the Soviet economy was facing severe stagnation with low productivity and a lack of innovation. The existing centralized economic model was incapable of keeping pace with advancements in the West, necessitating reform to revive growth and improve living standards. Secondly, there was a growing demand for political liberalization among the populace, who sought more democratic governance and personal freedoms. Gorbachev recognized that strict authoritarianism could no longer sustain loyalty or rule, urging him to implement democratization. Finally, international pressures, including the Cold War dynamics and competition with Western nations, highlighted the inefficiencies of the Soviet system. Gorbachev understood that normalizing relations with the West and adopting some capitalist elements were essential to modernizing the Soviet Union. These factors compelled Gorbachev to take significant steps towards reforming the economy and political landscape of the USSR, ultimately shaping the future of the nation.
Question 29. Highlight any four environmental concerns that have become important in global politics.
[6 Marks]
Answer: Environmental concerns have become pivotal in global politics due to their far-reaching implications on humanity and the planet. First, climate change is a critical issue, resulting in extreme weather events, rising sea levels, and biodiversity loss, prompting global agreements like the Paris Accord. Second, deforestation significantly impacts carbon sequestration and natural habitats, affecting ecosystems worldwide. Third, pollution, particularly plastic and air contamination, has raised health concerns, leading to international efforts for sustainable practices. Lastly, water scarcity poses threats to food security and livelihood, with countries now addressing resource management cooperatively. These interconnected issues necessitate global collaboration and commitment to ensuring a sustainable future.
Question 30. Highlight any four economic consequences of globalisation.
[6 Marks]
Answer: Globalisation has significant economic consequences, both positive and negative. Firstly, it promotes economic growth by facilitating trade and investment among countries, leading to increased production and job opportunities. However, it can also result in job losses in industries unable to compete with global players, particularly in developing economies. Secondly, globalisation can exacerbate income inequality, where the rich benefit disproportionately compared to the poor, creating a divide within and between nations. Thirdly, it can lead to economic dependence on global market forces, making vulnerable economies susceptible to global economic fluctuations. Lastly, globalisation can result in the exploitation of labor in weaker countries, where workers may face poor working conditions and minimal wages, leading to widespread economic insecurity.
Question 31. Analyse the various aspects of the Presidential election of 1969, which led to the formal split in the Congress Party.
[6 Marks]
Answer: The 1969 Presidential election marked a pivotal moment in Indian politics, leading to a formal split in the Congress Party. Following the death of President Zakir Hussain, the ruling Congress, divided between the 'Syndicate' faction and Indira Gandhi's faction, nominated N. Sanjeeva Reddy as their candidate. Despite Reddy's backing, he lost to the independent candidate, Varahagiri Venkata Giri. This defeat highlighted the growing rift, as Indira Gandhi claimed her group represented true Congress ideals while the Syndicate, which was more aligned with traditional party hierarchies, attempted to retain control. Indira Gandhi's expulsion from the party solidified the divide, leading to the formation of two factions: the Congress (Organisation) led by the Syndicate and the Congress (Requisitionists) led by Gandhi. This split was more than a power struggle; it represented a fundamental ideological clash between socialist principles and established political norms. Despite the Congress's weakened position, Indira Gandhi successfully regrouped and adopted new policies, focusing on social justice and economic reforms, which eventually restored her influence within Indian politics. This period not only transformed the Congress but also gave rise to regional parties and altered the political landscape in India, marking a significant shift in the dynamics of power, dominance, and ideology in the country.
Question 32. Examine any four criteria proposed for new members of the UN Security Council.
[6 Marks]
Answer: The UN Security Council has faced criticism for its composition, leading to discussions on criteria for new members. Four significant proposed criteria include: 1) Major economic power: This criterion emphasizes that a state should possess considerable economic influence to contribute effectively to global decision-making. 2) Major military power: Military strength is seen as essential, allowing a nation to support international peacekeeping efforts. 3) Substantial contributor to the UN budget: Financial commitment reflects a country’s dedication to the UN's mission and gives it leverage in global matters. 4) Respect for democracy and human rights: This criterion aims to ensure that potential members adhere to fundamental democratic values, promoting a more just and equitable international system. Each of these criteria has its advantages and limitations, reflecting the multifaceted nature of global politics today.
Question 33. Analyse any four steps suggested by the heads of the member states in 2005 to make the United Nations more relevant in the changing context.
[6 Marks]
Answer: In 2005, the heads of member states proposed several key steps to enhance the relevance of the United Nations in a rapidly changing world. Firstly, they acknowledged the need for reforming the Security Council to ensure that it reflects contemporary political realities and includes equitable representation of diverse nations, beyond just Western powers. Secondly, there was a consensus on expanding the membership of the Security Council, allowing for the inclusion of emerging powers and major contributors to the UN budget. Thirdly, they emphasized the necessity for the UN to address global challenges such as terrorism, climate change, and development, thus broadening the scope of its operations. Lastly, the leaders recommended strengthening the UN's capacity for conflict resolution and peacekeeping, ensuring that its interventions are more effective and in line with modern geopolitical landscapes. These reforms aimed to maintain the UN’s relevance in promoting peace, security, and cooperation among nations amid evolving global dynamics.
Question 34.

How is 'one party dominance' in india different from the 'one party dominance system' of other countries ? Analyse with the help of examples.

[6 Marks]
Answer: One party dominance in India presents a distinct scenario compared to other countries where such dominance is often characterized by authoritarianism. In nations like China and Cuba, the ruling party maintains control through undemocratic means, often suppressing opposition and limiting electoral freedoms. Contrastingly, India's experience with the Congress party's dominance occurred under a framework of democratic elections, where multiple parties contested freely. For instance, during the Congress's reign, despite its control, various regional parties emerged and active electoral competition prevailed. The transition to a multi-party coalition system post-1989 further emphasizes India's unique context. This enabled smaller parties to participate in governance, unlike in countries experiencing totalitarian control. Thus, India's one-party dominance relates to a functioning democracy, allowing for political pluralism that other one-party regimes do not share.

Paper Details

CBSE Board Exam 2023

Class

CLASS 12-HUMANITIES

Subject

POLITICAL SCIENCE

Year

2023

Set

Set 3

Other Years — POLITICAL SCIENCE

2022 Set-1

2022 Set-2

2022 Set-3

2022 Set-4

2022 Set-5

2023 Set-1

2023 Set-2

2023 Set-3

2023 Set-4

2023 Set-5

2024 Set-1

2024 Set-2

2024 Set-3

2024 Set-4

2024 Set-5

2025 Set-1

2025 Set-2

2025 Set-2