SOLUTIONS
2023 BOARD EXAM
CBSE CLASS 12-HUMANITIES POLITICAL SCIENCE Board Paper 2023 — Set 2
2023
POLITICAL SCIENCE
CLASS 12-HUMANITIES
CBSE EXAMINATION PAPER-2023
POLITICAL SCIENCE
(Solved)
General Instructions :
Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :
- This question paper contains 38 questions. All questions are compulsory.
- This question paper is divided into 6 sections.
- Section A – questions number 1 to 1 are case based questions
- Section B – questions number 2 to 13 are multiple choice questions
- Section C – questions number 14 to 20 are very short answer
- Section D – questions number 21 to 26 are short answer
- Section E – questions number 27 to 31 are long answer type i
- Section F – questions number 32 to 38 are long answer type ii
- There is no overall choice given in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions.
- Use of calculator is NOT allowed.
Section A
Question 1.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:
India conducted a series of nuclear tests demonstrating its capacity to use nuclear energy for military purposes. After this, Pakistan also conducted tests. International Community imposed sanctions on both India and Pakistan which were subsequently waived. India opposed the international treaties aimed at non-proliferation.
(1) Identify the treaty that India refused to sign. (a) Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty (b) Shimla Agreement (c) Panchsheel Agreement (d) Indus waters Treaty
Answer: India refused to sign the Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty (CTBT) because it viewed the treaty as discriminatory and believed it legitimized the monopolization of nuclear weapons by the five nuclear powers. India has consistently opposed international treaties aimed at non-proliferation that selectively apply to non-nuclear power states, reflecting its stance on maintaining equitable rights regarding weapons of mass destruction.
Key Points: India refused to sign the CTBT-CTBT viewed as discriminatory-India's opposition to non-proliferation treaties-Equitable rights for all countries regarding nuclear weapons
(2) In which year did India conduct a series of nuclear tests? (a) 1971 (b) 1985 (c) 1992 (d) 1998
Answer: India conducted a series of nuclear tests in May 1998. This marked a significant moment in India's military history, as it demonstrated the country's capacity to use nuclear energy for military purposes. The tests were a response to the security dynamics in the region, particularly concerning threats from neighboring countries.
Key Points: India conducted nuclear tests in May 1998- It demonstrated military capacity- Response to regional security concerns- Pakistan followed with its own tests
(3) Under whose guidance did India initiate its nuclear programme? (a) C.V. Raman (b) Homi J. Bhabha (c) A.P.J.Abdul Kalam (d) K. Kasturirangan
Answer: India initiated its nuclear programme in the late 1940s under the guidance of Homi J. Bhabha. Bhabha played a pivotal role in the development of atomic energy in India, focusing on its peaceful uses initially. His vision and dedication laid the foundation for India's nuclear capabilities, which eventually transitioned to military applications. Despite Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru's initial opposition to nuclear weapons, Bhabha's efforts were critical in establishing India's nuclear framework.
Key Points: Initiated in the late 1940s-Homi J. Bhabha's guidance-Peaceful purposes initially-Nehru's opposition to nuclear weapons-Bhabha's role in India's nuclear capabilities
(4) In the beginning, India wanted to generate nuclear energy for (a) peaceful purpose. (b) making atomic bombs. (c) competing with the super powers. (d) ensuring its security.
Answer: In the beginning, India aimed to generate nuclear energy primarily for peaceful purposes. This was highlighted during its first nuclear test in 1974, which India referred to as a 'peaceful explosion.' Despite later demonstrating its military capabilities through further nuclear tests in 1998, India's initial stance was to utilize nuclear energy for applications beyond weapons, emphasizing its commitment to peaceful uses. The Indian government also justified its decision to conduct nuclear tests as necessary for ensuring national security amidst regional threats.
Key Points: India's initial goal was peaceful nuclear energy usage-India termed its first test a 'peaceful explosion'-Subsequent tests were justified based on national security concerns.
Section B
Question 2.
Which one of the following countries was NOT a part of the Soviet Union?
[1 Marks]
Explanation: Italy was not a part of the Soviet Union, while Ukraine, Georgia, and Estonia were all republics within the USSR. The context mentions various republics, including Ukraine and Georgia, showing their affiliation with the Soviet Union, unlike Italy, which was an independent nation.
Question 3.
On 19th March 2003, the US launched its invasion of Iraq under the code name.
[1 Marks]
Explanation: The correct answer is 'Operation Iraqi Freedom.' This operation was specifically aimed at the invasion of Iraq and was launched by the US on the stated date.
Question 4.
The main objective of United Nations is to
[1 Marks]
Explanation: The correct answer is 'prevent international conflicts.' The United Nations was established with the primary goal of preventing conflicts between states from escalating into war and facilitating cooperation among nations, as highlighted in the context provided.
Question 5.
Which one of the following is a concern under Traditional Security?
[1 Marks]
Explanation: The correct option is 'Attack by a neighbouring country'. This option is aligned with the traditional security concept that focuses on direct threats to a state's existence, such as military aggression from other states. The context states that issues must pose a threat to the very existence of a state, making military attacks a primary concern under traditional security. In contrast, the other options relate to non-traditional security challenges.
Question 6.
Which of the following resources is NOT a global common?
[1 Marks]
Explanation: Forests are not classified as global commons because they are primarily subject to the jurisdiction of individual states, unlike Antarctica, the ocean floor, and outer space, which require common governance by the international community as they are accessible to all and not owned by any one nation.
Question 7.
Which of the following statements is TRUE about globalisation?
[1 Marks]
Explanation: Globalisation is a multidimensional phenomenon. This statement is correct because the provided context explicitly states that globalisation encompasses political, economic, and cultural aspects and cannot be reduced to just one dimension. This understanding recognizes the complexity and varied impacts of globalisation on different societies.
Question 8.
Who advanced the 'Two Nation Theory' that led to the partition of British India?
[1 Marks]
Explanation: The 'Two Nation Theory' was advanced by the Muslim League, which argued that India was not a single nation but consisted of two distinct peoples, the Hindus and the Muslims. This theory was a key factor leading to the demand for a separate Muslim nation, Pakistan. The Congress Party opposed this theory, and leaders like Abdul Gaffar Khan were against it as well. The British Government played a role in the eventual partition, but the theory itself originated from the Muslim League.
Question 9.
Planning Commission was set up by .
[1 Marks]
Explanation: The correct answer is 'A resolution of Government of India' because the Planning Commission was established in March 1950 through a simple resolution by the Government of India, not by the Constitution or any of the other provided options.
Question 10.
[1 Marks]
Assertion (A) : In 1969 the Congress Party faced a split.
Reason (R) : Factional rivalry existed between the Congress Syndicate and Indira Gandhi.
Explanation: Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason of (A) because the split in the Congress Party in 1969 was indeed influenced by the factional rivalry between the Congress Syndicate and Indira Gandhi. The context clearly establishes that the groups led by these factions represented ideological divides along with personal ambitions and rivalries, contributing to the overall schism within the party.
Question 11.
Who among the following had announced a nationwide satyagraha on 25th June, 1975 for the resignation of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi?
[1 Marks]
Explanation: The correct answer is Jayaprakash Narayan. He led the opposition against Indira Gandhi and announced a nationwide satyagraha for her resignation on 25th June 1975, calling upon government employees, the army, and the police not to obey what he termed 'illegal and immoral orders'.
Question 12.
[1 Marks]
Arrange the following in chronological order:
(i) Implementation of recommendations of Mandal Commission.
(ii) Appointment of Manmohan Singh as Prime Minister for the first time.
(iii) Signing of the Punjab Accord with Longowal.
(iv) Appointment of Rajiv Gandhi as Prime Minister. Choose the correct option.
Explanation: The correct chronological order is (iv), (iii), (i), (ii). Rajiv Gandhi was appointed as Prime Minister in 1984 after Indira Gandhi's assassination. He signed the Punjab Accord with Longowal in 1985. The recommendations of the Mandal Commission were implemented in 1990. Finally, Manmohan Singh was appointed Prime Minister in 2004.
Question 13.
Who among the following introduced a policy of reservations for OBCs for the first time?
[1 Marks]
Explanation: Karpoori Thakur was a pioneer in introducing a new policy of reservations for OBCs in Bihar. His government took the initiative before the recommendations of the Mandal Commission were implemented at the national level, making him the first to introduce such a policy.
Section C
Question 14.
[1 Marks]
Which country was not a part of the Soviet Union?
Answer: Among the countries in the Soviet sphere, one notable nation not part of the Soviet Union was Finland. While Finland maintained a complex relationship with the USSR, especially during the Cold War, it remained an independent nation. Other countries, like Ukraine and Belarus, were integral parts of the Soviet Union until its dissolution in 1991. Finland's independence allowed it to steer a different path politically and economically.
Question 15.
[1 Marks]
What was the code name of the 2003 US invasion of Iraq?
Answer: The code name of the 2003 US invasion of Iraq was 'Operation Iraqi Freedom'. This military operation aimed to dismantle the regime of Saddam Hussein, based on claims that he possessed weapons of mass destruction. The invasion began on March 20, 2003, and was part of a broader strategy to establish democratic governance in Iraq and the Middle East. The operation faced significant international criticism and raised questions about its justification.
Question 16.
[1 Marks]
What is the main objective of the United Nations?
Answer: The main objective of the United Nations (UN) is to promote international cooperation and prevent conflicts. Established after World War II, it seeks to facilitate peace among countries, aid in social and economic development, and address global challenges. The UN plays a crucial role in mediating disputes and fostering dialogue, particularly in a world where power dynamics, such as U.S. dominance, can complicate international relations. Its ultimate aim is to secure peace and progress for humanity.
Question 17.
[1 Marks]
Which of the following is not a global common: Antarctica, Ocean floor, Outer space, or Forests?
Answer: Forests are not considered a global common in the same way as Antarctica, the ocean floor, and outer space. While forests are essential for the planet's biodiversity and climate, they are often managed within national boundaries and are subject to state jurisdiction. This contrasts with the aforementioned global commons, which require international cooperation and governance due to their unowned nature and significance to humanity as a whole.
Question 18.
[1 Marks]
Who advanced the Two Nation Theory?
Answer: The Two Nation Theory was advanced by the Muslim League, particularly under the leadership of Muhammad Ali Jinnah. This theory posited that India comprised two distinct nations, Hindus and Muslims, which justified the demand for a separate Muslim state, Pakistan. The theory emerged in the context of growing communal tensions and was opposed by Congress leaders, who believed in a united India. Ultimately, it shaped the political landscape leading to the Partition in 1947.
Question 19.
[1 Marks]
Name any one programme launched after 2014 for women's progress.
Answer: One programme launched after 2014 for women's progress in India is the 'Beti Bachao Beti Padhao' scheme. This initiative aims to promote gender equality and educate the girl child by addressing issues such as declining child sex ratios and promoting the importance of education for girls. It emphasizes community involvement and aims to change societal attitudes towards girls, ensuring their safety and empowerment in society.
Question 20.
[1 Marks]
Who among the following remained Prime Minister of India for less than a year?
Answer: Lal Bahadur Shastri remained Prime Minister of India for a short period from 1964 to 1966. His tenure lasted for less than two years, and he faced significant challenges such as economic issues and a war with Pakistan. Despite his brief time in office, he is remembered for his integrity and leadership during difficult times.
Section D
Question 21.
Explain the notion of traditional security.
[2 Marks]
Answer: Traditional security primarily focuses on military threats to a state, emphasizing the use or the threat of military force as central to achieving security. It asserts that a secure state must maintain internal peace and stability while safeguarding itself from external military dangers. In this context, the referent of security is the state itself, along with its territory and governing institutions. Traditional notions do not consider non-military threats, limiting the scope of what security entails.
Question 22.
Name any four agencies of the United Nations.
[2 Marks]
Answer: The United Nations (UN) comprises several specialized agencies that focus on various global issues. Four major agencies include the World Health Organization (WHO), which coordinates international health efforts; the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP), which works on global development goals; the United Nations High Commission for Refugees (UNHCR), which focuses on protecting refugee rights; and the United Nations Children's Fund (UNICEF), which provides assistance to children worldwide. These agencies play vital roles in addressing social, economic, and humanitarian challenges globally.
Question 23.
Highlight the speciality of India — Nepal relations.
[2 Marks]
Answer: India and Nepal share a unique relationship characterized by deep historical, cultural, and geographical ties. The Treaty of Peace and Friendship allows citizens to travel and work freely without visas or passports, fostering strong people-to-people connections. Despite occasional trade disputes and political tensions, both nations collaborate on various fronts, including trade, security, and infrastructure development. Furthermore, the consolidation of democracy in Nepal holds promise for strengthening bilateral ties, ensuring mutual sensitivity towards each other's needs and aspirations.
Question 24.
State any two programmes launched by the NDA government after 2014 for women’s help and progress.
[2 Marks]
Answer: After 2014, the NDA government launched several initiatives aimed at empowering women in India. Two significant programmes include the 'Beti Bachao Beti Padhao' initiative, which promotes the importance of education for girls and aims to improve the sex ratio, and 'Mahila E-Haat', an online marketing platform designed to support women entrepreneurs by providing them a space to showcase their products. Both programmes reflect the government's commitment to women's rights and empowerment.
Question 25.
Identify and name any two Prime Ministers of India who remained in power for less than a year.
[2 Marks]
Answer: Two Prime Ministers of India who remained in power for less than a year are Morarji Desai and Charan Singh. Morarji Desai was the Prime Minister from March 1977 until his resignation in January 1979, serving for about 10 months. He led the Janata Party government which faced internal conflicts and instability. Charan Singh succeeded Desai and served from January 1979 to January 1980, lasting just 5 months. His government also struggled to maintain majority support in a coalition setup.
Question 26.
Identify any two states where the Central Government had to face separatist movements. Also name the leaders who led these movements.
[2 Marks]
Answer: The Central Government has faced significant separatist movements in two states: Jammu and Kashmir and Punjab. In Jammu and Kashmir, leaders such as Syed Ali Shah Geelani and Mirwaiz Umar Farooq played pivotal roles in advocating for separatism, often seeking either greater autonomy or complete independence from India. In Punjab, the Khalistan movement was largely led by figures like Jarnail Singh Bhindranwale, who demanded a separate Sikh homeland. These movements reflect the complexities of regional identities and aspirations within the nation.
Section E
Question 27.
Suggest any two measures to deal with threats to the traditional security.
[4 Marks]
Answer: To effectively deal with threats to traditional security, two critical measures can be implemented. First, enhancing internal security through the establishment of closer civil-military cooperation is vital. This involves not only improving intelligence and communication channels between military forces and law enforcement agencies but also engaging local communities to ensure effective cooperation. Second, a comprehensive diplomatic strategy can be adopted to mitigate external threats. This includes fostering strong bilateral and multilateral relationships with neighboring countries, engaging in joint exercises, and participating in international treaties focused on conflict resolution and stability. Together, these measures can strengthen a nation’s security framework in facing both internal and external challenges.
Question 28.
Globalisation is the outcome of developed technology. Support the statement with two examples.
[4 Marks]
Answer: Globalisation significantly stems from advancements in technology, which have transformed our interactions on a global scale. One prime example is the invention of the internet, which has enabled instantaneous communication across the world. This has allowed businesses to operate internationally with ease, facilitating a global market where products and services can be accessed by millions regardless of geographical boundaries. Another example is the development of transportation technologies, such as airplanes and container shipping, which have drastically reduced the time and cost of moving goods internationally. These technologies have made it possible for countries to engage in trade and investment flows, promoting connectivity and economic interdependence. Overall, technological innovations have laid the groundwork for globalisation by bridging distances, enhancing communication, and fostering economic collaboration.
Question 29.
Development mostly causes degradation of environment. Justify the statement referring to two environmental movements.
[4 Marks]
Answer: The assertion that development often leads to environmental degradation is substantiated by numerous historical and contemporary examples, notably through environmental movements such as the Chipko Movement and anti-dam movements. The Chipko Movement, which began in the 1970s in India, highlighted the destructive impact of deforestation caused by developmental projects. The activists embraced trees, effectively preventing loggers from cutting them down, which emphasized the need for sustainable development. Similarly, anti-dam movements globally contest the building of mega-dams, arguing that these projects displace communities and disrupt local ecosystems. These movements reveal the tensions between economic growth and environmental preservation, showcasing the urgent need for a balanced approach to development that prioritizes ecological sustainability. Through awareness and activism, these groups have significantly influenced public policy and shifted the narrative towards more responsible development practices that uphold environmental integrity.
Question 30.
Evaluate the relationship between India and Pakistan with the help of examples.
[4 Marks]
Answer: The relationship between India and Pakistan is complex, characterized by alternating phases of conflict and cooperation. Historically, the two nations have experienced severe tensions rooted in territorial disputes, notably over Kashmir, which has led to multiple wars. However, there have been efforts to improve relations, such as the initiation of bus routes facilitating cross-border travel and an increase in trade between the two countries. Cultural exchanges, especially during cricket matches, illustrate a shared heritage that can transcend political barriers, with fans often displaying mutual hospitality. Despite these positive developments, incidents of violence and mistrust persist, influenced by regional dynamics and external actors like the United States, which has played a role in moderating tensions. The relationship embodies a duality of rivalry and the potential for peace, indicative of the broader complexities in South Asian geopolitics.
Question 31.
Explain any four effects of the Emergency declared in 1975.
[4 Marks]
Answer: The Emergency declared in 1975 had significant and far-reaching effects on Indian democracy and society. First, civil liberties were severely curtailed; the government suspended fundamental rights, allowing for censorship of the press and the arrest of political opponents without trial. Second, political opposition faced harsh repression, leading to the arrest of thousands, including major leaders and activists, fundamentally altering the political landscape. Third, the Emergency facilitated significant economic changes, including increased state control over industries and a focus on infrastructure development aimed at modernization. Finally, the Emergency highlighted the fragility of democratic institutions in India, provoking a nationwide debate on the balance between security and civil rights, ultimately prompting reforms in the political system to better protect democracy. These effects reshaped public perception of government authority and the need for accountability.
Section F
Question 32.
[6 Marks]
Analyse any three happenings during Gorbachev’s period that led to the disintegration of the Soviet Union.
Answer: During Gorbachev's leadership, several critical events contributed to the disintegration of the Soviet Union. Firstly, the introduction of policies like Glasnost (openness) and Perestroika (restructuring) in the mid-1980s aimed to revitalize the economy and promote political transparency. However, these reforms inadvertently exposed the deep-rooted issues of the Soviet system, leading to widespread discontent. Secondly, nationalist movements gained momentum, notably in the Baltic states, where Lithuania, Estonia, and Latvia pursued independence, challenging Moscow's authority. Gorbachev’s reluctance to use force against these movements signified a shift in governmental tactics. Lastly, the 1991 August Coup attempted to reverse Gorbachev’s reforms but ended up consolidating public support for Boris Yeltsin, who championed democratic reforms. This coup failed and expedited the dissolution of the USSR, ultimately culminating in its disintegration in December 1991. These interconnected occurrences highlight Gorbachev's struggle in managing the complexities of a vast empire amid deteriorating socio-political conditions.
Question 33.
[6 Marks]
Analyse any three consequences of the disintegration of USSR.
Answer: The disintegration of the USSR resulted in significant geopolitical shifts, economic challenges, and the rise of nationalism. Firstly, the emergence of multiple independent states, such as Ukraine and the Baltic republics, reshaped global politics, leading to new national identities and conflicts. Secondly, the transition from a centrally planned economy to market economies caused economic turmoil in many former Soviet republics, leading to high unemployment and poverty. Lastly, the disintegration fueled a resurgence of nationalism, as various ethnic groups sought sovereignty, destabilizing the region and creating tensions between former allies. These consequences continue to influence international relations and regional dynamics today.
Question 34.
[6 Marks]
Highlight any three features of the First Five Year Plan.
Answer: The First Five Year Plan, implemented from 1951 to 1956, aimed to alleviate poverty and boost economic growth in India. Firstly, it focused on agricultural development, recognizing the agricultural sector's critical role in the nation's economy, which was essential for ensuring food security. Secondly, it emphasized infrastructure development, particularly in irrigation and transport, to support agricultural productivity and connect rural areas with markets. Lastly, the plan incorporated a limited approach to industrialization, advocating for manageable growth to avoid overwhelming the democratic system and ensuring that economic progress did not come at the cost of political stability. This careful strategy laid the groundwork for future planning efforts.
Question 35.
[6 Marks]
Highlight any three problems faced by Government of India immediately after independence related to the displaced population.
Answer: After India's independence in 1947, the government faced significant challenges related to the displaced population due to the Partition. Firstly, there was an immense humanitarian crisis as millions were uprooted from their homes, leading to a staggering refugee influx. This sudden displacement put immense strain on resources, requiring urgent shelters and basic necessities. Secondly, communal violence erupted during this period, resulting in widespread fear and insecurity among the displaced communities, which complicated their rehabilitation. Lastly, the integration of refugees into existing social and economic structures proved difficult; many were marginalized and struggled to rebuild their lives in unfamiliar territories. These challenges necessitated comprehensive policies and strategies for refugee resettlement and national integration, which were essential for maintaining unity in a diverse society.
Question 36.
[6 Marks]
Assess any three effects of Emergency imposed in 1975 in strengthening the democracy in India.
Answer: The imposition of Emergency in 1975 had profound effects on the democracy of India, ultimately leading to its strengthening in various ways. Firstly, it exposed the vulnerabilities within the political system, prompting citizens to become more vigilant and engaged in protecting democratic values. The authoritarian measures taken during the Emergency galvanized political awareness among the populace, leading to a significant political awakening. Secondly, the aftermath of the Emergency saw a resurgence of political pluralism, as opposition parties united against the Congress, which resulted in their eventual victory in the 1977 elections. This shift reinforced the principle that democracy thrives on competition and accountability. Lastly, the Emergency highlighted the importance of institutional checks and balances, as the judiciary and civil society played crucial roles in challenging governmental overreach. This led to reforms aimed at safeguarding fundamental rights, ensuring such a lapse in democratic governance would not occur again. Overall, while the Emergency was a dark period for India, it inadvertently strengthened the institutions and resolve surrounding Indian democracy.
Question 37.
[6 Marks]
Assess the impact of three democratic upsurges in post independent India.
Answer: In post-independence India, three significant democratic upsurges have profoundly influenced the political landscape: the rise of regional political parties, the strengthening of secularism amidst communal tensions, and the consolidation of civil society movements. The emergence of regional parties allowed diverse regional aspirations to be voiced, fostering a sense of inclusion and representation. This acceptance of regional identities has been crucial for political stability and unity. Moreover, the struggle against communalism has underscored the importance of secular governance, helping to maintain social harmony in a diverse society. Movements like the anti-corruption Narmada Bachao Andolan have raised political consciousness and highlighted the role of grassroots activism in shaping democratic discourse. Collectively, these upsurges demonstrate how democratic frameworks empower citizens and accommodate varied interests, contributing to India's resilience as a democracy.
Question 38.
[6 Marks]
Analyse any three major happenings in Bangladesh that show peoples’ support to democracy.
Answer: Bangladesh's journey toward democracy has been marked by significant events reflecting the people's unwavering commitment to democratic principles. Firstly, the 1990 popular uprising against Lt Gen H. M. Ershad showcased immense public protest, leading to his resignation and the reinstatement of democratic practices. Secondly, the mass protests against Sheikh Mujibur Rahman's autocratic rule in the mid-1970s demonstrated people's desire for political plurality, culminating in the 1975 amendment that limited political freedom. Finally, the successful elections of 1991, following years of military rule, reinstated a multi-party democracy, illustrating the resilience and determination of citizens to restore their democratic rights.
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