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previous-year-question-paper-2024-set-2

SOLUTIONS

2024 BOARD EXAM

CBSE CLASS 12-HUMANITIES POLITICAL SCIENCE Board Paper 2024 — Set 2

2024

POLITICAL SCIENCE

CLASS 12-HUMANITIES

CBSE EXAMINATION SOLVED PAPER-2024 POLITICAL SCIENCE

CBSE EXAMINATION PAPER-2024

POLITICAL SCIENCE

(Solved)

Time allowed : 3 hours

Maximum Marks : 102

General Instructions :

Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :

  1. This question paper contains 36 questions. All questions are compulsory.
  2. This question paper is divided into 6 sections.
  3. Section A – questions number 1 to 1 are case based questions
  4. Section B – questions number 2 to 7 are very short answer
  5. Section C – questions number 8 to 15 are multiple choice questions
  6. Section D – questions number 16 to 21 are short answer
  7. Section E – questions number 22 to 28 are long answer type i
  8. Section F – questions number 29 to 36 are long answer type ii
  9. There is no overall choice given in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions.
  10. Use of calculator is NOT allowed.

Section A

Question 1. Study the cartoon given below and answer the questions that follow:

(1) Identify and name the leader who toppled the Janata Government.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The leader who played a significant role in toppling the Janata Government was Indira Gandhi. Despite the Janata Party's initial victory in the 1977 elections, internal conflicts between leaders like Morarji Desai, Charan Singh, and Jagjivan Ram weakened the government. Ultimately, the power struggle and opposition sentiments against the Janata Party created a political environment conducive to Indira Gandhi's return to power, leading to the fall of the Janata Government.
Key Points: Indira Gandhi's role - Internal conflicts among Janata leaders - Stiff opposition led to Janata Government's downfall - Return to power of Indira Gandhi

(2) Identify and name the Prime Minister of the Janata Party Government shown in the cartoon.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The Prime Minister of the Janata Party Government shown in the cartoon is Morarji Desai. He was the first Prime Minister of India to head a non-Congress government after the 1977 elections, leading a coalition government amidst competition from other political leaders within the Janata Party.
Key Points: Morarji Desai - Prime Minister of Janata Party Government - 1977 elections - Non-Congress government

(3) Highlight any two reasons for the defeat of the Janata Party in 1980.

[2 Marks]
Answer: The Janata Party faced a significant defeat in the 1980 elections for several reasons. Firstly, the party was characterized by a lack of cohesion and internal conflicts, as evidenced by the power struggles among its leaders, such as Morarji Desai, Charan Singh, and Jagjivan Ram. This disunity weakened their appeal to voters who were looking for stable governance. Secondly, the Janata Party was perceived as an unstable government. Their brief rule lasted only about four months, which led voters to question their ability to govern effectively. In contrast, Indira Gandhi and the Congress party capitalized on this perception of instability, leading to their resurgence in power, wherein they nearly replicated their 1971 victory, winning a substantial number of seats.
Key Points: Internal conflicts among leaders; Perception of instability in governance

(4)

Highlight any two reasons for the defeat of the Congress Party in the general elections of 1977.

[2 Marks]
Answer: The Congress Party faced defeat in the 1977 general elections primarily due to two significant reasons. Firstly, the split within the Congress itself underlined a loss of coherence and unity, which diminished its electoral strength. This internal division was exacerbated by growing public dissatisfaction with the party's rule during the Emergency (1975-1977). Secondly, the emergence of a united opposition, which included parties like the Janata Party, presented a formidable challenge to the Congress's dominance. This unity allowed the opposition to appeal to a broad electorate based on shared grievances against the ruling party, ultimately leading to a shift in voter allegiance away from Congress.
Key Points: split in the Congress party leading to weakened coherence; public dissatisfaction during the Emergency; emergence of a united opposition, notably the Janata Party; successful appeal to voters through shared grievances

(5)

Name the political party that won the general elections in 1977.

[1 Marks]
Answer: The political party that won the general elections in 1977 was the Janata Party. The Janata Party emerged victorious following the defeat of the ruling Congress party, which had been in power since the previous elections. This election marked a significant shift in the political landscape of India, emphasizing the importance of stable governance as voters responded to the political instability experienced under the Congress leadership.
Key Points: Janata Party was the winning party-1977 elections marked a shift in political landscape-Congress party was defeated

(6)

Name the Prime Minister of India before the Congress Party won the elections in 1980.

[1 Marks]
Answer: Before the Congress Party won the elections in 1980, the Prime Minister of India was Morarji Desai. He led the Janata Party government that came to power following the 1977 elections. His tenure was marked by political instability, and he served until 1979.
Key Points: Morarji Desai; Prime Minister before 1980; Janata Party government; took power after 1977 elections; political instability during tenure

Section B

Question 2. Which political party won all the seats in the 1970 elections in East Pakistan and under whose leadership?
[1 Marks]
Answer: The Awami League, led by Sheikh Mujib-ur Rahman, won all the seats in the 1970 elections in East Pakistan. This victory allowed them to secure a majority in the proposed constituent assembly for the whole of Pakistan. The results were a reflection of the Bengali population's demand for autonomy and fair representation, as they had faced years of neglect and discrimination from West Pakistani rulers.
Question 3. Explain the meaning of Global Security.
[1 Marks]
Answer: Global security refers to the collective measures taken by nations to ensure safety from multifaceted threats that transcend borders, including international terrorism, health epidemics, and environmental changes. It emphasizes 'freedom from want' and 'freedom from fear', addressing threats to human dignity. The concept emerged in the 1990s, highlighting the necessity for global cooperation, as no single nation can tackle these challenges alone, thereby recognizing the interconnectedness of contemporary threats.
Question 4. Highlight any two features of the First Five Year Plan.
[1 Marks]
Answer: The First Five Year Plan, implemented from 1951 to 1956, primarily focused on revitalizing the agrarian sector in India, which had been severely affected by Partition. Significant investments were directed towards irrigation projects, including the Bhakhra Nangal Dam, to enhance agricultural productivity. Additionally, the plan emphasized a gradual and cautious approach to development, as advocated by economist K.N. Raj, to ensure that rapid economic advancement did not threaten the democratic fabric of the nation.
Question 5. Why did the elections of 1952 become a landmark in the history of democracy all over the world? Explain.
[1 Marks]
Answer: The 1952 Indian elections were a landmark in global democracy as they showcased a competitive electoral process in a large and diverse nation characterized by poverty and illiteracy. Despite these challenges, over half of eligible voters participated, marking a remarkable achievement. Observers noted its significance, as it disproved the notion that democratic elections could only thrive in wealthy, literate societies. The elections were seen as fair, with all parties accepting the results, illustrating the resilience of democracy.
Question 6. How has the strengthening of international norms and international institutions helped India protect its security interests? Explain.
[1 Marks]
Answer: The strengthening of international norms and institutions has been vital for India’s security interests. India’s advocacy for disarmament and a non-discriminatory nonproliferation regime has created a platform for equitable rights regarding weapons of mass destruction. Moreover, India has sought reform in the UN Security Council to enhance its representative nature, which helps in addressing global conflicts fairly. This international engagement reinforces India’s stance against traditional and non-traditional threats, thereby enhancing its security.
Question 7. Assess any two advantages of coalition governments at the Centre.
[1 Marks]
Answer: Coalition governments have several advantages, two of which are tolerance of internal differences and the ability to accommodate diverse perspectives. Firstly, coalition politics encourages inclusivity, allowing various groups and leaders to represent their interests, which can lead to a balanced governance. Secondly, these governments often foster compromise, as they must address the concerns of all coalition partners, making it difficult for the opposition to challenge their agenda effectively. This inclusive approach can enhance political stability.

Section C

Question 8. Which two republics of Russia have had violent secessionist movements?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Croatia and Uzbekistan
  • (B) Chechnya and Azerbaijan
  • (C) Chechnya and Dagestan
  • (D) Dagestan and Croatia
Explanation: The correct answer is Chechnya and Dagestan, as the provided context explicitly states that both of these republics in Russia experienced violent secessionist movements, characterized by insurgencies and a severe response from the Russian government.
Question 9. Balance of power requires countries to __________.
[1 Marks]
  • (A) give up certain kinds of weapons
  • (B) regulate acquisition and development of weapons
  • (C) maintain a favourable balance with other countries
  • (D) coordinate their actions to defend against military attack
Explanation: The correct option is 'maintain a favourable balance with other countries.' This answer is supported by the context, which states that countries work hard to maintain a favourable balance of power with other nations, especially those that are close by or with which they have had conflicts in the past. The concept of balance of power is about ensuring that no single country becomes too powerful in comparison to others, which aligns with the chosen option.
Question 10. People who flee their homes but remain within national borders are called __________.
[1 Marks]
  • (A) migrants
  • (B) fugitives
  • (C) internally displaced people
  • (D) indigenous people
Explanation: The correct answer is 'internally displaced people' because the relevant context states that those who have fled their homes but remain within their national borders are referred to as internally displaced people. This distinguishes them from refugees, who leave their country of origin.
Question 11. Which political party came to power in Jammu and Kashmir in 1952?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Indian National Congress
  • (B) Kashmir National Congress
  • (C) National Conference
  • (D) Communist Party of India
Explanation: The correct answer is 'National Conference' as indicated by historical context showing that the National Conference was led by Sheikh Abdullah, who was a prominent political figure in Jammu and Kashmir during that time. His party played a significant role in the political landscape of the region and was in power following its electoral success in the early 1950s.
Question 12. In which year was the Election Commission of India set up?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) 1949
  • (B) 1950
  • (C) 1951
  • (D) 1952
Explanation: The correct answer is 1950. According to the provided context, the Election Commission of India was established in January 1950, making this the accurate year of its formation.
Question 13. In which of the following countries did Dalai Lama obtain political asylum?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Nepal
  • (B) Bhutan
  • (C) India
  • (D) Myanmar
Explanation: The correct answer is India, as the Dalai Lama sought and obtained political asylum in India in 1959 after fleeing from Tibet due to the suppression faced by Tibetans from Chinese forces.
Question 14. The first summit of NAM was held in:
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Cairo
  • (B) Belgrade
  • (C) India
  • (D) Indonesia
Explanation: The correct answer is 'Belgrade' because the First Summit of the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) took place in Belgrade in September 1961, as stated in the context.
Question 15. In which state of India are the Khasi Hills located?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Meghalaya
  • (B) Manipur
  • (C) Mizoram
  • (D) Tripura
Explanation: The Khasi Hills are located in Meghalaya, as mentioned in the context where it states that Meghalaya was created from Assam and is home to the Khasi Hills.

Section D

Question 16. Which political party won all the seats in the 1970 elections in East Pakistan and under whose leadership?
[2 Marks]
Answer: The Awami League won all the seats in the 1970 elections in East Pakistan, led by Sheikh Mujib-ur Rahman. This victory was a significant milestone as it reflected the overwhelming support of the Bengali population, who were demanding autonomy and fair representation after years of marginalization by the West Pakistani rulers. Despite winning, the government's refusal to convene the constituent assembly led to heightened tensions, eventually resulting in the political and military crisis that culminated in the independence of Bangladesh in 1971.
Question 17. Explain the meaning of Global Security.
[2 Marks]
Answer: Global security refers to the interconnectedness of national and international security concerns that transcend borders, highlighting the need for collective action to tackle threats such as global warming, international terrorism, and health epidemics. The concept emerged in the 1990s, emphasizing that no nation can address these challenges alone. It focuses on ensuring 'freedom from want' and 'freedom from fear,' which are crucial for preserving human dignity. Thus, global security encompasses a broad range of issues, advocating for international cooperation to maintain a stable and secure world.
Question 18. Highlight any two features of the First Five Year Plan.
[2 Marks]
Answer: The First Five Year Plan, initiated in 1951, primarily focused on revitalizing India's agrarian sector, which had been severely affected by the Partition. One significant feature was the substantial investment in irrigation projects, notably the construction of large-scale dams like the Bhakhra Nangal Dam, aimed at enhancing agricultural productivity. Another key aspect was the emphasis on cautious economic development, as advocated by K.N. Raj. He proposed a gradual approach to ensure stability and protect democracy, prioritizing sustainable growth over rapid industrialization.
Question 19.

Why did India's general elections of 1952 become a landmark in the history of democracy all over the world? Explain.

[2 Marks]
Answer: India's general elections of 1952 marked a historic moment in global democracy as they were the first to be held in a newly independent nation with a massive population. Over 173 million voters participated, showcasing a remarkable commitment to democratic principles. This unprecedented scale demonstrated that a diverse society could engage in democracy effectively. Observers worldwide recognized this election as a successful model of democratic governance, proving that such systems could thrive in developing countries. India’s electoral success challenged the idea that large-scale democratic elections were unfeasible.
Question 20. How has the strengthening of international norms and international institutions helped India protect its security interests? Explain.
[2 Marks]
Answer: The strengthening of international norms and institutions has significantly aided India in safeguarding its security interests. Initially, under Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru, India advocated for Asian solidarity and decolonization, which laid the groundwork for its proactive role in international affairs. By promoting a fair non-proliferation regime, India has sought equal rights regarding weapons of mass destruction. Additionally, India's call for a reformed Security Council underscores its concern over representation, directly influencing its diplomatic leverage. This advocacy has enabled India to engage with global powers, thereby enhancing its security through multilateral cooperation.
Question 21. Assess any two advantages of coalition governments at the Centre.
[2 Marks]
Answer: Coalition governments at the Centre offer several advantages. Firstly, they promote inclusivity and compromise among diverse political parties. As coalitions bring together different factions, they often lead to a more balanced approach on issues by accommodating various interests. This helps prevent the government from taking extreme positions, fostering stability in governance. Secondly, coalition governments encourage greater tolerance of internal differences. By recognizing and accommodating the ambitions of various groups and leaders, they enhance unity in diversity, which is crucial in a multi-party democracy like India.

Section E

Question 22. Describe the circumstances that led to the Bangladesh War in 1971.
[4 Marks]
Answer: The Bangladesh War of 1971 was the culmination of long-standing political, social, and economic grievances of the people of East Pakistan against West Pakistan. The immediate catalyst was the brutal crackdown by the Pakistani military on March 25, 1971, after the arrest of Sheikh Mujibur Rahman, the leader of the Awami League who had won a majority in the 1970 elections. This repression led to widespread resistance and calls for independence in East Pakistan. As violence escalated, nearly 8 million refugees fled to India, creating a humanitarian crisis that strained India's resources. The Indian government, motivated by the need to alleviate this refugee burden and support the struggle for autonomy, backed the Bangladeshi liberation movement both financially and militarily. The Indo-Pak war erupted in December 1971, culminating in a swift victory for India and the subsequent surrender of Pakistani forces in East Pakistan, leading to the establishment of Bangladesh as an independent nation. The conflict also had repercussions for regional dynamics and India's diplomatic relations, exemplified by the later signing of the Simla Agreement in July 1972.
Question 23. Explain any two reasons for the disintegration of the Soviet Union.
[4 Marks]
Answer: The disintegration of the Soviet Union can be attributed to several pivotal factors, two of which are the excessive centralization of power and the rise of nationalism among various republics. Firstly, the Soviet system was highly centralized, with decision-making concentrated in Moscow. This led to resentment among the various republics, such as Ukraine and the Baltic states, which felt marginalized and dominated by Russia. Secondly, the surge in nationalist sentiments played a crucial role in the breakup. Many regions, including the Baltic Republics and Ukraine, sought independence and desired recognition of their unique cultures and languages, leading to increasing demands for sovereignty. These combined forces ultimately resulted in the collapse of the Soviet Union in 1991.
Question 24.

Suggest any two measures to improve Indo-Pakistan relations.

[4 Marks]
Answer: To improve Indo-Pakistan relations, one effective measure could be the enhancement of people-to-people contacts through cultural exchanges and educational programs. This would allow citizens from both nations to engage directly, fostering a deeper mutual understanding and appreciation of each other's cultures. Additionally, increasing trade and economic cooperation could lead to a substantive interdependence, making conflict less likely. Joint initiatives in sectors such as agriculture and technology can pave the way for collaboration and trust, which are crucial for establishing lasting peace between these two nations. Encouraging dialogue and negotiations through back-channel diplomacy can also help resolve outstanding issues, building confidence and reducing hostility. Overall, these measures can create a foundation for a more constructive and peaceful relationship.
Question 25. Suggest any two measures to improve Indo-China relations.
[4 Marks]
Answer: To improve Indo-China relations, two significant measures can be implemented. Firstly, enhancing economic cooperation can play a critical role. This can be achieved by promoting joint ventures and investments that cater to mutual interests, particularly in sectors like technology, trade, and infrastructure. Increasing bilateral trade can foster interdependence and reduce tensions. Secondly, promoting cultural exchanges can build trust and goodwill between the two nations. Initiatives such as student exchange programs, joint cultural festivals, and collaborative scientific research can foster a better understanding of each other's cultures. These measures, focusing on economic collaboration and cultural understanding, can pave the way for a more amicable and peaceful relationship between India and China.
Question 26. Highlight any two causes of globalization.
[4 Marks]
Answer: Globalization is a multifaceted phenomenon influenced by various factors. Two primary causes of globalization are advancements in technology and economic liberalization. First, technological advancements, particularly in transportation and communication, have drastically reduced the time and cost associated with moving goods and information across borders. The internet, for instance, facilitates instantaneous communication, making international collaboration and trade easier than ever. Second, economic liberalization, which encompasses policies that reduce restrictions on trade and investment, has prompted increased global economic integration. Countries adopting free trade agreements and deregulating their economies attract foreign investment and market participation. These factors have contributed significantly to the interconnected global economy we see today, reshaping cultures and societies worldwide.
Question 27. Highlight any two positive effects of globalization.
[4 Marks]
Answer: Globalization has positively transformed the world in numerous ways, with two significant effects being enhanced economic growth and cultural exchange. Firstly, economic globalization enables countries to specialize in producing goods and services they are best at, which increases overall efficiency and productivity. As nations engage in more trade, they can benefit from larger markets, driving economic growth and improving livelihoods. Secondly, globalization fosters cultural exchange, allowing ideas, traditions, and innovations to flow between nations. This enriches societies, promotes diversity, and encourages mutual understanding among different cultures, paving the way for collaborative problem-solving and shared advancements in various fields. Hence, while there are critiques of globalization, these positive effects illustrate its potential for fostering economic development and cultural appreciation across the globe.
Question 28. The best way to respond to regional aspirations is through democratic negotiations rather than through suppression. Justify the statement with examples.
[4 Marks]
Answer: The complex fabric of regional aspirations within a diverse nation like India necessitates a democratic approach to negotiation instead of suppression. History shows that suppression leads to increased dissatisfaction and unrest, as seen in the militancy in Punjab during the 1980s. Instead of merely treating these regional issues as law and order problems, recognizing regional identities' importance is crucial. For instance, the Assam agitation highlighted local demands for identity and rights, necessitating political dialogue to resolve these issues. In contrast, in countries like Spain, regional movements in Catalonia and the Basque Country emphasize that even in advanced democracies, regional aspirations are significant. Acknowledging and accommodating these aspirations through democratic engagement fosters unity, stability, and a more inclusive political landscape, demonstrating that respectful dialogue can lead to resolving regional tensions.

Section F

Question 29. Analyze any four factors that make the European Union an influential regional organization.
[6 Marks]
Answer: The European Union (EU) is an influential regional organization due to several factors. Firstly, its significant economic power, with a projected GDP of approximately $19.35 trillion in 2024, allows it to command a substantial share of global trade, making it a key player in economic negotiations. Secondly, the EU’s political unity enhances its diplomatic influence; as a bloc, it can negotiate with other powerful nations effectively. Thirdly, France’s permanent seat in organizations like the UN Security Council bolsters the EU's global stature. Lastly, the EU's common foreign and security policy facilitates collective action, making it a formidable entity in international relations. These elements collectively contribute to the EU’s status as a significant actor on the world stage.
Question 30. ASEAN is rapidly growing into a very important regional organization. Justify the statement.
[6 Marks]
Answer: The Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) has emerged as a significant regional organization, demonstrating rapid growth in influence and economic power. Established in 1967 with the objective of accelerating economic growth and promoting peace, ASEAN has played a crucial role in mediating regional conflicts such as the Cambodian conflict and the East Timor crisis. Its Vision 2020 emphasizes an outward-looking role in global affairs, focusing on negotiation and cooperation. Economically, despite being smaller compared to the US and EU, ASEAN's economy is growing at a faster pace, further enhancing its significance. The ASEAN Economic Community aims to establish a common market, promoting integration among member states which fosters economic cooperation and development. Furthermore, ASEAN's collaboration with important global players enhances its diplomatic stature. Thus, ASEAN's efforts towards conflict resolution, economic integration, and regional cooperation justify its growth as an influential organization in contemporary geopolitics.
Question 31. Explain the grounds on the basis of which India seeks to become a permanent member of the UN Security Council.
[6 Marks]
Answer: India's aspiration for permanent membership in the UN Security Council is founded on several compelling grounds. Firstly, India's substantial economic emergence positions it as a significant player on the global stage, deserving of influence in crucial international decisions. Moreover, India has consistently met its financial obligations to the UN, demonstrating its commitment to multilateralism. The static composition of the Security Council contrasts with the dynamic nature of the UN General Assembly, where developing countries comprise the majority. India argues that their inclusion will enhance the Council's representative character. Furthermore, India's nuclear capabilities contribute to its argument for permanent status, although they raise concerns among some nations. Recognizing the changing global landscape, India supports expanding both permanent and non-permanent memberships to ensure that the Council's actions reflect the political support of a broader international community, especially as its activities have greatly expanded in recent years.
Question 32. Explain the three main complaints reflected in the resolution adopted by the UN General Assembly in 1992 to reform the UN Security Council.
[6 Marks]
Answer: In 1992, the UN General Assembly adopted a resolution addressing the pressing need to reform the UN Security Council, reflecting three pivotal complaints. Firstly, there was a growing consensus that the Security Council no longer accurately represented contemporary political realities, as the global political landscape had significantly evolved since its establishment. Secondly, critics argued that the decisions made by the Security Council predominantly embodied Western values and interests, leading to claims of bias and partiality towards a select group of nations. This situation created a sense of disenfranchisement among many countries, particularly those from the Global South. Lastly, the resolution highlighted the lack of equitable representation within the Security Council, pointing out that despite the expansion of the UN General Assembly's membership, the composition of the Security Council remained stagnant, with no changes in the number of permanent members since 1965. This lack of inclusivity undermined the Council’s legitimacy and effectiveness in addressing global issues. The combination of these complaints fueled demands for a more representative, fair, and democratic Security Council structure, emphasizing the necessity for reform.
Question 33. Describe the difficulties faced by India to get the merger of all the Princely States into the Union of India.
[6 Marks]
Answer: The merger of the princely states into the Indian Union post-independence was fraught with complexities. Firstly, despite a strong desire for unification among the populace, many rulers were reluctant. The Maharaja of Travancore declared independence, and the Nizam of Hyderabad followed suit, demonstrating resistance from influential leaders. Additionally, the backdrop of partition, characterized by violence and communal strife, intensified apprehensions, as rulers feared instability. Consequently, the Government of India had to negotiate carefully, balancing autonomy with the need for unity. The constitutional implications were significant, as the integration of states demanded redrawing internal boundaries to reflect linguistic and cultural identities, thereby ensuring a cohesive and democratic framework. This balancing act was essential to maintain the unity of the newly independent nation against the threat of fragmentation, as some rulers were inclined towards opposing the merger altogether.
Question 34. Describe the events that led to the accession of Hyderabad into the Union of India.
[6 Marks]
Answer: The accession of Hyderabad to the Union of India was a significant event influenced by a series of political and military developments. After India's independence in August 1947, the Nizam of Hyderabad sought to maintain independence, signing a Standstill Agreement with India for negotiations, highlighting his desire for autonomy. However, popular discontent with the Nizam's rule, particularly amongst the peasantry in Telangana, escalated almost immediately, leading to mass movements against his regime. The situation intensified when the Nizam openly declared his intent to remain independent, similar to other princely states like Travancore. In response to the growing unrest and the possibility of a communal conflict, the Indian government intervened militarily in September 1948. The Indian army advanced to stabilize the region, engaging with the Nizam's forces in intermittent fighting. The conflict culminated in the Nizam's surrender after a few days. This surrender was pivotal, resulting in Hyderabad's swift accession to India and merging it into the Indian Union, reinforcing India's territorial integrity and reducing the threat posed by the princely states. Thus, the combination of military intervention and popular discontent ultimately secured Hyderabad's accession.
Question 35. Describe any four major developments in Indian politics since 1989.
[6 Marks]
Answer: Since 1989, Indian politics has experienced significant transformations. Firstly, the defeat of the Congress party in the 1989 elections was monumental, reducing its seats from 415 in 1984 to just 197. This marked a shift towards a multi-party system, leading to increased competition among political players. Secondly, the rise of identity politics became prominent, particularly relating to religious affiliations, which sparked debates around secularism and democracy. For instance, the emergence of the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) transformed the political landscape, advocating for Hindutva. Thirdly, coalitions became a significant feature of governance in the 1990s, as no single party could achieve a majority, resulting in the formation of fragile alliances. Finally, the economic liberalization initiated in 1991 altered policy perspectives, influencing political debates and priorities. These developments collectively reshaped the foundational structures of Indian democracy and governance.
Question 36. Describe any three issues on which a general consensus has emerged among most of the political parties of India.
[6 Marks]
Answer: In contemporary Indian politics, several critical issues have garnered a consensus among various political parties, highlighting their commitment despite ideological differences. First, there is a clear agreement on the need for national integration. Parties across the spectrum acknowledge the importance of unifying the diverse cultures and languages of India to foster a strong national identity. Second, new economic policies have become a focal point of consensus, as parties often agree on the necessity to adopt reforms that promote growth and modernization, reflecting a shift towards liberalization to address economic challenges. Lastly, external relations and defense policy have also seen bipartisan support, especially regarding the protection of India’s borders and maintaining national sovereignty in a complex geopolitical landscape. This consensus signifies a strategic alignment among parties to prioritize national interests over partisan conflicts.

Paper Details

CBSE Board Exam 2024

Class

CLASS 12-HUMANITIES

Subject

POLITICAL SCIENCE

Year

2024

Set

Set 2

Other Years — POLITICAL SCIENCE

2022 Set-1

2022 Set-2

2022 Set-3

2022 Set-4

2022 Set-5

2023 Set-1

2023 Set-2

2023 Set-3

2023 Set-4

2023 Set-5

2024 Set-1

2024 Set-2

2024 Set-3

2024 Set-4

2024 Set-5

2025 Set-1

2025 Set-2

2025 Set-2