QUESTION PAPER

2026 BOARD EXAM

CBSE Class 12 Humanities Political Science Board Paper 2026 — Set 2

2026

Political Science

Class 12 Humanities

CBSE EXAMINATION PAPER-2026

POLITICAL SCIENCE

(Solved)

Time allowed : 3 hours

Maximum Marks : 100

General Instructions :

Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :

  1. This question paper contains 36 questions. All questions are compulsory.
  2. This question paper is divided into 5 sections.
  3. Section A – questions number 1 to 3 are case based questions
  4. Section B – questions number 4 to 15 are multiple choice questions
  5. Section C – questions number 16 to 21 are short answer
  6. Section D – questions number 22 to 28 are long answer type i
  7. Section E – questions number 29 to 36 are long answer type ii
  8. There is no overall choice given in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions.
  9. Use of calculator is NOT allowed.

Section A

Question 1. Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions based on it : 41=4 India made earnest efforts for the early realisation of freedom of Indonesia from the Dutch colonial regime by convening an international conference in 1949 to support its freedom struggle. India was a staunch supporter of the decolonisation process and firmly opposed racism, especially apartheid in South Africa. The Afro-Asian Conference held in the Indonesian city of Bandung in 1955, commonly known as the Bandung Conference, marked the zenith of India’s engagement with the newly independent Asian and African nations. The Bandung Conference later led to the establishment of the NAM.

(1) Which Indian leader played an important role in manifesting the Afro-Asian unity ? (A) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (B) Jawaharlal Nehru (C) Mahatma Gandhi (D) Lal Bahadur Shastri

[1 Mark]

(2) In which year did the Non-Alignment Movement become the symbol of Afro-Asian unity ? (A) 1959 (B) 1960 (C) 1961 (D) 1962

[1 Mark]

(3) Identify the main intention behind the strengthening Afro-Asian unity. (A) To gain economic support from the USA bloc (B) To co-operate with the USSR bloc in enhancing its global policies (C) To form military alliances in the era of Cold War (D) To maintain distance from both the superpowers (USA and USSR) in order to protect its freedom

[1 Mark]

(4) The first summit of the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) was held in which year ? (A) 1961 (B) 1962 (C) 1963 (D) 1964

[1 Mark]
Question 2. Study the cartoon given below carefully and answer the questions based on it :
Diagram 1 – CBSE Class 12 Humanities Political Science 2026 Set 2

(1) Identify and name the leader shown in the cartoon.

[1 Mark]

(2) Name any two countries of East Asia

[1 Mark]

(3) Explain the meaning of the sentence given in the cartoon ‘WE’LL HAVE TO GET USED TO IT’.

[2 Marks]
Question 3.

In the given political outline map of India (on page 17), four States have been marked (Ⓐ, Ⓑ, Ⓒ, and Ⓓ). Identify these States on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer-book along with their respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabet given in the map as per the following format :

Diagram 2 – CBSE Class 12 Humanities Political Science 2026 Set 2

(1) The state related to Prime Minister Lal Bahadur Shastri.

[1 Mark]

(2) The state for which K. Kamaraj initiated Mid-day Meal programme to increase enrolment in education.

[1 Mark]

(3) The state in which the Congress Party did not get majority in the Assembly Elections of 1967, but formed a government with the support of other parties.

[1 Mark]

(4) The state where Non-Congress coalition government was formed after the Assembly Elections of 1967

[1 Mark]

Section B

Question 4.

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : The World Bank was created after the Second World War in the year 1945.

Statement II : The activities of the World Bank are focused on the developing countries. In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

[1 Mark]
  • (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (B) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
  • (C) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
  • (D) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
Question 5. The major objective of ‘Kyoto Protocol’ was :
[1 Mark]
  • (A) to reduce greenhouse gas emissions
  • (B) to reduce pollution by increasing forest cover
  • (C) to provide grant-in-aid to the developing nations to control environmental pollution.
  • (D) to promote sustainable development
Question 6.

The concept of ‘sustainable development’ emphasises on :

[1 Mark]
  • (A) utilizing maximum resources for human development.
  • (B) increasing Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of a country
  • (C) combining economic growth with ecological responsibility.
  • (D) maximising the efforts for environmental conservation.
Question 7.

Match the States given in List-I with the States from which these were carved out given in List-II correctly. Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :

List-I -List-II

1.Gujarat- (i) Assam,

2.Haryana- (ii) Bombay,

3.Meghalaya- (iii) Madhya Pradesh ,

4. Chhattisgarh- (iv) Punjab,

[1 Mark]
  • (A) 1-(iii), 2-(iv), 3-(i), 4-(ii)
  • (B) 1-(ii), 2-(i), 3-(iv), 4-(iii)
  • (C) 1-(i), 2-(iii), 3-(iv), 4-(ii)
  • (D) 1-(ii), 2-(iv), 3-(i), 4-(iii)
Question 8.

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R). Read these statements and choose the correct answer from the given below options :

Assertion (A) : The European Union has its own flag, anthem, founding date and currency.

Reason (R) : The European Union has a major influence on the economic, political and military fields in the contemporary world.

[1 Mark]
  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true
  • (D) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
Question 9.

The States Reorganisation Commission was appointed in 1953 :

[1 Mark]
  • (A) to end complexities regarding demarcation of the provinces’ boundaries during colonial rule.
  • (B) to ensure administrative efficiency.
  • (C) to ensure process of nation building
  • (D) for demarcation of states’ boundaries on the basis of language.
Question 10. Choose the best argument to support India’s claim for permanent membership in the United Nations Security Council :
[1 Mark]
  • (A) India’s growing economic power and stable political system
  • (B) India’s effective leadership
  • (C) India’s membership in the United Nations Organization since its inception
  • (D) India as the contributing member country in the United Nations Organisation’s budget
Question 11.

Arrange the following events in a chronological order :

(i) Atomic test conducted by China

(ii) First nuclear explosion conducted by India

(iii) Implementation of Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty

(iv) Initiation of the atomic programme in India under the guidance of Homi Jehangir Bhabha

Choose the correct option :

[1 Mark]
  • (A) (iv), (i), (iii), (ii)
  • (B) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
  • (C) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
  • (D) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
Question 12. In which year did the largest public sector undertaking, Railways, go on a strike ?
[1 Mark]
  • (A) 1974
  • (B) 1973
  • (C) 1972
  • (D) 1971
Question 13.

Which one of the following was the decision of the Supreme Court given on 24 June, 1975 about the Indira Gandhi case ?

[1 Mark]
  • (A) Indira Gandhi was ordered to resign from her post immediately
  • (B) Indira Gandhi was granted a partial stay on the High Court order, allowing her to remain a member of the Parliament, but could not take part in the Lok Sabha proceedings.
  • (C) Indira Gandhi used the services of the government officials in her election campaign which is against the concept of ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution.
  • (D) Election of Indira Gandhi was invalid.
Question 14.

Which one of the following countries was not a founder of ASEAN ?

[1 Mark]
  • (A) Indonesia
  • (B) Singapore
  • (C) China
  • (D) Thailand
Question 15. In which city was the first Summit of the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) held
[1 Mark]
  • (A) Belgrade
  • (B) Bandung
  • (C) Tokyo
  • (D) Delhi

Section C

Question 16.

Name any four republics of the Soviet Union.

[2 Marks]
Question 17.

‘‘Globalization has been a boon for the economy of India despite the resistance shown by certain groups.’’ Support the statement.

[2 Marks]
Question 18.

Highlight any two fundamental differences between the First Five Year Plan and the Second Five Year Plan.

[2 Marks]
Question 19.

Which two reasons were given by the Government for declaring the National Emergency in 1975 ?

[2 Marks]
Question 20.

How has Information Technology been responsible in accelerating globalization across the world ? Explain with two examples.

[2 Marks]
Question 21.

Analyse any two factors responsible for the change in the nature of coalition governments at the Centre after the General Elections of 2014

[2 Marks]

Section D

Question 22.

Explain any two major concerns of Indian government regarding the reorganisation of states on the basis of language after the end of colonial rule.

[4 Marks]
Question 23.

Highlight any four effects of the shock therapy after the disintegration of the Soviet Union.

[4 Marks]
Question 24.

Analyse any two major challenges faced by the Election Commission before conducting the first General Elections in India after independence

[4 Marks]
Question 25.

“The United Nations Organisation is generally regarded as the great hope of humanity for peace and progress.” Support the statement with two arguments.

[4 Marks]
Question 26.

Suggest any four measures to make the United Nations Organisation more relevant in the current scenario.

[4 Marks]
Question 27.

Why have the global efforts to protect the environment not been as successful as desired ? Analyse the reasons.

[4 Marks]
Question 28.

Evaluate the efforts made to achieve the objectives of the Rio Declaration by the developed and developing countries.

[4 Marks]

Section E

Question 29.

Describe the sequence of events responsible for the establishment of democracy in Nepal.

[6 Marks]
Question 30.

Describe the sequence of events responsible for the end of the military government and establishment of democracy in Bangladesh.

[6 Marks]
Question 31.

Explain the efforts of the Punjab government and the Indian government to foster peace in the State of Punjab.

[6 Marks]
Question 32.

Explain the main factors responsible for the demands of autonomy by the north-eastern states in India.

[6 Marks]
Question 33.

How did the Mandal Commission recommendations prove to be an effort to solve the problems of Other Backward Classes (OBCs) ? Analyse.

[6 Marks]
Question 34.

Examine any three grounds on which the regional parties support the various coalition governments formed at the Centre in India.

[6 Marks]
Question 35.

Highlight the differences between the external and internal notions of security in the contemporary world.

[6 Marks]
Question 36.

“The non-traditional notions of security are more comprehensive than the traditional notions of security.” Support the statement with the help of suitable examples.

[6 Marks]

Paper Details

CBSE Board Exam 2026

Class

Class 12 Humanities

Subject

Political Science

Year

2026

Set

Set 2

Other Years — Political Science

2022 Set-1

2022 Set-2

2022 Set-3

2022 Set-4

2022 Set-5

2023 Set-1

2023 Set-2

2023 Set-3

2023 Set-4

2023 Set-5

2024 Set-1

2024 Set-2

2024 Set-3

2024 Set-4

2024 Set-5

2025 Set-1

2025 Set-2

2025 Set-2

2026 Set-2

2026 Set-4

2026 Set-5