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previous-year-question-paper-2024-set-5

QUESTION PAPER

2024 BOARD EXAM

CBSE CLASS 12-HUMANITIES POLITICAL SCIENCE Board Paper 2024 — Set 5

2024

POLITICAL SCIENCE

CLASS 12-HUMANITIES

CBSE EXAMINATION PAPER-2024 POLITICAL SCIENCE

CBSE EXAMINATION PAPER-2024

POLITICAL SCIENCE

(Solved)

Time allowed : 3 hours

Maximum Marks : 102

General Instructions :

Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :

  1. This question paper contains 37 questions. All questions are compulsory.
  2. This question paper is divided into 6 sections.
  3. Section A – questions number 1 to 2 are case based questions
  4. Section B – questions number 3 to 7 are very short answer
  5. Section C – questions number 8 to 16 are multiple choice questions
  6. Section D – questions number 17 to 22 are short answer
  7. Section E – questions number 23 to 29 are long answer type i
  8. Section F – questions number 30 to 37 are long answer type ii
  9. There is no overall choice given in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions.
  10. Use of calculator is NOT allowed.

Section A

Question 1.

Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:

The interim government took a firm stance against the possible division of India into small principalities of different sizes. The Muslim League opposed the Indian National Congress and took the view that the States should be free to adopt any course they liked. Sardar Patel played a historic role in negotiating with the rulers of princely states firmly but diplomatically and bringing most of them into the Indian Union.

(1)

Which principle was followed for the division of British India at the time of partition in 1947?

(A) Principle of administrative control

(B) Principle of ethnic composition

(C) Principle of religious majorities

(D) Principle of equality

[1 Marks]

(2)

How many princely states were there in British India at the time of independence?

(A) 556

(B) 566

(C) 655

(D) 565

[1 Marks]

(3)

Who was the first Deputy Prime Minister of free India?

(A) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

(B) Sardar Patel

(C) V.K. Menon

(D) Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan

[1 Marks]

(4)

Which of the following statements about the princely states is NOT correct?

(A) The Indian government was ready to give autonomy to some regions.

(B) The ruler of Junagadh had decided to be part of independent India.

(C) Princely states covered one third of the land area of British Indian empire.

(D) Some of the princely states clearly wanted to become part of the Indian Union.

[1 Marks]
Question 2. The given cartoon is related to Israel’s attack on Lebanon in June 2006. Study the cartoon carefully and answer the questions given below.

(1) Identify and name the organisation whose four logos are shown in the cartoon.

[1 Marks]

(2) Identify and name the person shown in the cartoon.

[1 Marks]

(3) Why did Israel attack Lebanon?

[2 Marks]

(4)

Write full form of UNICEF.

[1 Marks]

(5)

How many states signed the United Nations Charter ?

[1 Marks]

(6)

Which organisation became the successor of League of Nations ?

[1 Marks]

(7)

Which U.N. agency is concerned with the safety and peaceful use of nuclear technology ?

[1 Marks]

Section B

Question 3. Explain any two outcomes of the ‘Earth Summit’ held in June 1992 at Rio-de-Janeiro.
[1 Marks]
Question 4. Analyse any two reasons why issues of environment and natural resources have become a part of World Politics.
[1 Marks]
Question 5. Explain any two complaints related to the U.N. Security Council reflected in the resolution passed by the U.N. General Assembly in 1992.
[1 Marks]
Question 6. Explain any two reasons to consider the year 1967 as a landmark year in India’s political and electoral history.
[1 Marks]
Question 7. Mention any two provisions of the Punjab Accord signed by Rajiv Gandhi and Harchand Singh Longowal in 1985.
[1 Marks]

Section C

Question 8.

Arrange the following events in chronological order and choose the correct option as answer:

(i) Indo-Russian Strategic Agreement

(ii) The Soviet invasion of Afghanistan

(iii) Disintegration of the Soviet Union

(iv) Socialist Revolution in Russia

[1 Marks]
  • (A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
  • (B) (ii), (iv), (iii), (i)
  • (C) (iv), (ii), (iii), (i)
  • (D) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
Question 9. Which one of the following was formed for the planned development of India, just after independence?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Planning Commission
  • (B) Election Commission
  • (C) Shah Commission
  • (D) NITI Aayog
Question 10. Which one of the following Princely States of India initially opposed joining the Indian Union?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Baroda
  • (B) Hyderabad
  • (C) Mysore
  • (D) Gwalior
Question 11.

Assertion (A) : People started protesting against the increase in prices of essential commodities, food scarcity and growing unemployment before the fourth General elections in India.

Reason (R) : Failure of monsoons, widespread drought, decline in agricultural production and serious food shortage caused the problem.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Both the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are correct and the Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (B) ) Both the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are correct, but the Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (C) The Assertion (A) is incorrect, but the Reason (R) is correct.
  • (D) The Assertion (A) is correct, but the Reason (R) is incorrect.
Question 12.

Which one of the following developing countries was the first to successfully control the rate of growth of population ?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) India
  • (B) Sri Lanka
  • (C) Nepal
  • (D) Pakistan
Question 13.

Planning Commission of India was replaced with NITI Aayog because

[1 Marks]
  • (A) many states were not in favour of Planning Commission.
  • (B) it had become very old.
  • (C) it was becoming irrelevant to face the new challenges of development.
  • (D) it was totally based on Socialist model.
Question 14.

After the death of Lal Bahadur Shastri, there was an intense competition for the post of Prime Minister between Indira Gandhi and which one of the following ?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Morarji Desai
  • (B) S. Nijalingappa
  • (C) K. Kamraj
  • (D) V.V. Giri
Question 15.

Which event marked the end of Communism in the Soviet Union ?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Rise of New World Order
  • (B) Disintegration of the Soviet Union
  • (C) Cuban Missile Crisis
  • (D) Rise in US economy
Question 16.

Name the state from which Chhattisgarh was carved out.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Madhya Pradesh
  • (B) Jharkhand
  • (C) Uttar Pradesh
  • (D) Bihar

Section D

Question 17. Explain any two outcomes of the ‘Earth Summit’ held in June 1992 at Rio-de-Janeiro.
[2 Marks]
Question 18. Analyse any two reasons as to why issues of environment and natural resources have become a part of World Politics.
[2 Marks]
Question 19. Explain any two complaints related to the U.N. Security Council reflected in the resolution passed by the U.N. General Assembly in 1992.
[2 Marks]
Question 20. Explain any two reasons to consider the year 1967 as a landmark year in India’s political and electoral history.
[2 Marks]
Question 21. Mention any two provisions of the Punjab Accord signed by Rajiv Gandhi and Harchand Singh Longowal in 1985.
[2 Marks]
Question 22. Explain any two advantages of Coalition governments.
[2 Marks]

Section E

Question 23. Explain any four consequences of Globalisation.
[4 Marks]
Question 24.

'After the disintegration of the Soviet Union, India has maintained good relations with all the new independent countries, but the most cordial relations are still there between Russia and India.' Justify the statement with two examples.

[4 Marks]
Question 25.

During Cold War period the US economy was more developed than the rest of the world. Still the Soviet system had some special features which distinguish it from the US. Evaluate any two such features.

[4 Marks]
Question 26. Explain any two main challenges faced by Pakistan in establishing a successful democracy.
[4 Marks]
Question 27.

“SAARC has taken a major regional initiative in South Asian States to evolve co-operation through multilateral means.” Justify the statement with two examples.

[4 Marks]
Question 28. Describe any four circumstances that led to protests against the Congress Government during 1974-1975.
[4 Marks]
Question 29. Describe the events that took place in Sikkim from the time of India’s independence to its merger with India.
[4 Marks]

Section F

Question 30. Explain any three reasons for spending more on traditional security than on non-traditional security by India.
[6 Marks]
Question 31. Explain any three new sources of threat to security with examples.
[6 Marks]
Question 32. While the Chinese economy has improved dramatically, why has everyone in China not received the benefits of the reforms? State any three reasons.
[6 Marks]
Question 33. Describe the process of evolution of the European Union from an Economic Union to an increasingly Political one.
[6 Marks]
Question 34. Explain any three major developments that took place in Indian politics during the last decade of the 20th century.
[6 Marks]
Question 35. In the midst of severe competition and many conflicts after 1989, a consensus appeared to have emerged among most parties. Explain any three points of consensus.
[6 Marks]
Question 36. The foreign policy of independent India has pursued the dream of a peaceful world. Support the statement with any three suitable arguments.
[6 Marks]
Question 37. India was a staunch supporter of the decolonization process and firmly opposed racism. Support the statement with any three suitable arguments.
[6 Marks]

Paper Details

CBSE Board Exam 2024

Class

CLASS 12-HUMANITIES

Subject

POLITICAL SCIENCE

Year

2024

Set

Set 5

Other Years — POLITICAL SCIENCE

2022 Set-1

2022 Set-2

2022 Set-3

2022 Set-4

2022 Set-5

2023 Set-1

2023 Set-2

2023 Set-3

2023 Set-4

2023 Set-5

2024 Set-1

2024 Set-2

2024 Set-3

2024 Set-4

2024 Set-5

2025 Set-1

2025 Set-2

2025 Set-2