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previous-year-question-paper-2023-set-2

QUESTION PAPER

2023 BOARD EXAM

CBSE CLASS 12-HUMANITIES POLITICAL SCIENCE Board Paper 2023 — Set 2

2023

POLITICAL SCIENCE

CLASS 12-HUMANITIES

CBSE EXAMINATION PAPER-2023 POLITICAL SCIENCE

CBSE EXAMINATION PAPER-2023

POLITICAL SCIENCE

(Solved)

Time allowed : 3 hours

Maximum Marks : 93

General Instructions :

Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :

  1. This question paper contains 38 questions. All questions are compulsory.
  2. This question paper is divided into 6 sections.
  3. Section A – questions number 1 to 1 are case based questions
  4. Section B – questions number 2 to 13 are multiple choice questions
  5. Section C – questions number 14 to 20 are very short answer
  6. Section D – questions number 21 to 26 are short answer
  7. Section E – questions number 27 to 31 are long answer type i
  8. Section F – questions number 32 to 38 are long answer type ii
  9. There is no overall choice given in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions.
  10. Use of calculator is NOT allowed.

Section A

Question 1.

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:

India conducted a series of nuclear tests demonstrating its capacity to use nuclear energy for military purposes. After this, Pakistan also conducted tests. International Community imposed sanctions on both India and Pakistan which were subsequently waived. India opposed the international treaties aimed at non-proliferation.

(1)

Identify the treaty that India refused to sign.

(a) Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty

(b) Shimla Agreement

(c) Panchsheel Agreement

(d) Indus waters Treaty

[1 Marks]

(2)

In which year did India conduct a series of nuclear tests?

(a) 1971

(b) 1985

(c) 1992

(d) 1998

[1 Marks]

(3)

Under whose guidance did India initiate its nuclear programme?

(a) C.V. Raman

(b) Homi J. Bhabha

(c) A.P.J.Abdul Kalam

(d) K. Kasturirangan

[1 Marks]

(4)

In the beginning, India wanted to generate nuclear energy for

(a) peaceful purpose.

(b) making atomic bombs.

(c) competing with the super powers.

(d) ensuring its security.

[1 Marks]

Section B

Question 2. Which one of the following countries was NOT a part of the Soviet Union?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Ukraine
  • (B) Georgia
  • (C) Italy
  • (D) Estonia
Question 3. On 19th March 2003, the US launched its invasion of Iraq under the code name.
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Operation Iraqi Freedom
  • (B) Operation Desert Storm
  • (C) Operation Enduring Freedom
  • (D) Operation Infinite Reach
Question 4. The main objective of United Nations is to
[1 Marks]
  • (A) prevent manufacture of war weapons.
  • (B) prevent industrialisation.
  • (C) prevent international conflicts.
  • (D) prevent spread of refugees.
Question 5. Which one of the following is a concern under Traditional Security?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Attack by a neighbouring country
  • (B) Spread of any pandemic disease
  • (C) Global warming
  • (D) Spread of terrorism
Question 6. Which of the following resources is NOT a global common?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Antarctica
  • (B) Ocean floor
  • (C) Outer space
  • (D) Forests
Question 7. Which of the following statements is TRUE about globalisation?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Globalisation is westernisation.
  • (B) Globalisation is industrialisation.
  • (C) Globalisation is economic growth.
  • (D) Globalisation is a multidimensional phenomenon.
Question 8. Who advanced the 'Two Nation Theory' that led to the partition of British India?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Abdul Gaffar Khan
  • (B) Muslim League
  • (C) British Government
  • (D) Congress Party
Question 9. Planning Commission was set up by .
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Constitution of India
  • (B) President of India
  • (C) A resolution of Government of India
  • (D) The Constituent Assembly
Question 10.

Assertion (A) : In 1969 the Congress Party faced a split.

Reason (R) : Factional rivalry existed between the Congress Syndicate and Indira Gandhi.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason of (A).
  • (B) (A) is wrong, but (R) is true.
  • (C) (A) is true, but (R) is wrong.
  • (D) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct reason of (A).
Question 11. Who among the following had announced a nationwide satyagraha on 25th June, 1975 for the resignation of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Morarji Desai
  • (B) George Fernandes
  • (C) Jayaprakash Narain
  • (D) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
Question 12.

Arrange the following in chronological order:

(i) Implementation of recommendations of Mandal Commission.

(ii) Appointment of Manmohan Singh as Prime Minister for the first time.

(iii) Signing of the Punjab Accord with Longowal.

(iv) Appointment of Rajiv Gandhi as Prime Minister. Choose the correct option.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) (iv), (i), (ii), (iii)
  • (B) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
  • (C) (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)
  • (D) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
Question 13. Who among the following introduced a policy of reservations for OBCs for the first time?
[1 Marks]
  • (A) Karpoori Thakur
  • (B) B.P. Mandal
  • (C) Indira Gandhi
  • (D) Mayawati

Section C

Question 14.

Which country was not a part of the Soviet Union?

[1 Marks]
Question 15.

What was the code name of the 2003 US invasion of Iraq?

[1 Marks]
Question 16.

What is the main objective of the United Nations?

[1 Marks]
Question 17.

Which of the following is not a global common: Antarctica, Ocean floor, Outer space, or Forests?

[1 Marks]
Question 18.

Who advanced the Two Nation Theory?

[1 Marks]
Question 19.

Name any one programme launched after 2014 for women's progress.

[1 Marks]
Question 20.

Who among the following remained Prime Minister of India for less than a year?

[1 Marks]

Section D

Question 21. Explain the notion of traditional security.
[2 Marks]
Question 22. Name any four agencies of the United Nations.
[2 Marks]
Question 23. Highlight the speciality of India — Nepal relations.
[2 Marks]
Question 24. State any two programmes launched by the NDA government after 2014 for women’s help and progress.
[2 Marks]
Question 25. Identify and name any two Prime Ministers of India who remained in power for less than a year.
[2 Marks]
Question 26. Identify any two states where the Central Government had to face separatist movements. Also name the leaders who led these movements.
[2 Marks]

Section E

Question 27. Suggest any two measures to deal with threats to the traditional security.
[4 Marks]
Question 28. Globalisation is the outcome of developed technology. Support the statement with two examples.
[4 Marks]
Question 29. Development mostly causes degradation of environment. Justify the statement referring to two environmental movements.
[4 Marks]
Question 30. Evaluate the relationship between India and Pakistan with the help of examples.
[4 Marks]
Question 31. Explain any four effects of the Emergency declared in 1975.
[4 Marks]

Section F

Question 32.

Analyse any three happenings during Gorbachev’s period that led to the disintegration of the Soviet Union.

[6 Marks]
Question 33.

Analyse any three consequences of the disintegration of USSR.

[6 Marks]
Question 34.

Highlight any three features of the First Five Year Plan.

[6 Marks]
Question 35.

Highlight any three problems faced by Government of India immediately after independence related to the displaced population.

[6 Marks]
Question 36.

Assess any three effects of Emergency imposed in 1975 in strengthening the democracy in India.

[6 Marks]
Question 37.

Assess the impact of three democratic upsurges in post independent India.

[6 Marks]
Question 38.

Analyse any three major happenings in Bangladesh that show peoples’ support to democracy.

[6 Marks]

Paper Details

CBSE Board Exam 2023

Class

CLASS 12-HUMANITIES

Subject

POLITICAL SCIENCE

Year

2023

Set

Set 2

Other Years — POLITICAL SCIENCE

2022 Set-1

2022 Set-2

2022 Set-3

2022 Set-4

2022 Set-5

2023 Set-1

2023 Set-2

2023 Set-3

2023 Set-4

2023 Set-5

2024 Set-1

2024 Set-2

2024 Set-3

2024 Set-4

2024 Set-5

2025 Set-1

2025 Set-2

2025 Set-2