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previous-year-question-paper-2025-set-2

SOLUTIONS

2025 BOARD EXAM

CBSE CLASS 12-PCM CHEMISTRY Board Paper 2025 — Set 2

2025

CHEMISTRY

CLASS 12-PCM

CBSE EXAMINATION SOLVED PAPER-2025 CHEMISTRY

CBSE EXAMINATION PAPER-2025

CHEMISTRY

(Solved)

Time allowed : 3 hours

Maximum Marks : 55

General Instructions :

Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :

  1. This question paper contains 30 questions. All questions are compulsory.
  2. This question paper is divided into 5 sections.
  3. Section A – questions number 1 to 2 are case based questions
  4. Section B – questions number 3 to 17 are multiple choice questions
  5. Section C – questions number 18 to 22 are very short answer
  6. Section D – questions number 23 to 27 are short answer
  7. Section E – questions number 28 to 30 are long answer
  8. There is no overall choice given in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions.
  9. Use of calculator is NOT allowed.

Section A

Question 1. The spontaneous flow of the solvent through a semipermeable membrane from a pure solvent to a solution or from a dilute solution to a concentrated solution is called osmosis. The phenomenon of osmosis can be demonstrated by taking two eggs of the same size. In an egg, the membrane below the shell and around the egg material is semipermeable. The outer hard shell can be removed by putting the egg in dilute hydrochloric acid. After removing the hard shell, one egg is placed in distilled water and the other in a saturated salt solution. After some time, the egg placed in distilled water swells-up while the egg placed in salt solution shrinks. The external pressure applied to stop the osmosis is termed as osmotic pressure (a colligative property). Reverse osmosis takes place when the applied external pressure becomes larger than the osmotic pressure.
Question 2.

The spontaneous flow of the solvent through a semipermeable membrane from a pure solvent to a solution or from a dilute solution to a concentrated solution is called osmosis. The phenomenon of osmosis can be demonstrated by taking two eggs of the same size. In an egg, the membrane below the shell and around the egg material is semipermeable. The outer hard shell can be removed by putting the egg in dilute hydrochloric acid. After removing the hard shell, one egg is placed in distilled water and the other in a saturated salt solution. After some time, the egg placed in distilled water swells-up while the egg placed in salt solution shrinks. The external pressure applied to stop the osmosis is termed as osmotic pressure (a colligative property). Reverse osmosis takes place when the applied external pressure becomes larger than the osmotic pressure.

(1)

Define reverse osmosis. Name one SPM which can be used in the process of reverse osmosis .

[2 Marks]
Answer: Reverse osmosis is the process in which external pressure greater than osmotic pressure is applied to a solution, causing the solvent to flow from the concentrated solution to the pure solvent side through a semipermeable membrane. This is opposite to natural osmosis where solvent flows from dilute to concentrated solution. A common semipermeable membrane (SPM) used in this process is a thin film composite membrane. Reverse osmosis is used in water purification and desalination, as explained in the case passage.
Key Points: Reverse osmosis is solvent flow from concentrated to pure solvent on applying pressure higher than osmotic pressure - It is opposite to natural osmosis - Thin film composite membrane is used as SPM in reverse osmosis

(2)

Which one of the following will have higher osmotic pressure in1 M KCI or 1 M urea solution. Justify your answer.

[1 Marks]
Answer: 1 M KCl solution will have higher osmotic pressure than 1 M urea solution because KCl is an electrolyte and dissociates into two ions K+ and Cl- increasing the number of solute particles. Urea does not dissociate and has fewer particles. As osmotic pressure depends on the number of solute particles (colligative property), KCl solution has higher osmotic pressure.
Key Points: Osmotic pressure depends on number of solute particles - KCl dissociates into ions increasing particle number - Urea does not dissociate so fewer particles - Higher particle concentration means higher osmotic pressure

(3)

What do you expect to happen when red blood corpuscles (RBC's) are placed in 0.5% NaCl solution ?

[1 Marks]
Answer: Answer: When RBCs are placed in 0.5% NaCl solution, which is less than the normal 0.9% salt concentration of blood, water moves into the cells by osmosis causing them to swell. This happens because the solution is hypotonic compared to the inside of RBCs, as explained in the case where solvent flows from dilute to concentrated solutions through a semipermeable membrane.
Key Points: RBCs in 0.5% NaCl - solution is hypotonic - water enters RBCs by osmosis - RBCs swell

(4)

Why osmotic pressure is a colligative property ?

[1 Marks]
Answer: Osmotic pressure is a colligative property because it depends on the number of solute particles in the solution and not on their identity.
This means osmotic pressure increases with solute concentration, as explained in the case of eggs swelling or shrinking due to osmosis.
It is one of the properties like lowering of vapour pressure, elevation of boiling point, and depression of freezing point that depend only on solute quantity, not type.
Key Points: Depends on number of solute particles - Independent of solute identity - Related to concentration of solution

Section B

Question 3.

The charge required for the reduction of 1 mol of Mn0⁻₄ to Mn0₂ is

[1 Marks]
  • (A) 5F
  • (B) 3F
  • (C) 1F
  • (D) 6F
Explanation:

The correct answer is 3F. The reduction of MnO₄⁻ to MnO₂ involves a change in the oxidation state of manganese from +7 in MnO₄⁻ to +4 in MnO₂, requiring the transfer of 3 electrons per Mn atom. This means that for one mole of MnO₄⁻, 3 moles of electrons are needed. Since 1 mole of electrons corresponds to one Faraday (F), the total charge required for the reduction of 1 mole of MnO₄⁻ to MnO₂ is 3F.

Question 4.

Which among the following is false statement?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Half-life of a zero order reaction is inversely proportional to the rate constant.
  • (B) Molecularity of a reaction may be zero.
  • (C) Rate of zero order reaction is independent of initial concentration of reactant.
  • (D) For a first order reaction, t₁/₂ = 0.693/k
Explanation:

The false statement is 'Molecularity of a reaction may be zero.' This is incorrect because molecularity refers to the number of reactant molecules involved in an elementary reaction, and it is always a positive integer (1 for unimolecular, 2 for bimolecular, etc.). It can never be zero, as that would imply that the reaction occurs without any reactant molecules, which is not possible in chemical reactions.

Question 5.

The number of molecules that react with each other in an elementary reaction is a measure of the:

[1 Marks]
  • (A) stoichiometry of the reaction
  • (B) order of the reaction
  • (C) activation energy of the reaction
  • (D) molecularity of the reaction
Explanation:

The correct answer is 'molecularity of the reaction' because molecularity refers to the number of reacting species (atoms, ions, or molecules) that must collide simultaneously to initiate a chemical reaction, which is specifically defined for elementary reactions.

Question 6.

The element having [Ar]3d¹⁰4s¹ electronic configuration is:

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Zn
  • (B) Cr
  • (C) Cu
  • (D) Mn
Explanation: The correct option is Cu (Copper). The electronic configuration of Copper is [Ar] 3d¹⁰ 4s¹, which matches the given configuration. This is because Copper has one electron in the 4s orbital and a completely filled 3d orbital, making it unique among the transition metals listed.
Question 7.

The complex ions [Co(NH₃)₅(NO₂)]²⁺ and [Co(NH₃)₅(ONO)]²⁺ are called:

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Geometrical isomers
  • (B) Linkage isomers
  • (C) Co-ordination isomers
  • (D) Ionization isomers
Explanation:

The correct option is 'Linkage isomers' because the two complex ions differ in how the nitrite ligand (NO₂) coordinates to the cobalt ion; it can bind either through the nitrogen atom or the oxygen atom, resulting in different linkage in the coordination complex.

Question 8.

Which is the correct IUPAC name for

[1 Marks]
  • (A) 1-Chloro-4-Methylbenzene
  • (B) 1-Methyl-4-Chlorobenzene
  • (C) Methylchlorobenzene
  • (D) Toluene
Explanation:

The correct IUPAC name is 1-Chloro-4-Methylbenzene. This name indicates that there is a chlorine atom (−Cl) attached to the benzene ring at position 1 and a methyl group (−CH₃) attached at position 4. This naming aligns with IUPAC rules, where substituents are numbered to give the lowest locants, and alphabetical order is used to determine the priority when both substituents are at equal positions. Hence, "chloro" comes before "methyl" in the name.

Question 9.

What will be formed after oxidation reaction of secondary alcohol with chromic anhydride (CrO₃)?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Aldehyde
  • (B) Ketone
  • (C) Carboxylic acid
  • (D) Ester
Explanation:

The correct answer is 'Ketone' because secondary alcohols are oxidized to ketones when treated with chromic anhydride (CrO₃), as indicated in the provided context.

Question 10.

The conversion of phenol to salicylic acid can be accomplished by:

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Kolbe reaction
  • (B) Friedel-Crafts reaction
  • (C) Coupling reaction
  • (D) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
Explanation:

The correct answer is Kolbe's reaction.In this reaction, phenol is first treated with sodium hydroxide (NaOH) to form sodium phenoxide, which is then heated with carbon dioxide (CO₂) under pressure (around 125°C and 6–7 atm). This introduces a –COOH group at the ortho position of the aromatic ring, forming sodium salicylate, which upon acidification gives salicylic acid.

Question 11.

Which of the following is/are examples of denaturation of protein?

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Clotting of blood
  • (B) Coagulation of egg white
  • (C) Both Curdling of milk and Coagulation of egg white
  • (D) Curdling of milk
Explanation:

The correct options are Curdling of milk and Coagulation of egg white, which are examples of denaturation of proteins as explained in the context. Denaturation occurs when proteins lose their secondary and tertiary structures due to changes in temperature or pH, while the primary structure remains intact. The context specifically mentions curdling of milk due to lactic acid from bacteria and coagulation of egg white upon boiling as common examples.

Question 12.

Nucleotides are joined together by:

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Peptide linkage
  • (B) Hydrogen bonding
  • (C) Glycosidic linkage
  • (D) Phosphodiester linkage
Explanation:

The correct answer is 'Phosphodiester linkage' because nucleotides are linked together via phosphodiester bonds that form between the 5' and 3' carbon atoms of the pentose sugar in the nucleotide structure. This linkage is essential in forming the backbone of nucleic acids such as DNA and RNA.

Question 13.

Scurvy is caused due to deficiency of:

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Vitamin B₁
  • (B) Vitamin B₂
  • (C) Glutamic acid
  • (D) Ascorbic acid
Explanation:

Scurvy is caused by a deficiency of Vitamin C, also known as Ascorbic acid, which is highlighted in the context as leading to bleeding gums. The other options listed do not cause Scurvy.

Question 14.

Assertion (A) : In a first order reaction, if the concentration of the reactant is doubled, its half-life is also doubled.

Reason (R) : The half-life of a reaction does not depend upon the initial concentration of the reactant in a first order reaction.


[1 Marks]
  • (A) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (C) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true
Explanation:

Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true. The half-life of a first order reaction is independent of the initial concentration of the reactant, meaning that doubling the concentration does not affect the half-life.

Question 15.

Assertion (A) : In a first order reaction, if the concentration of the reactant is doubled, its half-life is also doubled

Reason (R) : The half-life of a reaction does not depend upon the initial concentration of the reactant in a first order reaction.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false
  • (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true
Explanation:

Assertion (A) is false, because in a first order reaction, the half-life is constant and does not change with the concentration of the reactant; it is independent of initial concentration. Reason (R) is true, as it accurately describes that the half-life for first order reactions remains the same regardless of changes in reactant concentration.

Question 16.

Assertion (A) : Aromatic primary amines cannot be prepared by Gabriel Phthalimide synthesis.

Reason (R) : Aryl halides do not undergo nucleophilic substitution reaction with the anion formed by phthalimide.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (B) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true
  • (C) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (D) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
Explanation:

Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A). Aromatic primary amines cannot be synthesized through the Gabriel Phthalimide method because aryl halides do not react with the nucleophilic anion derived from phthalimide, thereby confirming Assertion (A) with Reason (R).

Question 17.

Assertion (A) : Vitamin D cannot be stored in our body.

Reason (R) : Vitamin D is fat soluble vitamin and is not excreted from the body in urine.

[1 Marks]
  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true
  • (D) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
Explanation:

Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true. Vitamin D is a fat-soluble vitamin, meaning it can actually be stored in the body, primarily in the liver and adipose tissues, which contradicts Assertion (A). Reason (R) is true as fat-soluble vitamins are not readily excreted in urine, but it does not support the incorrect assertion.

Section C

Question 18.

The rate constant for a zero order reaction A→ P is 0.0030 mol L⁻¹s⁻¹. How long will it take for the initial concentration of A to fall from 0.10 M to 0.075 M ?       

[2 Marks]
Answer: For a zero order reaction, the rate law is given by: Rate = k = - d[A]/dt.
The integrated rate law for zero order reaction is: [A] = [A]0 - kt.
Given:
Initial concentration, [A]0 = 0.10 M
Final concentration, [A] = 0.075 M
Rate constant, k = 0.0030 mol L⁻¹ s⁻¹
Substitute values in the equation: 0.075 = 0.10 - 0.0030 * t
0.10 - 0.075 = 0.0030 * t
0.025 = 0.0030 * t
t = 0.025 / 0.0030 = 8.33 seconds.
Therefore, it will take 8.33 seconds for the concentration of A to fall from 0.10 M to 0.075 M.
Question 19.

The decomposition of NH₃ on platinum surface is zero order reaction. what are the rates of production of N₂ and H₂ if k = 2.5 x 10⁻⁴ mol L⁻¹ s⁻¹ ?

[2 Marks]
Answer: Given: The decomposition of NH₃ is a zero order reaction with rate constant k = 2.5 x 10⁻⁴ mol L⁻¹ s⁻¹.
Step 1: Write the balanced reaction: 2 NH₃ → N₂ + 3 H₂.
Step 2: Rate of reaction (r) = k since it is zero order.
Step 3: The rate of disappearance of NH₃ = k = 2.5 x 10⁻⁴ mol L⁻¹ s⁻¹.
Step 4: Using stoichiometry, rate of production of N₂ = (1/2) * rate of NH₃ = (1/2)* 2.5 x 10⁻⁴ = 1.25 x 10⁻⁴ mol L⁻¹ s⁻¹.
Step 5: Rate of production of H₂ = (3/2) * rate of NH₃ = (3/2)* 2.5 x 10⁻⁴ = 3.75 x 10⁻⁴ mol L⁻¹ s⁻¹.
Answer: Rate of formation of N₂ is 1.25 x 10⁻⁴ mol L⁻¹ s⁻¹ and rate of formation of H₂ is 3.75 x 10⁻⁴ mol L⁻¹ s⁻¹.
Question 20.

Define the following terms :

(a) Pseudo first order reaction

(b) Half-life period of reaction(t½)

[2 Marks]
Answer: (a) Pseudo first order reaction: It is a reaction that is actually of higher order but appears to be first order because the concentration of one or more reactants is kept constant and in large excess.
(b) Half-life period of reaction (t½): It is the time required for the concentration of a reactant to decrease to half of its initial value during the reaction.
Question 21.

Examine the following observations :

(a) Transition elements generally form coloured compounds.

(b) Zinc is not regarded as a transition element.

[2 Marks]
Answer: (a) Transition elements form coloured compounds because they have incompletely filled d orbitals, which allow d-d electronic transitions that absorb visible light and produce colours.
(b) Zinc is not a transition element because its 3d orbitals are fully filled (3d10) in both ground and common oxidation states. Since it does not have partially filled d orbitals, it does not exhibit typical properties of transition elements such as variable oxidation states and coloured compounds.
Question 22.

Name the following coordination compounds according to IUPAC norms :

(a) [Co(NH₃)₄(H₂O)Cl]Cl₂

(b) [CrC1₂(en)₂ ] Cl

[2 Marks]
Answer: (a) The complex ion is [Co(NH₃)₄(H₂O)Cl]2+ with two chloride ions as counter ions. The ligands are named in alphabetical order: ammine, aqua, chloro. The metal is cobalt with oxidation state +3. Hence, the name is tetraammineaquachloridocobalt(III) chloride.
(b) The complex ion is [CrCl₂(en)₂]+ with one chloride ion as counter ion. The ligands are ethane-1,2-diamine abbreviated as en and chloro. Alphabetically, chloro comes before ethane-1,2-diamine. The oxidation state of chromium is +3. So, the name is dichloridobis(ethane-1,2-diamine)chromium(III) chloride.

Section D

Question 23.

At 25 ⁰C the saturated vapour pressure of water is 24 mm Hg. Find the saturated vapour pressure of a 5% aqueous solution of urea at the same temperature. (Molar mass of urea = 60 g mol⁻¹)

[3 Marks]
Answer: Given: Mass of urea = 5 g in 100 g solution (5% solution), mass of water = 95 g, molar mass of urea = 60 g/mol, vapour pressure of pure water at 25 deg C = 24 mm Hg.
Step 1: Calculate moles of urea = 5 / 60 = 0.0833 mol
Step 2: Calculate moles of water = 95 / 18 = 5.28 mol
Step 3: Calculate mole fraction of water, Xwater = moles of water / (moles of water + moles of urea) = 5.28 / (5.28 + 0.0833) = 0.9845
Step 4: Use Raoult's law: vapour pressure of solution = Xwater * vapour pressure of pure water = 0.9845 * 24 = 23.63 mm Hg
Answer: The saturated vapour pressure of 5% aqueous urea solution at 25 deg C is approximately 23.63 mm Hg.
Question 24.

The electrical resistance of a column of 0.05 M NaOH solution of area 0.8 cm² and length 40 cm is 5 x 10³ ohm. Calculate its resistivity, conductivity and molar conductivity.    

[3 Marks]
Answer: Given data: Concentration, c = 0.05 mol L-1, Area, A = 0.8 cm2 = 0.8 * 10-4 m2, Length, l = 40 cm = 0.4 m, Resistance, R = 5 x 103 ohm.

(a) Resistivity (\rho):
Resistivity \rho = R * A / l = (5 x 103) * (0.8 * 10-4) / 0.4 = 1 ohm m.

(b) Conductivity (\kappa):
Conductivity \kappa = 1 / \rho = 1 / 1 = 1 S m-1.

(c) Molar conductivity (\Lambdam):
First, convert concentration to mol/m3: c = 0.05 mol L-1 = 0.05 * 1000 = 50 mol m-3.
Molar conductivity \Lambdam = \kappa / c = 1 / 50 = 0.02 S m2 mol-1 = 20 S cm2 mol-1 (since 1 m2 = 104 cm2).

Summary:
Resistivity = 1 ohm m, Conductivity = 1 S m-1, Molar conductivity = 20 S cm2 mol-1.
Question 25.

Using valence bond theory, explain the hybridization and magnetic character of the following :       

(a) [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺

(b) [Ni(CO)₄]    

[At. no. : Co = 27, Ni = 28]

[3 Marks]
Answer: (a) In [Co(NH₃)₆]⁳⁺, Co is in +3 oxidation state with 3d⁶ configuration. NH₃ is a strong field ligand causing pairing of electrons. The electronic configuration becomes (t₂g)⁶(eg)⁰. Hybridization involves two 3d, one 4s and three 4p orbitals forming dₒsp³ hybrid orbitals resulting in an octahedral shape. It is diamagnetic due to all electrons paired.
(b) In [Ni(CO)₄], Ni is in 0 oxidation state with 3d₈ 4s₂ electronic configuration. CO is a strong field ligand leading to pairing of electrons. Hybridization occurs involving one 3d, one 4s and two 4p orbitals resulting in dsp² hybridization giving a square planar geometry. It is diamagnetic because all electrons are paired.
Question 26.

(a) Define the following :    

(i)   Enantiomers

(ii)  Racemic mixture

(b) Why is chlorobenzene resistant to nucleophilic substitution reaction ?

[3 Marks]
Answer: (a)(i) Enantiomers are a pair of molecules that are non-superimposable mirror images of each other, having chiral centres and identical physical properties except for the direction in which they rotate plane-polarised light.
(a)(ii) A racemic mixture is an equimolar mixture of two enantiomers of a chiral compound which shows no optical activity because the rotations caused by each enantiomer cancel each other.
(b) Chlorobenzene is resistant to nucleophilic substitution because the lone pair of electrons on chlorine delocalises into the benzene ring through resonance, making the C-Cl bond stronger and less reactive. Also, the aromatic ring is electron-rich, repelling nucleophiles and stabilising the molecule, thus hindering the attack of nucleophiles and making nucleophilic substitution difficult.
Question 27.

Define the following terms :        

(a) Glycosidic linkage

(b) Invert sugar

(c) Oligosaccharides

[3 Marks]
Answer: (a) Glycosidic linkage is a type of covalent bond that connects two monosaccharide units in a carbohydrate molecule. It forms when the hydroxyl group (-OH) of one sugar reacts with the anomeric carbon of another sugar, resulting in the loss of a water molecule (condensation reaction). This bond is important in forming disaccharides and polysaccharides.
(b) Invert sugar is a mixture of glucose and fructose obtained by the hydrolysis of sucrose. When sucrose is treated with acid or enzyme invertase, it breaks down into equal parts of glucose and fructose. This sugar mixture is called invert sugar because it inverts the direction of rotation of plane-polarized light from dextrorotatory (sucrose) to levorotatory (invert sugar).
(c) Oligosaccharides are carbohydrates composed of 2 to 10 monosaccharide units linked together by glycosidic linkages. They are intermediate in size between monosaccharides and polysaccharides and are commonly found on the surface of cells, playing important roles in cell recognition and signaling.

Section E

Question 28.

(a) Give the IUPAC name of CH₃−CH=CH−CHO.

(b) Give a simple chemical test to distinguish between propanal and propanone.

(c) How will you convert the following :

(i) Toluene to benzoic acid

(ii) Ethanol to propan—2—ol

(iii) Propanal to 2—hydroxy propanoic acid

[5 Marks]
Answer: (a) The given compound is CH3-CH=CH-CHO. The longest chain containing the aldehyde group (–CHO) has three carbon atoms. The double bond is between carbon 2 and carbon 3. Therefore, the IUPAC name is prop-2-enal or acrolein.
(b) To distinguish between propanal and propanone, perform the Tollen's test. Aldehydes like propanal react with Tollen's reagent to give a silver mirror on the inner surface of the test tube, while ketones like propanone do not give this test.
(c) (i) Toluene to benzoic acid: Oxidize toluene using KMnO4 in alkaline medium with heat. The methyl group is oxidized to the carboxylic acid group, forming benzoic acid.
(ii) Ethanol to propan-2-ol: First convert ethanol to bromoethane using PBr3, then carry out a Grignard reaction with formaldehyde followed by acidic hydrolysis to get propan-2-ol.
(iii) Propanal to 2-hydroxy propanoic acid: React propanal with HCN to form cyanohydrin, then hydrolyze the nitrile group (-CN) using dilute acid to get 2-hydroxy propanoic acid (lactic acid).
Question 29.

An organic compound 'A', molecular formula C₂H₆0 oxidises with Cr0₃ to form a compound 'B'. Compound 'B' on warming with iodine and aqueous solution of NaOH gives a yellow precipitate of compound 'C'. When compound 'A' is heated with conc. H₂S0₄ at 413 K gives a compound 'D', which on reaction with excess HI gives compound 'E'. Identify compounds 'A', 'B', 'C', 'D' and 'E' and write chemical equations involved.

[5 Marks]
Answer: Answer:
(a) Compound A with molecular formula C2H6O is ethanol (CH3CH2OH).
(b) On oxidation with CrO3, ethanol (A) forms compound B which is ethanal (acetaldehyde, CH3CHO).
Equation: CH3CH2OH + [O] --CrO3--> CH3CHO + H2O
(c) Compound B (ethanal) on warming with iodine and NaOH gives a yellow precipitate (compound C) of iodoform (CHI3) indicating a methyl ketone or aldehyde with methyl group.
Equation: CH3CHO + 3I2 + 4NaOH --> CHI3 (yellow ppt) + HCOONa + 3NaI + 3H2O
(d) When compound A (ethanol) is heated with concentrated H2SO4 at 413 K, dehydration occurs producing compound D which is ethene (CH2=CH2).
Equation: CH3CH2OH --conc H2SO4, 413 K--> CH2=CH2 + H2O
(e) Compound D (ethene) on reaction with excess HI gives compound E which is ethyl iodide (C2H5I).
Equation: CH2=CH2 + HI --> CH3CH2I

Summary:
A - Ethanol (CH3CH2OH)
B - Ethanal (CH3CHO)
C - Iodoform (CHI3)
D - Ethene (CH2=CH2)
E - Ethyl iodide (CH3CH2I)

These reactions show typical oxidation, haloform test, dehydration and addition reaction of ethanol and its derivatives.
Question 30.

(a) Write chemical equations of the following reactions :         

(i) Phenol is treated with conc. HNO3

(ii) Propene is treated with B H followed by oxidation by H202/OH-.

(iii) Sodium t-butoxide is treated with CH3 Cl.

(b) Give a simple chemical test to distinguish between butan—1—ol and butan—2—ol.

(c) Arrange the following in increasing order of acid strength : phenol, ethanol, water.

[5 Marks]
Answer: (a)
(i) When phenol is treated with concentrated nitric acid, nitration occurs mainly at the ortho and para positions forming a mixture of 2-nitrophenol and 4-nitrophenol. The reaction can be written as:
C6H5OH + HNO3 (conc.) -> o-nitrophenol + p-nitrophenol + H2O
(ii) Propene reacts with borane (B H3) to give an organoborane intermediate which on oxidation with hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) in alkaline medium (OH-) gives propanol. The hydroboration-oxidation reaction gives anti-Markovnikov addition of water.
CH3-CH=CH2 + B H3 -> organoborane intermediate
Organoborane + H2O2/OH- -> CH3-CH2-CH2OH
(iii) Sodium t-butoxide reacts with methyl chloride (CH3 Cl) via nucleophilic substitution to give t-butyl methyl ether.
((CH3)3CO-)Na+ + CH3Cl -> (CH3)3COCH3 + NaCl
(b)
To distinguish between butan-1-ol and butan-2-ol, use Lucas test. When treated with Lucas reagent (ZnCl2 in concentrated HCl), butan-2-ol reacts faster forming turbidity due to formation of alkyl chloride, while butan-1-ol reacts slowly. Thus, appearance of turbidity immediately indicates butan-2-ol, while delayed turbidity or no turbidity indicates butan-1-ol.
(c)
The increasing order of acid strength among phenol, ethanol and water is:
ethanol < water < phenol
This is because phenol has resonance stabilization of its phenoxide ion, making it more acidic than water and ethanol. Water is more acidic than ethanol due to better stabilization of its conjugate base.

Paper Details

CBSE Board Exam 2025

Class

CLASS 12-PCM

Subject

CHEMISTRY

Year

2025

Set

Set 2

Other Years — CHEMISTRY

2022 Set-1

2022 Set-2

2022 Set-3

2022 Set-4

2022 Set-5

2023 Set-1

2023 Set-2

2023 Set-3

2023 Set-4

2023 Set-5

2024 Set-1

2024 Set-2

2024 Set-3

2024 Set-4

2024 Set-5

2025 Set-1

2025 Set-2

2025 Set-3

2025 Set-4

2025 Set-5

2025 Set-6